DSST Principles Of Supervision Practice Quiz

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which of the following most accurately describe the primary role of a supervisor within an organization?

    • Facilitator
    • Collaborator
    • Advocate
    • Expert
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About This Quiz

If you have read the complete book of "The DSST Principles of Supervision" and want to review your knowledge of the same, here is a DSST practice quiz for you. Generally, the book is a business supervision course designed to prepare the students for the DSST exam. It tells them how to plan, organize, and manage an organization. This quiz See moreis recommended if you want to appear for this exam and check your preparation level. Good luck!

DSST Principles Of Supervision Practice Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The term supervisor is generally used to refer to individuals at which of the following levels of management?

    • Top

    • Middle

    • Executive

    • First

    Correct Answer
    A. First
    Explanation
    The term "supervisor" is generally used to refer to individuals at the first level of management. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of a group of employees and ensuring that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. They are typically involved in day-to-day operations and report to higher-level managers.

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  • 3. 

    An individual with supervisory management responsibility would be most likely to oversee which of the following?

    • Technician

    • Division head

    • CEO

    • Branch manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician
    Explanation
    An individual with supervisory management responsibility would be most likely to oversee a Technician. This is because a technician is a lower-level employee who performs technical tasks and requires guidance and supervision from a manager. Supervisory managers are responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates, providing direction, training, and support to ensure tasks are completed efficiently and effectively.

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  • 4. 

    If a supervisor can perform certain job duties more efficiently than an employee, the supervisor should generally

    • Perform the employee's duties personally

    • Avoid stepping in, unless there is a personnel shortage

    • Transfer the employee to another department

    • Penalize the employee for lack of competence

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid stepping in, unless there is a personnel shortage
    Explanation
    If a supervisor can perform certain job duties more efficiently than an employee, it is generally advised for the supervisor to avoid stepping in, unless there is a personnel shortage. This means that the supervisor should not take over the employee's duties unless absolutely necessary, such as when there is a shortage of staff. This approach allows the employee to learn and improve their skills, while also ensuring that the supervisor's time is used effectively on tasks that only they can perform efficiently. Penalizing the employee or transferring them to another department may not be necessary or productive in this situation.

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  • 5. 

    First-level supervisory usually rely most heavily on which of the following types of skills?

    • Technical skills

    • Administrative skills

    • Human relations skills

    • Conceptual skills

    Correct Answer
    A. Human relations skills
    Explanation
    First-level supervisors usually rely most heavily on human relations skills because they are responsible for managing and leading a team of employees. These skills involve effectively communicating, motivating, and resolving conflicts among team members. Human relations skills are essential for creating a positive work environment, building strong relationships, and ensuring smooth teamwork. Technical skills may be important for specific tasks, but they are not as crucial for supervisors at this level. Administrative skills and conceptual skills are more relevant for higher-level managers who focus on planning, organizing, and decision-making.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is an example of an administrative managerial skill?

    • Gathering data regarding department productivity

    • Troubleshooting an equipment malfunction

    • Giving employees a pep talk

    • Completing a weekly performance report

    Correct Answer
    A. Completing a weekly performance report
    Explanation
    Completing a weekly performance report is an example of an administrative managerial skill because it involves collecting and organizing data related to department productivity and performance. This task requires the ability to analyze and interpret data, communicate findings effectively, and make informed decisions based on the results. It also demonstrates organizational and time management skills, as the report needs to be completed on a regular basis.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following supervisory roles involves routing reports and information to employees?

    • Disseminator

    • Resource allocator

    • Disturbance handler

    • Liaison

    Correct Answer
    A. Disseminator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Disseminator. In a supervisory role, the disseminator is responsible for distributing reports and information to employees. This involves sharing important updates, data, and instructions with team members to ensure that everyone is well-informed and on the same page. The disseminator acts as a bridge between upper management and employees, ensuring that information flows smoothly and effectively throughout the organization.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is an example of a supervisor acting in the role of entrepreneur?

    • Greeting visitors to the group or unit

    • Providing employee performance feedback

    • Speaking out against negative changes

    • Encouraging innovation by employees

    Correct Answer
    A. Encouraging innovation by employees
    Explanation
    Encouraging innovation by employees is an example of a supervisor acting in the role of an entrepreneur because it involves promoting and supporting new ideas and initiatives within the organization. By encouraging employees to think creatively and take risks, the supervisor is fostering an entrepreneurial mindset and creating an environment that values innovation and growth. This role goes beyond traditional supervisory responsibilities and aligns with the characteristics of an entrepreneur who seeks to identify and capitalize on new opportunities for the organization's success.

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  • 9. 

    A supervisor who margins with other department is acting in which of the following supervisory roles?

    • Liaison

    • Figurehead

    • Negotiator

    • Resource allocator

    Correct Answer
    A. Negotiator
    Explanation
    A supervisor who margins with other departments is acting in the role of a negotiator. This role involves representing their department's interests and negotiating with other departments to reach agreements or resolve conflicts. By engaging in discussions and bargaining, the supervisor aims to find mutually beneficial solutions that meet the needs of all parties involved. This role requires strong communication and negotiation skills to effectively navigate and mediate between different departments.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following does NOT represent an advantage of group decision making?

    • Improves group morale

    • Saves time

    • Improves communication within the group

    • Increases employee commitment to the decision

    Correct Answer
    A. Saves time
    Explanation
    Group decision making typically involves more time and effort compared to individual decision making because it requires the participation and input of multiple individuals. This is why "saves time" does not represent an advantage of group decision making. In fact, group decision making often takes longer as it involves discussions, debates, and consensus-building among group members. However, the other options mentioned, such as improving group morale, communication within the group, and employee commitment to the decision, are all advantages of group decision making.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following steps occurs first in the decision-making process?

    • Identifying available alternatives

    • Defining the idea or problem

    • Evaluation available alternatives

    • Choosing the preferred alternatives

    Correct Answer
    A. Defining the idea or problem
    Explanation
    In the decision-making process, defining the idea or problem is the first step. This involves clearly understanding and articulating the issue at hand, as well as identifying the objectives or goals to be achieved. Without a clear definition of the problem, it would be difficult to proceed with the subsequent steps such as identifying available alternatives, evaluating them, and choosing the preferred alternative. Therefore, defining the idea or problem is the initial and crucial step in the decision-making process.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an example of a programmed decision?

    • Responding to a lawsuit

    • Processing an insurance claim

    • Choosing who to promote to supervisor

    • Handling a fuel explosion

    Correct Answer
    A. Processing an insurance claim
    Explanation
    Processing an insurance claim is an example of a programmed decision because it involves following a set of predefined rules, guidelines, and procedures. Insurance companies have established protocols for evaluating claims, determining coverage, and processing payments. This decision-making process is typically routine and repetitive, with little room for discretion or subjective judgment. Therefore, it can be categorized as a programmed decision.

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  • 13. 

    Ethical behavior generally requires consideration of all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Fairness

    • Legality

    • Expedience

    • Honesty

    Correct Answer
    A. Expedience
    Explanation
    Ethical behavior generally requires consideration of fairness, legality, and honesty. However, expedience is not a factor that should be considered when determining ethical behavior. Expedience refers to acting in a way that is convenient or advantageous in the short term, even if it may not be morally right or fair. Ethical behavior should prioritize fairness, legality, and honesty over expedience, as it focuses on doing what is right and just, rather than what is easy or beneficial in the moment.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is an example of ethical behavior?

    • Authorizing an example of violate company rules

    • Maintaining the confidentiality of classified information

    • Dating an employee who works under your direct supervision

    • Providing falsified data on productivity reports

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining the confidentiality of classified information
    Explanation
    Maintaining the confidentiality of classified information is an example of ethical behavior because it demonstrates a commitment to upholding professional standards and protecting sensitive information. By keeping classified information confidential, individuals show respect for privacy, trustworthiness, and integrity. It also ensures that sensitive data is not misused or compromised, which can have serious consequences for national security and individuals involved.

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  • 15. 

    A supervisor who continues to make decisions that have been delegated is violating which of the following principles? 

    • Span of control

    • Chain of command

    • Unity of command

    • Management by exception

    Correct Answer
    A. Management by exception
    Explanation
    Management by exception is a principle that states that supervisors should only intervene and make decisions when there are significant deviations from the expected results or when problems arise. By continuing to make decisions that have been delegated, the supervisor is not allowing their subordinates to take ownership and responsibility for their assigned tasks. This violates the principle of management by exception, as the supervisor is not allowing for the proper delegation of authority and decision-making power.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following CANNOT be delegated?

    • Tasks

    • Authority

    • Assignments

    • Accountability

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountability
    Explanation
    Accountability cannot be delegated because it is the obligation to take responsibility for one's actions, decisions, and outcomes. It is a personal attribute that cannot be transferred to someone else. While tasks, authority, and assignments can be delegated to others, the ultimate responsibility and accountability for the results still lie with the person who delegated them.

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  • 17. 

    Planning is generally concerned with which of the following?

    • Future decisions

    • Future impact of current decisions

    • Past decisions

    • Current impact of past decisions

    Correct Answer
    A. Future impact of current decisions
    Explanation
    Planning is generally concerned with the future impact of current decisions. When we engage in planning, we consider the consequences and outcomes that our current decisions will have on the future. This involves analyzing different scenarios, forecasting potential outcomes, and making informed choices to achieve desired goals. By focusing on the future impact of current decisions, planning helps individuals and organizations to anticipate challenges, identify opportunities, and make proactive adjustments to ensure success in the long run.

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  • 18. 

    Programs, projects, and schedules are examples of 

    • Corporate plans

    • Single-use plans

    • Standing plans

    • Repeat-use plans

    Correct Answer
    A. Single-use plans
    Explanation
    Single-use plans refer to plans that are developed for a specific purpose or objective and are not intended to be used repeatedly. Programs, projects, and schedules are all examples of single-use plans because they are created to achieve a specific goal or complete a particular task within a defined timeframe. These plans are temporary and are not meant to be used on an ongoing basis like standing plans. Standing plans, on the other hand, are designed to be used repeatedly and are more permanent in nature.

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  • 19. 

    Supervisor generally give most of their attention to which of the following types of planning?

    • Strategic

    • Short-range

    • Long-range

    • Intermediate

    Correct Answer
    A. Short-range
    Explanation
    Supervisors generally give most of their attention to short-range planning because it involves immediate goals and objectives that need to be achieved within a shorter time frame. Short-range planning allows supervisors to focus on day-to-day operations, allocate resources, and make necessary adjustments to meet short-term targets. This type of planning is essential for maintaining efficiency, addressing immediate challenges, and ensuring that the organization stays on track to achieve its overall objectives.

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  • 20. 

    Backup plans that specify alternative strategies to use in the event of an unforeseen outcome are known as 

    • Standing plans

    • Developmental plans

    • Contingency plans

    • Intervening plans

    Correct Answer
    A. Contingency plans
    Explanation
    Contingency plans are backup plans that outline alternative strategies to be implemented in case an unexpected outcome occurs. These plans are designed to address unforeseen events or circumstances that may disrupt the original plan or objective. They provide a framework for organizations to respond effectively and efficiently to unexpected situations, minimizing the impact and ensuring business continuity. Contingency plans are crucial in managing risks and uncertainties, allowing organizations to adapt and make informed decisions when faced with unforeseen challenges.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is focused on facilitating the achievement of long-term strategic plans?

    • Force planning

    • Operational planning

    • Mission-based planning

    • Objective planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational planning
    Explanation
    Operational planning is focused on facilitating the achievement of long-term strategic plans. This type of planning involves the development of specific actions and tactics that are necessary to implement the overall strategic goals of an organization. It includes the identification of resources, timelines, and responsibilities needed to execute the plan effectively. Operational planning ensures that the day-to-day activities align with the long-term objectives, helping to drive the organization towards its strategic goals.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following does NOT represent an advantage of written objectives?

    • They receive more attention than unwritten objectives.

    • They are updated more frequently than unwritten objectives.

    • They provide a permanent record.

    • They are more challenging than unwritten objectives.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are more challenging than unwritten objectives.
    Explanation
    Written objectives do not necessarily represent an advantage in terms of being more challenging than unwritten objectives. While written objectives may provide a clear and tangible record of goals, facilitate communication and accountability, and ensure consistency, they do not inherently make objectives more challenging. The level of challenge in objectives can be determined by their content and complexity, regardless of whether they are written or unwritten.

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  • 23. 

    Each of the following is important to objective setting EXCEPT:

    • Prioritization

    • Idealism

    • Employee input

    • Follow up

    Correct Answer
    A. Idealism
    Explanation
    Objective setting involves defining specific and measurable goals to be achieved. Prioritization is important to determine the order in which objectives should be pursued, employee input is important to ensure buy-in and engagement, and follow-up is important to track progress and make necessary adjustments. However, idealism, which refers to holding high and often unrealistic standards or expectations, may not be directly relevant to objective setting as it does not provide a practical approach for setting achievable goals.

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  • 24. 

    A Gantt chart would be most appropriate for scheduling which of the following?

    • Completion of orders by a manufacturing facility

    • Construction of a skyscraper

    • Renovation of a subway system

    • Installation of a satellite in space

    Correct Answer
    A. Completion of orders by a manufacturing facility
    Explanation
    A Gantt chart is a visual tool used for project scheduling and management. It displays tasks and their corresponding timelines, allowing for effective planning and coordination. In the context of the given options, the completion of orders by a manufacturing facility can involve multiple tasks with specific start and end dates. A Gantt chart would be most appropriate in this scenario to track the progress of each order, allocate resources, and ensure timely delivery. It helps in organizing and visualizing the manufacturing process, making it easier to manage and meet customer demands efficiently.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the set of activities that make up the longest route, in terms of time, required to complete a project?

    • Event timeframe

    • Critical path

    • Activity-event scheme

    • Activity network

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical path
    Explanation
    The term "Critical path" is commonly used to refer to the set of activities that make up the longest route, in terms of time, required to complete a project. It represents the sequence of tasks that must be completed in order to finish the project within the shortest possible time. The critical path helps project managers identify the tasks that have the most impact on the project's overall duration and allows them to prioritize and allocate resources accordingly.

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  • 26. 

    The management by objectives (MBO) planning process is based on which of the following principles?

    • Employees prefer to be evaluated according to criteria established by top management.

    • Individuals work harder to achieve objectives if they are committed to those objectives.

    • Employees are generally not adept at setting realistic work objectives for themselves.

    • Employees generally prefer to set goals in qualitative rather than quantitative terms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Individuals work harder to achieve objectives if they are committed to those objectives.
    Explanation
    The MBO planning process is based on the principle that individuals work harder to achieve objectives if they are committed to those objectives. This principle recognizes that when employees are personally invested in the goals they are working towards, they are more likely to put in the necessary effort and dedication to achieve them. By involving employees in the goal-setting process and allowing them to have a say in defining their objectives, MBO aims to increase their commitment and motivation, leading to improved performance and results.

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  • 27. 

    Supervisors should generally plan to handle sensitive or difficult tasks during which of the following daily time periods?

    • Early morning

    • Late afternoon

    • Period of individual peak effectiveness

    • Before or after a scheduled break, such as lunch

    Correct Answer
    A. Period of individual peak effectiveness
    Explanation
    Supervisors should generally plan to handle sensitive or difficult tasks during the period of individual peak effectiveness. This is because during this time, individuals are most alert, focused, and productive, making it easier to tackle challenging tasks. Planning tasks during this period ensures that supervisors can make the most of their cognitive abilities and perform at their best, increasing the likelihood of successful outcomes.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following types of authority is most likely to be carried out by specialists within a particular field?

    • Staff authority

    • Centralized authority

    • Decentralized authority

    • Line authority

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff authority
    Explanation
    Staff authority is most likely to be carried out by specialists within a particular field. This type of authority involves providing advice, support, and expertise to line managers and employees in order to assist in decision-making and problem-solving. Specialists, who possess in-depth knowledge and skills in a specific area, are typically appointed to staff positions to provide guidance and support to the organization. They may have authority over a specific function or department and play a crucial role in ensuring the efficient and effective operation of the organization within their area of expertise.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following types of organizational structures usually allows for decisions to be carried out most quickly?

    • Customer departmentalization

    • Line organization

    • Geographic departmentalization

    • Line and staff organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Line organization
    Explanation
    Line organization usually allows for decisions to be carried out most quickly because it has a clear and direct chain of command. In this type of organizational structure, authority and responsibility flow in a straight line from top management to lower-level employees. This eliminates the need for multiple layers of approval and ensures that decisions can be made and implemented quickly. Additionally, communication is more efficient in a line organization, as there are fewer levels of management to pass information through.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following best characterizes a decentralized organization?

    • Top management makes important decisions regarding all organizational units.

    • Middle and lower levels of management make important decisions regarding their units.

    • Middle and lower levels of management make routine operational decisions only.

    • Top management makes routine operational decisions only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Middle and lower levels of management make important decisions regarding their units.
    Explanation
    A decentralized organization is characterized by the delegation of decision-making authority to middle and lower levels of management. In this type of organization, important decisions regarding their respective units are made by these managers, rather than being solely determined by top management. This allows for greater autonomy and empowerment at lower levels, as well as faster decision-making and flexibility in response to specific unit needs and circumstances.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following most likely represents an example of a highly centralized organization?

    • A CEO empowers middle managers to make all major decisions regarding their departmental operations.

    • A CEO delegates hiring and firing authority to unit supervisors.

    • A CEO makes only strategic decisions related to company-wide operations.

    • A CEO must approve all new unit employees before they can be extended a job offer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A CEO must approve all new unit employees before they can be extended a job offer.
    Explanation
    In a highly centralized organization, decision-making authority is concentrated at the top level, typically with the CEO. The fact that the CEO must approve all new unit employees before they can be extended a job offer indicates a high level of centralization. This means that the CEO has control over the hiring process and has the final say in the decision, indicating a highly centralized structure where power and authority are concentrated at the top.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following will most likely result from decentralization of an organization?

    • Fewer management levels

    • Reduced duplication of effort

    • Uniformity of policies and procedures

    • Authoritarian management styles

    Correct Answer
    A. Fewer management levels
    Explanation
    Decentralization of an organization is likely to result in fewer management levels. This is because decentralization involves delegating decision-making authority to lower levels of the organization, empowering employees and reducing the need for multiple layers of management. With fewer management levels, there is a flatter organizational structure, which promotes faster decision-making, better communication, and increased efficiency. It also allows for greater employee empowerment and autonomy, as decision-making is distributed across various levels of the organization.

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  • 33. 

    Matrix organization would most likely be used for all of the following types of projects EXCEPT:

    • Building a prototype of an aircraft

    • Tracking the results of a marketing campaign

    • Designing a shopping complex

    • Developing a new weapons system

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracking the results of a marketing campaign
    Explanation
    Matrix organization is a project management structure that combines functional and project-based reporting lines. It is typically used for complex projects that require coordination between different departments or functions. Building a prototype of an aircraft, designing a shopping complex, and developing a new weapons system are all examples of projects that would benefit from a matrix organization structure as they involve multiple disciplines and require cross-functional collaboration. However, tracking the results of a marketing campaign is a relatively simple and straightforward task that does not require the same level of coordination and integration between different departments, making it less suitable for a matrix organization.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following types of industries is most likely to rely on matrix organization?

    • Software development

    • Candy sales

    • Shoe manufacturing

    • Textile manufacturing

    Correct Answer
    A. Software development
    Explanation
    Software development is most likely to rely on matrix organization because it is a complex and dynamic industry that requires cross-functional collaboration and coordination. In a matrix organization, employees are grouped by both function and project, allowing for efficient resource allocation, expertise sharing, and effective communication across different teams and departments. This structure is particularly beneficial in software development where multiple teams with different skill sets, such as developers, testers, and designers, need to work together on various projects simultaneously.

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  • 35. 

    Team members involved in projects that are structured according to matrix organization are LEAST likely to suffer from which of the following types of conflict?

    • Conflicts over work priorities

    • Conflicts over scheduling

    • Conflicting loyalties to project managers versus department heads

    • Conflicts between team members over functional expertise

    Correct Answer
    A. Conflicts between team members over functional expertise
    Explanation
    In a matrix organization, team members are typically assigned to both a functional department and a project team. This structure encourages collaboration and the sharing of expertise across different functional areas. Therefore, conflicts between team members over functional expertise are least likely to occur in a matrix organization.

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  • 36. 

    An organization with narrow spans of control is generally a(n)

    • Matrix organization.

    • Specialized organization.

    • Efficient organization.

    • Tall organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tall organization.
    Explanation
    An organization with narrow spans of control is generally a tall organization. This is because in a tall organization, there are multiple levels of management between the top-level executives and the front-line employees. With narrow spans of control, each manager has a limited number of subordinates to supervise, resulting in a taller organizational structure with more hierarchical levels. This allows for closer supervision and control over employees, but it can also lead to slower decision-making and communication processes.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following represents a drawback of wide spans of control?

    • Increased cost

    • Overburdened managers

    • Complexity of decision making

    • Complications in communication

    Correct Answer
    A. Overburdened managers
    Explanation
    Wide spans of control refer to a management structure where a single manager oversees a large number of subordinates. This can lead to overburdened managers, as they are responsible for managing and supervising a larger number of employees. With more employees to oversee, managers may struggle to provide adequate support, guidance, and feedback to each individual employee. This can result in decreased productivity, lower employee morale, and increased stress for managers. Therefore, overburdened managers can be seen as a drawback of wide spans of control.

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  • 38. 

    A manager can effectively supervise a larger number of employees if the

    • Jobs supervised are highly complex.

    • Manager and employees work in close proximity.

    • Jobs supervised have a great deal of variety.

    • Employees supervised are not highly skilled.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manager and employees work in close proximity.
    Explanation
    When a manager and employees work in close proximity, it becomes easier for the manager to supervise a larger number of employees. This is because being physically close allows for more frequent and immediate communication, feedback, and guidance. The manager can easily observe and monitor the employees' work, address any issues or concerns promptly, and provide necessary support. This proximity also fosters a sense of collaboration and teamwork, which can enhance productivity and efficiency. Overall, close proximity between the manager and employees facilitates effective supervision and ensures that tasks are completed efficiently.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following organizational structures violates the principle of unity of command?

    • Customer

    • Function

    • Product

    • Matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Matrix
    Explanation
    The matrix organizational structure violates the principle of unity of command because it involves employees reporting to multiple managers, resulting in a situation where they may receive conflicting instructions or priorities. In a matrix structure, employees have dual reporting lines, typically a functional manager and a project manager, which can lead to confusion and a lack of clear direction. This structure can create challenges in decision-making, coordination, and accountability, making it inconsistent with the principle of unity of command.

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  • 40. 

    The principle of unity of command is based on the rationale that

    • Both employee and supervisor should be clear on an employee’s job description.

    • It is difficult for a manager to supervise many employees at once.

    • It is difficult for an employee to satisfy two bosses at once.

    • Organizations function best with lean and simple organizing structures.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is difficult for an employee to satisfy two bosses at once.
    Explanation
    The principle of unity of command states that an employee should have only one supervisor to report to. This is because it is difficult for an employee to satisfy two bosses at once. When an employee has multiple supervisors, there can be conflicting instructions and priorities, leading to confusion and inefficiency. Having a single supervisor ensures clear communication, accountability, and a focused direction for the employee's work. It also avoids situations where an employee may feel torn between pleasing two different supervisors, which can create stress and hinder productivity.

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  • 41. 

    A job analysis generally assesses all of the following requirements for performing a job EXCEPT:

    • Skills

    • Political connections

    • Educational attainment

    • Training

    Correct Answer
    A. Political connections
    Explanation
    A job analysis is a process that evaluates various aspects of a job to determine its requirements and expectations. It typically includes assessing skills, educational attainment, and training needed to perform the job effectively. However, political connections are not a requirement for performing a job. Political connections refer to having influential contacts or affiliations within the political sphere, which are unrelated to job performance. Therefore, political connections are not considered as a part of job analysis.

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  • 42. 

    Job descriptions are usually developed by which of the following?

    • Supervisors

    • Middle managers

    • Top management

    • Line employees

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors
    Explanation
    Supervisors are usually responsible for developing job descriptions because they have direct knowledge and understanding of the tasks and responsibilities required for each position within their department. They work closely with employees and have a clear understanding of the skills and qualifications needed for each role. Supervisors also have the authority to make decisions regarding job responsibilities and can effectively communicate with top management and middle managers to ensure that job descriptions are aligned with the overall goals and objectives of the organization.

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  • 43. 

    A job analysis generally involves examining

    • Locations for employee recruitment.

    • A company’s historical background.

    • The employee who is performing a job.

    • A job and its requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. A job and its requirements.
    Explanation
    A job analysis involves examining a job and its requirements. This process involves analyzing the tasks, duties, responsibilities, and skills needed to perform the job effectively. It helps in understanding the essential functions of the job, identifying the knowledge and qualifications required, and determining the physical and mental demands of the job. By conducting a job analysis, organizations can ensure that they have a clear understanding of the job's requirements and can make informed decisions regarding recruitment, training, performance evaluation, and compensation.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is responsible for upholding antidiscrimination laws that affect an organization?

    • Top, middle, and supervisory management

    • Top and middle management

    • Employees

    • Top management

    Correct Answer
    A. Top, middle, and supervisory management
    Explanation
    Top, middle, and supervisory management are responsible for upholding antidiscrimination laws that affect an organization. These levels of management have the authority and responsibility to ensure that the organization complies with antidiscrimination laws and promotes a fair and inclusive work environment. They are involved in setting policies, enforcing regulations, and taking appropriate actions to prevent discrimination and address any issues that may arise. By involving these levels of management, the organization can effectively implement and enforce antidiscrimination measures throughout the organization.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following would be considered a member of a protected group?

    • A clerical worker

    • A union member

    • A supervisor

    • An elderly worker

    Correct Answer
    A. An elderly worker
    Explanation
    An elderly worker would be considered a member of a protected group because age is a protected characteristic under anti-discrimination laws. This means that employers cannot discriminate against individuals based on their age, and elderly workers are entitled to the same rights and protections as any other employee.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following types of information can be lawfully used to disqualify candidates for employment?

    • Arrest record

    • Religious affiliation

    • Legal eligibility to work in the United States

    • National origin

    Correct Answer
    A. Legal eligibility to work in the United States
    Explanation
    The correct answer is legal eligibility to work in the United States. This information is relevant and necessary for employers to determine if a candidate is legally allowed to work in the country. It is a lawful basis for disqualifying candidates as it ensures compliance with immigration laws and regulations. Arrest record, religious affiliation, and national origin are all protected characteristics that should not be used as grounds for disqualification, as they can lead to discrimination and bias in the hiring process.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the process of screening applicants to choose the best person for a particular job?

    • Orientation

    • Training

    • Selection

    • Placement

    Correct Answer
    A. Selection
    Explanation
    Selection is the commonly used term to refer to the process of screening applicants to choose the best person for a particular job. This process involves evaluating the qualifications, skills, and experience of candidates to determine their suitability for the job. It includes various techniques such as interviews, assessments, reference checks, and background checks to make an informed decision about the most suitable candidate for the position.

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  • 48. 

    Each of the following represents a pitfall commonly experienced by interviewers during the structured interview process EXCEPT:

    • The halo effect

    • Personal bias

    • Overgeneralization

    • Inconsistency

    Correct Answer
    A. Inconsistency
    Explanation
    Inconsistency is not a pitfall commonly experienced by interviewers during the structured interview process. This means that interviewers are typically able to maintain consistency in their questioning, evaluation, and decision-making throughout the interview process. The other options listed - the halo effect, personal bias, and overgeneralization - are all common pitfalls that interviewers may encounter, which can lead to biased or inaccurate assessments of candidates.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following questions is acceptable to ask during an employee interview?

    • “What is your native language?”

    • “Where were you born?”

    • “How many children do you have?”

    • “Can you meet the work schedule of this job?”

    Correct Answer
    A. “Can you meet the work schedule of this job?”
    Explanation
    The question "Can you meet the work schedule of this job?" is acceptable to ask during an employee interview because it directly relates to the candidate's ability to fulfill the requirements of the job. It is relevant to assess if the candidate is available and willing to work the necessary hours and can accommodate the schedule of the job. This question focuses on the candidate's qualifications and suitability for the position, rather than personal or discriminatory factors like language, birthplace, or family status.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Dec 7, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 07, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 03, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Banks1991

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