Volume 2, 5 Level CDC Study

167 Questions | Attempts: 141
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  • 1/167 Questions

    The basic HGU-55/P helmet shell incorporates the leather edge roll and lens stops to aid in retention of lightweight visors and?

    • Provides a non-reflective surface
    • Prevents scarring of the helmet surface
    • Provides increased comfort to the wearer
    • Precludes the use of the dual visor assembly
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About This Quiz

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Volume 2, 5 Level CDC Study - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What does the high speed visor incorporate to provide friction that will hold the visor in up to 600 knots equivalent air speed (KEAS)?

    • Snap fastners

    • Adjustment buckle

    • Nylon webbing and stretch fabric

    • Specially designed rubber edge roll cover

    Correct Answer
    A. Specially designed rubber edge roll cover
  • 3. 

    The combat edge bladder is inflated when the aircraft exceeds?

    • +2G's

    • +4G's

    • -2G's

    • -4G's

    Correct Answer
    A. +4G's
  • 4. 

    Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing systen (JHMCS) provides the various symbologies that are projected onto the visor?

    • Automatic brightness control (ABC) sensor

    • Magnetic receiver unit (MRU)

    • Cathode ray tube (CRT)

    • Relay optics assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Cathode ray tube (CRT)
  • 5. 

    How are the extra small (XS) and extra extra small (XXS) HGU-56/P helmet sizes accomodated to the aircrew member?

    • Use a thicker liner

    • Install thicker spacer pads

    • Tighten the retention system

    • Make adjustments to the chin strap

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a thicker liner
  • 6. 

    The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU-56/P helmet by using a?

    • Capped T-nut and pan head screw

    • Hook and pile fastners

    • Tie-down strap

    • Elastic keeper

    Correct Answer
    A. Tie-down strap
  • 7. 

    What is the purpose of the skeleton shroud on the future assault shell technology (FAST) helmet?

    • Provide a front mounting option fro attaching night vision devices

    • Provide an attachment point for low profile battery packs

    • Eliminate the need for traditional bayonet receivers

    • Attachment point for modular lighting system

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide a front mounting option fro attaching night vision devices
  • 8. 

    Which night vision goggle assembly incorporates Diopter adjustments that allow the image to adjust to variations in the user's eyesight?

    • Binocular bridge

    • Image intensifier 

    • Eye piece lens

    •  Objective lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Eye piece lens
  • 9. 

    What solution may be used to clean night vision goggles?

    • Denatured alcohol

    • Isopropyl Alcohol

    • Ammoniated window cleaner

    • Non-Ammoniated window cleaner

    Correct Answer
    A. Isopropyl Alcohol
  • 10. 

    How many degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for AN/AVS-10(V) panoramic night vision goggles (PNVG)?

    • 40

    • 60

    • 95

    • 170

    Correct Answer
    A. 95
  • 11. 

    Which assembly, of the panoramic night vision goggle (PNVG), houses the adjustment mechanisms for interpupillary distance adjustments (IPD), fore and aft adjustments, and the tilt adjustment mechanism?

    • Bridge

    • Module

    • Helmet mount

    • Image intensifier tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Bridge
  • 12. 

    Which aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) device's lenses are housed in a Low Pro Wrap frame?

    • Joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) ALEP spectacles (JCAS)

    • Block zero (CLEPIR)

    • Block zero plus

    • Block one

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) ALEP spectacles (JCAS)
  • 13. 

    If the thermal radiation curtain is closed and the flash divider curtain is not erected, the peephole cover must be?

    • Open

    • In place

    • Removed

    • Pulled

    Correct Answer
    A. In place
  • 14. 

    What color are low pressure oxygen cylinders?

    • Grey 

    • Green

    • White 

    • Yellow

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow
  • 15. 

    The demand oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flight up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

    • 30,000

    • 34,000

    • 35,000

    • 40,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 35,000
  • 16. 

    The continuos flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

    • 40,000

    • 30,000

    • 35,000

    • 25,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 30,000
  • 17. 

    What type of manifold block is the CRU-60/P oxygen connector?

    • One way

    • Two way

    • Three way

    • Four way

    Correct Answer
    A. Three way
  • 18. 

    How many sizes does the CSU-17/P vest assembly come in?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
  • 19. 

    How is closure accomplished on the ML-4 survival Kit?

    • Snap fasteners along each side, and slide fasteners along the front

    • Snap fasteners along the front, and slide fasteners along each side

    • Snap fasteners along each side and along the front

    • Slide fasteners along each side and along the front

    Correct Answer
    A. Snap fasteners along each side, and slide fasteners along the front
  • 20. 

    Where is the slide fastener release lanyard located on the ML-4 container?

    • Left rear edge

    • Right rear edge

    •  left front edge 

    • Right front edge

    Correct Answer
    A. Right front edge
  • 21. 

    The AIRSAVE vest is intended to be worn over the top of the?

    • Torso harness

    •  air ace vest

    • Life preserver

    • Back style parachute

    Correct Answer
    A. Torso harness
  • 22. 

    What beacon megahertz (MHz) frequencies does the AN/PRC-112 series radio contain?

    • 121.5 and 243 MHz

    • 121 and 243 MHz

    • 282.8 and 243 MHz

    • 212.5 and 248 MHZ

    Correct Answer
    A. 121.5 and 243 MHz
  • 23. 

    On what two megahertz (MHz) frequencies can the URT-44 provide homing signals?

    • 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz

    • 123.1 MHz and 282.8 MHz

    • 121 MHz and 134 MHz

    • 123.1 MHz and 243 MHz

    Correct Answer
    A. 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz
  • 24. 

    What is the flash rate for the MS-2000M strobe Lights?

    • 20+-10 flashes per minute

    • 100 flashes per minute

    • 30+-5 flashes per minute

    • 50+-10 flashes per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. 50+-10 flashes per minute
  • 25. 

    How is the tacking of the excess straps on the LPU-38/P secured?

    • Square knot and an overhand knot

    • Surgeon's knot and locking knot

    • Overhand knot and square knot

    • Two surgeons knots

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgeon's knot and locking knot
  • 26. 

    How many primary inflators are on the A-A-50652 life preserver?

    • One single

    • One double

    • Two singles

    • Two doubles

    Correct Answer
    A. Two singles
  • 27. 

    Where does the crewmember board the LRU-16/P life raft?

    • Port

    • Bow

    • Stern

    • Starboard

    Correct Answer
    A. Stern
  • 28. 

    What component part on the LRU-16/P primarily reduces life raft drift?

    • Carbon dioxide (CO2) cylinder sleeve

    • Spray shield

    • Ballast bag

    • Sea anchor

    Correct Answer
    A. Sea anchor
  • 29. 

    What is used to initially inflate the F-2B life raft main flotation tube?

    • Carbon dioxide (CO2)

    • (CO2) and ambient air

    • CO2 and nitrogen (CO2N2)

    • Compressed air augmented by ambient air

    Correct Answer
    A. CO2 and nitrogen (CO2N2)
  • 30. 

    When inflated, what shape is the 25-man life raft?

    • Hexagon

    • Octagon

    • Decagon

    • Round

    Correct Answer
    A. Decagon
  • 31. 

    How many people is the LRU-33/A life raft designed to hold?

    • 7

    • 20

    • 9

    • 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
  • 32. 

    The KC-135 type escape slide is packed into a?

    • A carrying case

    • A fiberglass case

    • A metal container 

    • An envelope type container 

    Correct Answer
    A. An envelope type container 
  • 33. 

    What is the main difference between the C-5 and the KC-135 cylinder inspections?

    • Test only

    • Inspection only

    • Inspection or test

    • Visual inspection only

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspection or test
  • 34. 

    What size and type of material is used to construct the C-9 canopy on the pilot parachute?

    • 1.2 ounce rip-stop cotton

    • 1.1 ounce rip-stop nylon

    • 1.5 ounce rip-stop nylon

    • 1.2 ounce rip-stop nylon

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.1 ounce rip-stop nylon
  • 35. 

    The purpose of the parachute pack on the C-9 canopy is to?

    • Serve as a container for the canopy, pilot chute, and suspension lines

    • Serve as protection for the canopy release

    • Allow for the use of accessories

    • Extract the pilot parachute

    Correct Answer
    A. Serve as a container for the canopy, pilot chute, and suspension lines
  • 36. 

    The purpose of the mortar assembly on the ACES II parachute is to

    • Pull the pilot parachute out

    • Pull the canopy out of the container

    • Pull the parachute container assembly away from the seat

    • Protects the canopy from abrasions during deployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Pull the parachute container assembly away from the seat
  • 37. 

    During the deployment of the ACES II drogue chute, when is the drogue chute released?

    • 0.15 seconds after the recovery parachute mortar is fired

    • 0.15 seconds before the recovery parachute mortar is fired

    • 1.0 seconds before the recovery parachute mortar is fired

    • 0.30 seconds after the recovery parachute mortar is fired

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.15 seconds after the recovery parachute mortar is fired
  • 38. 

    For which aircraft is the HCV not authorized?

    • T-6A or F22 aircraft

    • F16 or F15 aircraft

    • T-5A or F16 aircraft

    • T-6A or F15 aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. T-6A or F22 aircraft
  • 39. 

    What 2 major components make up the HDU?

    • The HVI and MPLS

    • The DU and helmet

    • The DU and cable assembly

    • The helmet and HVI

    Correct Answer
    A. The DU and helmet
  • 40. 

    What is collimation?

    • Bringing image into adjustment within a verticle line presenting double images of sight thereby

    • The process of bringing images into line or parallel as to accurately adjust the line of sight thereby presenting a single image

    • Reflecting and absorbing a percentage of incident radiation

    • Minimizing permanent damage cause by misadjustment to the present image viewed through the wearers eye

    Correct Answer
    A. The process of bringing images into line or parallel as to accurately adjust the line of sight thereby presenting a single image
  • 41. 

    What is the first step when cleaning a NVG

    • Pre clean all surfaces using a low pressure air source

    • Post clean all surfaces using a high pressure air source

    • Pre clean all surfaces using a high pressure air source

    • Post clean all surfaces using a high pressure air source

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre clean all surfaces using a low pressure air source
  • 42. 

    When working with NVG's, normally how long does dark adaption take?

    • 20-30 minutes

    • 10-15 minutes

    • 15-30 minutes

    • 5-10 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-15 minutes
  • 43. 

    How are seams of the curtains covered?

    • With duck-tape Mil-A-82284

    • With filament tape Mil-C-83248

    • With stowage straps and fabric linen Mil-A-83248

    • With tape Mil-T-83284

    Correct Answer
    A. With tape Mil-T-83284
  • 44. 

    What can be done to attain relief from hypoxia?

    • Increasing your altitude and breathing a little oxygen as possible

    • Breathing 100% oxygen & descending to a lower altitude

    • Descending to a lower altitude and breathing 50% straight oxygen

    • Descending to a lower altitude

    Correct Answer
    A. Breathing 100% oxygen & descending to a lower altitude
  • 45. 

    Which decompression sickness is characterized by nitrogen bubbles that form around large body joints?

    • Stretch

    • Turns

    • Twist

    • Bends

    Correct Answer
    A. Bends
  • 46. 

    What part limits the maximum pressure to the pilot's mask to 80mm Hg?

    • Minimum pressure release valve

    • Maximum pressure release valve

    • Low pressure release valve

    • High pressure release valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximum pressure release valve
  • 47. 

    What CRU-60/P ability allows a straight pull disconnect action during the ejection sequence or emergency egress?

    • The aircraft supply hose can swing 90 degrees

    • The aircraft supply hose can swing 360 degrees

    • The aircraft supply hose will be dismantled 

    • The aircraft supply hose can swing 180 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircraft supply hose can swing 180 degrees
  • 48. 

    What type of oxygen system does the MBU-20/P oxygen mask support?

    • PBG oxygen systems only

    • Pressure breathing for gravity (PBG) and non PBG oxygen systems

    • Non PBG oxygen systems only

    • Maximum pressure breathing system regulator connectors

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure breathing for gravity (PBG) and non PBG oxygen systems
  • 49. 

    Once activated how will the user know the oxygen flow has ceased?

    • Exiting hissing and screaching sound 

    • Termination of hissing sound

    • Diluted humming sound 

    • Mild whistle sound terminating 

    Correct Answer
    A. Termination of hissing sound

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 18, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Kejuan Rush
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