Volume 2, 5 Level CDC Study

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1. The basic HGU-55/P helmet shell incorporates the leather edge roll and lens stops to aid in retention of lightweight visors and?

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Volume 2, 5 Level CDC Study - Quiz

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2. What does the high speed visor incorporate to provide friction that will hold the visor in up to 600 knots equivalent air speed (KEAS)?

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3. The combat edge bladder is inflated when the aircraft exceeds?

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4. Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing systen (JHMCS) provides the various symbologies that are projected onto the visor?

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5. How are the extra small (XS) and extra extra small (XXS) HGU-56/P helmet sizes accomodated to the aircrew member?

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6. The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU-56/P helmet by using a?

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7. What is the purpose of the skeleton shroud on the future assault shell technology (FAST) helmet?

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8. Which night vision goggle assembly incorporates Diopter adjustments that allow the image to adjust to variations in the user's eyesight?

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9. What solution may be used to clean night vision goggles?

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10. How many degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for AN/AVS-10(V) panoramic night vision goggles (PNVG)?

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11. Which assembly, of the panoramic night vision goggle (PNVG), houses the adjustment mechanisms for interpupillary distance adjustments (IPD), fore and aft adjustments, and the tilt adjustment mechanism?

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12. Which aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) device's lenses are housed in a Low Pro Wrap frame?

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13. If the thermal radiation curtain is closed and the flash divider curtain is not erected, the peephole cover must be?

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14. What color are low pressure oxygen cylinders?

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15. The demand oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flight up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

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16. The continuos flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

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17. What type of manifold block is the CRU-60/P oxygen connector?

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18. How many sizes does the CSU-17/P vest assembly come in?

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19. How is closure accomplished on the ML-4 survival Kit?

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20. Where is the slide fastener release lanyard located on the ML-4 container?

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21. The AIRSAVE vest is intended to be worn over the top of the?

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22. What beacon megahertz (MHz) frequencies does the AN/PRC-112 series radio contain?

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23. On what two megahertz (MHz) frequencies can the URT-44 provide homing signals?

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24. What is the flash rate for the MS-2000M strobe Lights?

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25. How is the tacking of the excess straps on the LPU-38/P secured?

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26. How many primary inflators are on the A-A-50652 life preserver?

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27. Where does the crewmember board the LRU-16/P life raft?

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28. What component part on the LRU-16/P primarily reduces life raft drift?

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29. What is used to initially inflate the F-2B life raft main flotation tube?

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30. When inflated, what shape is the 25-man life raft?

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31. How many people is the LRU-33/A life raft designed to hold?

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32. The KC-135 type escape slide is packed into a?

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33. What is the main difference between the C-5 and the KC-135 cylinder inspections?

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34. What size and type of material is used to construct the C-9 canopy on the pilot parachute?

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35. The purpose of the parachute pack on the C-9 canopy is to?

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36. The purpose of the mortar assembly on the ACES II parachute is to

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37. During the deployment of the ACES II drogue chute, when is the drogue chute released?

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38. For which aircraft is the HCV not authorized?

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39. What 2 major components make up the HDU?

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40. What is collimation?

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41. What is the first step when cleaning a NVG

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42. When working with NVG's, normally how long does dark adaption take?

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43. How are seams of the curtains covered?

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44. What can be done to attain relief from hypoxia?

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45. Which decompression sickness is characterized by nitrogen bubbles that form around large body joints?

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46. What part limits the maximum pressure to the pilot's mask to 80mm Hg?

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47. What CRU-60/P ability allows a straight pull disconnect action during the ejection sequence or emergency egress?

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48. What type of oxygen system does the MBU-20/P oxygen mask support?

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49. Once activated how will the user know the oxygen flow has ceased?

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50. What problem may arise if an aircrew is immersed in water below 92 degrees F

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51. How many sizes does the CWU-16/P come in?

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52. Currently, the OTS coverall is only approved for wear aboard what aircraft?

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53. What is the service life for the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers anti-exposure coveralls?

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54. What does the term multi-place mean?

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55. What is the difference between a multi-place accessory container and other survival kits?

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56. The air ace survival vest come in what two sizes?

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57. How is a vest hanging too low in the waist area corrected?

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58. How many sizes does the AIRSAVE vest come in?

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59. What is the first step when inspecting survival items?

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60. What does the (V) indicate when referring to the AN/AVS-9(V) Aviators Night Vision Goggles (NVG)?

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61. Without adjustment, what neck size does the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) neck seal fit?

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62. If needed during flight, where should the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) be placed on infants to protect them from smoke, fumes, or lack of oxygen?

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63. How long is the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) unit service life, from date of manufacture, as long as the protective pouch has not been compromised?

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64. The entire donning and activation sequence should take less than?

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65. On the CWU-16/P, which pocket is the inflatable hood attached?

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66. Why do the tops of the CWU-67/P socks extend to the flight boots when they are connected to the CWU-74/P anti exposure coverall?

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67. How many sizes do the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers anti-exposure coveralls come in for women?

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68. What is the primary difference between the versions of advanced concept ejection seat 2 (ACES 2) survival kits?

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69. When selecting either automatic or manual deployment modes for the advanced concept ejection seat 2 (ACES 2) survival kit, the kit deployment selector will be located on the seat pan at the?

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70. To prevent duplication of items, who can approve deviations from requirements listed in the technical order if like components are installed in survival vest or multi-place life raft kits?

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71. The primary means of closing air ace survival vest exterior pockets is a slide fastener and the secondary closure method is?

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72. What is the size stencil used to mark he aircrew body armor (ABA) with the local control number?

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73. What is the maximum visible range the MK-13 flare can be seen at night?

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74. As an aircrew flight equipment journeyman working with the combat survivor/evader locator (CSEL) radio program, your major area of responsibility will be the?

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75. The ultra high frequency (UHF) satellite communications (SATCOM) mode supports two-way secure messaging/geoposition (location identifier) between the AN/GRC-242 radio set base station, and the AN/PRQ-7 radio set (HHR) through a

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76. The cosmisheskaya systyema poiska avariynish sudov search and rescue satellite assisted tracking (Cospas-Sarsat) is a?

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77. The AN/PRC-112B1 radio acts as transponder supplying 

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78. The purpose of the dummy cartridge contained in the Scot release is to

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79. Within what preset altitude range is the Scot automatic release unit?

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80. A red streamer installed on a back style parachute means it

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81. What is the recommended rate of descent when using the personnel lowering device?

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82. What is the only authorized color fro all additional attachments to the accessory rail connector (ARC) rails?

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83. Which subassembly of a night vision goggle is responsible for filtering out certain wavelengths of light?

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84. What wattage ligth bulb is used for a night vision goggle (NVG) test lane?

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85. Which is used to modify the MIL-G-635 goggles for integration with helmets and oxygen masks?

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86. Which ailment is a type of decompression sickness that causes gases to return to their original state forming bubbles in the body because of a reduction in atmospheric pressure?

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87. Which part of the CRU-120/P provides system overpressure protection for the aircrew member when the vest is not being worn or has been inadvertently disconnected?

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88. The CRU-122/P is qualified for fligths up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

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89. The individual harness adjustment straps are attached to the MBU-12/P oxygen mask with?

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90. What is the difference between the MBU-20/P and MBU-20A/P oxygen masks?

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91. With the quick-don scot 358 oxygen mask, how is the face piece held to the wearer's face?

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92. Which major component of protective breathing equipment (PBE) is powered by the ocygen generator and recirculates the breathing gas within the system loop?

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93. When fitting the LPU-10/P life preserver to an aircrew, where are the containers placed?

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94. What color are the bladders of the LPU-38/P life preserver?

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95. What is used to secure the adjustment straps when the LPU-38/P is used temporarily?

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96. The c-5 crew tape escape slide is constructed of?

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97. What is the maximum time it should take for the KC-135 escape slide to inflate?

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98. How often do KC-135 discharge valve assemblies require replacement or overhauling?

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99. Which style of personnel parachute allows crewmembers to move about the aircraft to perform their duties?

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100. When looking into NVG's, what part presents the image?

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101. What key element that separates the HGU-55A/P from the HGU-55/P?

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102. What is the purpose of the cutouts and channels in the EAL?

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103. Which component provides a mounting area for aviators night vision imaging system goggles?

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104. What is the purpose of the FAST helmet?

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105. How is an oxygen mask attached to the FAST helmet?

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106. Which accessory provides a front mounting option for NVD's with the use of a night vision mounting adapter/arm?

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107. What are the two major components of An/AVS-9(V) NVG's?

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108. On the AN/AVS-9(V) power pack, which compartment is used if the lower power position is selected?

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109. To what diopter are the PNVG eyepiece lenses engineered at the factory?

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110. What causes the density of the atmosphere to rise and fall?

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111. What color are high pressure oxygen cylinders painted?

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112. How much force is required to open the valve and allow exhaled air to pass to the atmosphere?

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113. What action activates the protective breathing equipment device?

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114. What part of the EPOS controls carbon dioxide (Co2) levels inside the hood to 4 percent of less?

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115. What water temperature are used as a cutoff to determine whether anti-exposure suits are to be worn by aircrew members

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116. Where are the external adjustment laces on the CSU-23/P trousers?

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117. How many supplied sizes are there for the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers anti-exposure coveralls?

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118. How and where is the auxiliary kit secured to the ACES II survival kit?

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119. How is the ACES II survival kit attached to the torso harness?

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120. Typically, how are outer kit containers secured with the life raft?

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121. What are the sizes of body armor designed for selected aircraft, and approximately how much does it weigh?

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122. Which one do you like?

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123. Approximately, how long can a passenger, weighing 154Ibs, expect to receive respiratory preotection while at light to moderate activity?

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124. The purpose of the breathing valves located on in the valve body of the passenger oxygen mask is to?

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125. How many inches is the deployment yoke on the ACES II drogue parachute?

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126. Which bank automatic parachute model is used for premeditated jumps?

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127. What keeps the automatic back parachute quarter deployment bag in the pack, during deployment, until three-quarters of the canopy has deployed?

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128. While in training mode, the cybernetic parachute release system (CYPRES) updates the ground pressure value every

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129. Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) is mounted to the structure of the helmet display unit (HDU) providing an electrical signal representative of the pilots head position?

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130. The regulated portion of the CRU-120/P regulated connector (RC) reduces the emergency oxygen pressure and?

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131. After the 10 minute flash rate test has been completed on the MS-2000M, what is the length of subsequent flash rate test

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132. How is the oral inflation tube on the LRU-16/P flotation tube identified?

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133. The maximum number of airspeed knots that an advanced concept ejection seat (ACES) II system can operate at is?

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134. The C-9 canopy's characteristics are best described as a?

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135. What is the time delay for the reefing line cutters to fire on the ACES II parachute?

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136. What are the two functions of the JHMCS visor assembly?

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137. Why do images viewed through NVG's appear in shades of green?

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138. What material is used to construct thermal radiation barrier curtains and what is the specification numer?

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139. How are the MBU-20/P PBE and Non-PBE masks different?

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140. How does ambient air flapper differ from the inlet and exhalation flappers?

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141. What is the difference between the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers anti-exposure coveralls?

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142. How many sizes are available for the CSU-13B/P suit?

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143. How many bladders are incorporated into the CSU-23/P trousers?

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144. How many minutes is the protective breathing equipment (PBE) rated to operate?

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145. What stroke rate must be used with the survivor 06, to produce optimum pressure within the system?

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146. When used for C-5A/B and C-17 aircraft, how long is the HBU-6/P safety strap, (+0/-1 inches to support material shrinkage) to include buckle assembly hardware is required?

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147. Which bank automatic parachute model is used for smaller framed crewmembers?

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148. The MBU-20/P oxygen mask provides for operations up to?

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149. What are the three major components of the back automatic parachute?

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150. How many inches in diameter is the MA-1 pilot parachute canopy?

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151. When can the MPLS be connected to the helmet?

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152. Which portion of the light spectrum are NVD's designed to gather?

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153. If the vest is not connected to the vest outlet port, the pressure relief valve is activated that limits pressure to the mask to approximately what pressure?

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154. What is the maximum operating altitude for protective breathing equipment (PBE)?

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155. To what altitude does the Scot 358 oxygen mask, when used with a compatible pressure breathing regulator, provide adequate protection?

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156. What Scot 358 part provides bleed oxygen from the mask to vent the anti-smoke goggles of any smoke?

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157. When the CSU-13B/P anti gravity garment is disconnected from an aircraft in a pressurized condition in excess of 1.5 pounds per square inch (psi), the bladders automatically bleed down to

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158. How long should the EPOS donning and activation sequence take?

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159. What kind of fabric are the vest pockets made from?

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160. How are ABA marked?

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161. What is the maximum pressure the maximum pressure relief valve allows to the pilot's mask?

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162. What component of the PLTZ goggles provides a self-check of its operation?

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163. What material is the over-the-side (OTS) made from?

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164. How many bladders are incorporated in the CSU-13B/P G-Suit?

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165. How many inside pockets are on the AIRSAVE vest?

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166. On the MBU-12/P oxygen mask, what difference in pressure, compared to that supplied by the oxygen system, is required to open the valve and allow exhaled air to pass to the atmosphere?

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167. What portion of the PAX mask serves as an anchor for the head strap?

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The basic HGU-55/P helmet shell incorporates the leather edge roll and...
What does the high speed visor incorporate to provide friction that...
The combat edge bladder is inflated when the aircraft exceeds?
Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing systen (JHMCS)...
How are the extra small (XS) and extra extra small (XXS) HGU-56/P...
The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU-56/P...
What is the purpose of the skeleton shroud on the future assault shell...
Which night vision goggle assembly incorporates Diopter adjustments...
What solution may be used to clean night vision goggles?
How many degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for...
Which assembly, of the panoramic night vision goggle (PNVG), houses...
Which aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) device's lenses are...
If the thermal radiation curtain is closed and the flash divider...
What color are low pressure oxygen cylinders?
The demand oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flight up to a...
The continuos flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for...
What type of manifold block is the CRU-60/P oxygen connector?
How many sizes does the CSU-17/P vest assembly come in?
How is closure accomplished on the ML-4 survival Kit?
Where is the slide fastener release lanyard located on the ML-4...
The AIRSAVE vest is intended to be worn over the top of the?
What beacon megahertz (MHz) frequencies does the AN/PRC-112 series...
On what two megahertz (MHz) frequencies can the URT-44 provide homing...
What is the flash rate for the MS-2000M strobe Lights?
How is the tacking of the excess straps on the LPU-38/P secured?
How many primary inflators are on the A-A-50652 life preserver?
Where does the crewmember board the LRU-16/P life raft?
What component part on the LRU-16/P primarily reduces life raft drift?
What is used to initially inflate the F-2B life raft main flotation...
When inflated, what shape is the 25-man life raft?
How many people is the LRU-33/A life raft designed to hold?
The KC-135 type escape slide is packed into a?
What is the main difference between the C-5 and the KC-135 cylinder...
What size and type of material is used to construct the C-9 canopy on...
The purpose of the parachute pack on the C-9 canopy is to?
The purpose of the mortar assembly on the ACES II parachute is to
During the deployment of the ACES II drogue chute, when is the drogue...
For which aircraft is the HCV not authorized?
What 2 major components make up the HDU?
What is collimation?
What is the first step when cleaning a NVG
When working with NVG's, normally how long does dark adaption...
How are seams of the curtains covered?
What can be done to attain relief from hypoxia?
Which decompression sickness is characterized by nitrogen bubbles that...
What part limits the maximum pressure to the pilot's mask to 80mm...
What CRU-60/P ability allows a straight pull disconnect action during...
What type of oxygen system does the MBU-20/P oxygen mask support?
Once activated how will the user know the oxygen flow has ceased?
What problem may arise if an aircrew is immersed in water below 92...
How many sizes does the CWU-16/P come in?
Currently, the OTS coverall is only approved for wear aboard what...
What is the service life for the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers...
What does the term multi-place mean?
What is the difference between a multi-place accessory container and...
The air ace survival vest come in what two sizes?
How is a vest hanging too low in the waist area corrected?
How many sizes does the AIRSAVE vest come in?
What is the first step when inspecting survival items?
What does the (V) indicate when referring to the AN/AVS-9(V) Aviators...
Without adjustment, what neck size does the emergency passenger oxygen...
If needed during flight, where should the emergency passenger oxygen...
How long is the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) unit service...
The entire donning and activation sequence should take less than?
On the CWU-16/P, which pocket is the inflatable hood attached?
Why do the tops of the CWU-67/P socks extend to the flight boots when...
How many sizes do the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers anti-exposure...
What is the primary difference between the versions of advanced...
When selecting either automatic or manual deployment modes for the...
To prevent duplication of items, who can approve deviations from...
The primary means of closing air ace survival vest exterior pockets is...
What is the size stencil used to mark he aircrew body armor (ABA) with...
What is the maximum visible range the MK-13 flare can be seen at...
As an aircrew flight equipment journeyman working with the combat...
The ultra high frequency (UHF) satellite communications (SATCOM) mode...
The cosmisheskaya systyema poiska avariynish sudov search and rescue...
The AN/PRC-112B1 radio acts as transponder supplying 
The purpose of the dummy cartridge contained in the Scot release is to
Within what preset altitude range is the Scot automatic release unit?
A red streamer installed on a back style parachute means it
What is the recommended rate of descent when using the personnel...
What is the only authorized color fro all additional attachments to...
Which subassembly of a night vision goggle is responsible for...
What wattage ligth bulb is used for a night vision goggle (NVG) test...
Which is used to modify the MIL-G-635 goggles for integration with...
Which ailment is a type of decompression sickness that causes gases to...
Which part of the CRU-120/P provides system overpressure protection...
The CRU-122/P is qualified for fligths up to a maximum altitude of how...
The individual harness adjustment straps are attached to the MBU-12/P...
What is the difference between the MBU-20/P and MBU-20A/P oxygen...
With the quick-don scot 358 oxygen mask, how is the face piece held to...
Which major component of protective breathing equipment (PBE) is...
When fitting the LPU-10/P life preserver to an aircrew, where are the...
What color are the bladders of the LPU-38/P life preserver?
What is used to secure the adjustment straps when the LPU-38/P is used...
The c-5 crew tape escape slide is constructed of?
What is the maximum time it should take for the KC-135 escape slide to...
How often do KC-135 discharge valve assemblies require replacement or...
Which style of personnel parachute allows crewmembers to move about...
When looking into NVG's, what part presents the image?
What key element that separates the HGU-55A/P from the HGU-55/P?
What is the purpose of the cutouts and channels in the EAL?
Which component provides a mounting area for aviators night vision...
What is the purpose of the FAST helmet?
How is an oxygen mask attached to the FAST helmet?
Which accessory provides a front mounting option for NVD's with...
What are the two major components of An/AVS-9(V) NVG's?
On the AN/AVS-9(V) power pack, which compartment is used if the lower...
To what diopter are the PNVG eyepiece lenses engineered at the...
What causes the density of the atmosphere to rise and fall?
What color are high pressure oxygen cylinders painted?
How much force is required to open the valve and allow exhaled air to...
What action activates the protective breathing equipment device?
What part of the EPOS controls carbon dioxide (Co2) levels inside the...
What water temperature are used as a cutoff to determine whether...
Where are the external adjustment laces on the CSU-23/P trousers?
How many supplied sizes are there for the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers...
How and where is the auxiliary kit secured to the ACES II survival...
How is the ACES II survival kit attached to the torso harness?
Typically, how are outer kit containers secured with the life raft?
What are the sizes of body armor designed for selected aircraft, and...
Which one do you like?
Approximately, how long can a passenger, weighing 154Ibs, expect to...
The purpose of the breathing valves located on in the valve body of...
How many inches is the deployment yoke on the ACES II drogue...
Which bank automatic parachute model is used for premeditated jumps?
What keeps the automatic back parachute quarter deployment bag in the...
While in training mode, the cybernetic parachute release system...
Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) is...
The regulated portion of the CRU-120/P regulated connector (RC)...
After the 10 minute flash rate test has been completed on the...
How is the oral inflation tube on the LRU-16/P flotation tube...
The maximum number of airspeed knots that an advanced concept ejection...
The C-9 canopy's characteristics are best described as a?
What is the time delay for the reefing line cutters to fire on the...
What are the two functions of the JHMCS visor assembly?
Why do images viewed through NVG's appear in shades of green?
What material is used to construct thermal radiation barrier curtains...
How are the MBU-20/P PBE and Non-PBE masks different?
How does ambient air flapper differ from the inlet and exhalation...
What is the difference between the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers...
How many sizes are available for the CSU-13B/P suit?
How many bladders are incorporated into the CSU-23/P trousers?
How many minutes is the protective breathing equipment (PBE) rated to...
What stroke rate must be used with the survivor 06, to produce optimum...
When used for C-5A/B and C-17 aircraft, how long is the HBU-6/P safety...
Which bank automatic parachute model is used for smaller framed...
The MBU-20/P oxygen mask provides for operations up to?
What are the three major components of the back automatic parachute?
How many inches in diameter is the MA-1 pilot parachute canopy?
When can the MPLS be connected to the helmet?
Which portion of the light spectrum are NVD's designed to gather?
If the vest is not connected to the vest outlet port, the pressure...
What is the maximum operating altitude for protective breathing...
To what altitude does the Scot 358 oxygen mask, when used with a...
What Scot 358 part provides bleed oxygen from the mask to vent the...
When the CSU-13B/P anti gravity garment is disconnected from an...
How long should the EPOS donning and activation sequence take?
What kind of fabric are the vest pockets made from?
How are ABA marked?
What is the maximum pressure the maximum pressure relief valve allows...
What component of the PLTZ goggles provides a self-check of its...
What material is the over-the-side (OTS) made from?
How many bladders are incorporated in the CSU-13B/P G-Suit?
How many inside pockets are on the AIRSAVE vest?
On the MBU-12/P oxygen mask, what difference in pressure, compared to...
What portion of the PAX mask serves as an anchor for the head strap?
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