Radiation Syndrome Trivia Questions
Otherwise known as radiation toxicity, radiation syndrome is a health condition caused by exposure to radiation of the entire body or parts of the body. The quiz below gauges and advances your knowledge on this illness.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
During the process of radioactive decay, what is another name for the electromagnetic force that causes protons to tear apart the nucleus of the atom?
- A.
Coulomb.
- B.
Positron.
- C.
Isomeric
- D.
Transformation.
Correct Answer
A. Coulomb.Explanation
The correct answer is Coulomb. During the process of radioactive decay, the electromagnetic force that causes protons to tear apart the nucleus of the atom is referred to as the Coulomb force. This force is responsible for the repulsion between positively charged protons in the nucleus, leading to the instability and eventual decay of the atom.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which statement best describes an alpha particle?
- A.
Heavy and fast.
- B.
Heavy and slow.
- C.
Light and fast.
- D.
Light and slow.
Correct Answer
B. Heavy and slow.Explanation
An alpha particle is a type of particle that consists of two protons and two neutrons, making it heavy compared to other particles. It is also relatively slow-moving compared to other particles. This is because alpha particles have a positive charge and are attracted to negatively charged particles, causing them to move at a slower speed. Therefore, the statement "Heavy and slow" best describes an alpha particle.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which particle is considered the most ionizing?
- A.
Positron.
- B.
Electron.
- C.
Alpha
- D.
Beta.
Correct Answer
C. AlphaExplanation
Alpha particles are considered the most ionizing because they are relatively large and carry a double positive charge. This means that they have a high mass and energy, allowing them to collide with and remove electrons from atoms more easily than other particles. As a result, alpha particles cause more ionization and damage to biological tissues, making them more harmful than other types of radiation.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
In beta plus (B+) decay, the parent nucleus changes a
- A.
Proton into a neutron and gives off a positively charged particle.
- B.
Neutron into a proton and gives off a positively charged particle.
- C.
Proton into a neutron and gives off a negatively charged particle.
- D.
Neutron into a proton and gives off a negatively charged particle.
Correct Answer
A. Proton into a neutron and gives off a positively charged particle.Explanation
In beta plus (B+) decay, a proton in the parent nucleus is converted into a neutron. This process is accompanied by the emission of a positively charged particle, which is called a positron. This decay occurs when the parent nucleus has too many protons compared to the number of neutrons, and it aims to achieve a more stable ratio of protons to neutrons. The emission of a positron helps to balance the charge in the decay process, as the conversion of a proton into a neutron reduces the positive charge by one unit.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
What can be used to classify a neutron?
- A.
Size.
- B.
Heat.
- C.
Speed.
- D.
Weight.
Correct Answer
C. Speed.Explanation
Neutrons can be classified based on their speed. Speed refers to the velocity at which the neutrons are moving. Neutrons can have different speeds depending on their energy levels. This classification is important in various scientific fields, such as nuclear physics and materials science, as it helps in understanding the behavior and interactions of neutrons with other particles and materials.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
What is the process by which an alpha particle gains kinetic energy?
- A.
Ionization.
- B.
Excitation.
- C.
Bremmstrahlung.
- D.
Compton scattering.
Correct Answer
B. Excitation.Explanation
Excitation is the process by which an alpha particle gains kinetic energy. During excitation, an atom or molecule absorbs energy, causing its electrons to move to higher energy levels. This increase in energy results in the alpha particle gaining kinetic energy. Ionization, on the other hand, refers to the process of removing an electron from an atom or molecule, which does not necessarily involve a gain in kinetic energy. Bremmstrahlung and Compton scattering are both processes related to the interaction of photons with matter and do not directly involve the gain of kinetic energy by an alpha particle.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
The linear energy transfer (LET) of a beta particle is lower than that of an alpha particle because of its
- A.
Larger mass and higher speed.
- B.
Larger mass and slower speed.
- C.
Smaller mass and higher speed.
- D.
Smaller mass and slower speed.
Correct Answer
C. Smaller mass and higher speed.Explanation
The linear energy transfer (LET) of a particle refers to the amount of energy transferred per unit length as it passes through a medium. In the case of beta particles, they have a smaller mass compared to alpha particles and they also travel at higher speeds. Both of these factors contribute to a lower LET for beta particles. The smaller mass means that beta particles have less momentum and are less likely to cause significant damage to the medium they pass through. Additionally, the higher speed of beta particles means that they spend less time interacting with the medium, resulting in a lower energy transfer per unit length.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Which type of radiation poses the most serious external hazard because of its high penetrating ability?
- A.
Beta.
- B.
Gamma.
- C.
Alpha.
- D.
Positron.
Correct Answer
B. Gamma.Explanation
Gamma radiation poses the most serious external hazard because of its high penetrating ability. Unlike alpha and beta radiation, gamma radiation consists of high-energy photons that can easily pass through materials and penetrate deep into the body. This makes gamma radiation extremely dangerous as it can cause damage to cells and tissues, leading to various health effects such as radiation sickness, DNA damage, and an increased risk of cancer.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which can be used to calculate the amount of activity at any point in time, given the activity at another point in time?
- A.
Radioactive decay
- B.
Effective half-life.
- C.
Biological half-life.
- D.
Radioactive half-life.
Correct Answer
D. Radioactive half-life.Explanation
The radioactive half-life can be used to calculate the amount of activity at any point in time, given the activity at another point in time. The half-life is the time it takes for half of the radioactive material to decay, so by knowing the initial activity and the half-life, we can determine the activity at any future or past time. This is a fundamental concept in radioactivity and is used in various fields such as medicine, environmental science, and nuclear physics.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Radioactive materials are cleared from the body at a predictable rate; this is known as
- A.
Radioactive decay.
- B.
Effective half-life.
- C.
Biological half-life.
- D.
Radioactive half-life.
Correct Answer
C. Biological half-life.Explanation
Radioactive materials are cleared from the body at a predictable rate, which is known as the biological half-life. This refers to the time it takes for half of the radioactive material to be eliminated from the body through natural processes such as metabolism or excretion. The biological half-life varies depending on the specific radioactive substance and can be used to determine the duration of potential health risks associated with exposure to radiation.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which term is the most often seen exposure unit for ionizing radiation?
- A.
Curie.
- B.
Coulomb.
- C.
Roentgen.
- D.
Becquerel.
Correct Answer
C. Roentgen.Explanation
The most often seen exposure unit for ionizing radiation is the Roentgen. The Roentgen is a unit of measurement for the amount of ionizing radiation that causes the ionization of one cubic centimeter of air. It is commonly used in the field of radiology and radiation protection to quantify the amount of radiation exposure. The other options, Curie, Coulomb, and Becquerel, are units of measurement for radioactivity and do not directly measure the amount of ionizing radiation exposure.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Because most radiation work exposures are very small, the exposure rate most often used is
- A.
Coulomb per kg.
- B.
Roentgen per hour.
- C.
Milliroentgen per hour.
- D.
Disintegrations per second.
Correct Answer
C. Milliroentgen per hour.Explanation
The correct answer is milliroentgen per hour. This is because most radiation work exposures are very small and therefore it is more appropriate to use a smaller unit of measurement, such as milliroentgen, to accurately quantify the exposure rate. Additionally, using the unit per hour allows for a standardized measurement over a specific time period, which is important when monitoring and assessing radiation exposure in the workplace.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which type of ionizing radiation has been found more effective in producing cataracts?
- A.
Beta.
- B.
Alpha
- C.
X-Rays
- D.
Neutrons
Correct Answer
D. NeutronsExplanation
Neutrons have been found to be more effective in producing cataracts compared to other types of ionizing radiation. Neutrons are high-energy particles that can penetrate deep into tissues, causing damage to the lens of the eye and leading to the development of cataracts. This is because neutrons have a higher mass and are more likely to collide with atoms in the lens, causing ionization and subsequent damage. Beta particles, alpha particles, and X-rays also have ionizing properties, but they are less effective in producing cataracts compared to neutrons.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
When comparing the relative toxicity of various radiations, what is the result of a higher rate of linear energy transfer (LET)?
- A.
More effective in producing biological damage.
- B.
Less effective in producing biological damage.
- C.
More effective in reducing how much energy was absorbed.
- D.
Less effective in reducing how much energy was absorbed.
Correct Answer
A. More effective in producing biological damage.Explanation
A higher rate of linear energy transfer (LET) refers to the ability of radiation to transfer energy to surrounding tissues as it passes through them. When the LET is higher, it means that the radiation is more likely to interact with and transfer energy to the cells and DNA in the body. This increased energy transfer leads to more biological damage, making the radiation more effective in producing harm to living organisms.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which type of cells, if genetically altered by ionizing radiation, might the offspring of the individual carrying the mutation could also have this alteration?
- A.
Stem.
- B.
Somatic.
- C.
Lactotrope.
- D.
Reproductive.
Correct Answer
D. Reproductive.Explanation
If a person's reproductive cells (eggs or sperm) are genetically altered by ionizing radiation, the mutation can be passed on to their offspring. This is because reproductive cells carry the genetic information that is passed on to the next generation. Stem cells, somatic cells, and lactotrope cells do not contribute to the genetic material of the offspring, so any genetic alteration in these cells would not be inherited by the next generation.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What term is used to classify radiation health effects in which a given condition is not seen until a certain dose is received?
- A.
Linear.
- B.
Nonlinear.
- C.
Stochastic.
- D.
Nonstochastic.
Correct Answer
D. Nonstochastic.Explanation
Nonstochastic is the correct answer because it refers to radiation health effects that do not have a threshold dose, meaning that even small doses of radiation can cause these effects. In other words, the occurrence of the condition is not dependent on the dose received, and there is no safe level of exposure. This is in contrast to stochastic effects, which have a probability of occurring that increases with higher doses, and may not be seen until a certain threshold is reached. Linear and nonlinear refer to the relationship between dose and effect, but do not specifically address the threshold issue.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What types of cells are most easily damaged by ionizing radiation?
- A.
Bone.
- B.
Blood.
- C.
Nerve.
- D.
Muscle.
Correct Answer
B. Blood.Explanation
Ionizing radiation can cause damage to cells by breaking chemical bonds and producing reactive oxygen species. Blood cells, specifically the rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow, are highly sensitive to radiation because they are constantly dividing and renewing. This makes them more susceptible to DNA damage and cell death caused by ionizing radiation. Additionally, blood cells play a crucial role in the immune system and oxygen transport, making their damage particularly detrimental to overall health.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Acute radiation syndrome typically occurs when the radiation dose exceeds
- A.
0.01 Gy (1 rad).
- B.
0.1 Gy (10 rad).
- C.
1 Gy (100 rad).
- D.
100 Gy (10,000 rad).
Correct Answer
C. 1 Gy (100 rad).Explanation
Acute radiation syndrome is a condition that occurs when a person is exposed to high levels of radiation. The severity of the syndrome depends on the dose of radiation received. In this case, the correct answer is 1 Gy (100 rad), which means that acute radiation syndrome typically occurs when the radiation dose exceeds 1 Gy or 100 rad.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
X-ray production that is intentionally accelerated into a material with high atomic number (Z) for the purpose of bremsstrahlung interactions to generate X-ray photons is
- A.
Protrons.
- B.
Neutrons.
- C.
Electrons.
- D.
Positrons.
Correct Answer
C. Electrons.Explanation
X-ray production through bremsstrahlung interactions involves the acceleration of charged particles into a material with high atomic number. Electrons, being negatively charged, are accelerated and interact with the atomic nuclei in the material, causing the emission of X-ray photons. Protons, neutrons, and positrons do not possess the necessary charge or behavior to generate X-ray photons through bremsstrahlung interactions.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Which component of an x-ray tube is negatively charged?
- A.
Anode.
- B.
Cathode.
- C.
Tube head.
- D.
Collimator.
Correct Answer
B. Cathode.Explanation
The cathode of an x-ray tube is negatively charged. In an x-ray tube, the cathode emits a stream of electrons through a process called thermionic emission. These electrons are then accelerated towards the positively charged anode, creating the x-rays that are used for imaging. The cathode is responsible for generating the electron beam, making it the component that carries the negative charge.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
What term is used to identify the area of the target bombarded by electrons at any moment in time in an x-ray machine?
- A.
Field.
- B.
Parameter.
- C.
Focal spot.
- D.
Total distance.
Correct Answer
C. Focal spot.Explanation
The term used to identify the area of the target bombarded by electrons at any moment in time in an x-ray machine is the focal spot. The focal spot refers to the small area on the anode where the electrons from the cathode are focused and strike, producing x-rays. It is an important parameter that determines the resolution and clarity of the resulting x-ray image.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What role does the collimator play in x-ray production?
- A.
Reduces scatter radiation.
- B.
Filters out lower energy photons.
- C.
Slows down the eventual burnout of the tube head.
- D.
Increases the number of electrons fired from the filament.
Correct Answer
A. Reduces scatter radiation.Explanation
The collimator in x-ray production plays a role in reducing scatter radiation. Scatter radiation occurs when the x-ray beam interacts with the patient's body, causing the photons to change direction. This can lead to a decrease in image quality and an increase in radiation exposure for both the patient and the operator. The collimator helps to limit the spread of the x-ray beam, directing it towards the desired area and reducing scatter radiation.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Within the radioisotope permit program which of the following is not a type of material that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulates?
- A.
Source.
- B.
Byproduct.
- C.
Radiological.
- D.
Special nuclear.
Correct Answer
C. Radiological.Explanation
The Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulates various types of materials within the radioisotope permit program, including source materials, byproduct materials, and special nuclear materials. However, radiological materials are not specifically mentioned as a type of material regulated by the NRC. Therefore, radiological is not a type of material that the NRC regulates within the radioisotope permit program.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Which is an example of an item that would be covered by a template permit?
- A.
Medical.
- B.
Academic.
- C.
Targeting devices.
- D.
Research and development.
Correct Answer
C. Targeting devices.Explanation
A template permit is typically used to cover items that are frequently exported or imported and have a standardized use or purpose. Medical and academic items can vary greatly in their nature and purpose, making it less likely for them to be covered by a template permit. Research and development items may also have unique characteristics that require specific permits. However, targeting devices are often standardized and commonly used, making them a suitable example of an item that would be covered by a template permit.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Who has the board responsibility of ensuring the receipt, possession, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials within the Air Force?
- A.
Master Material License Committee.
- B.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
- C.
Radioisotope Committee.
- D.
Radiation Commission.
Correct Answer
C. Radioisotope Committee.Explanation
The Radioisotope Committee is responsible for ensuring the receipt, possession, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials within the Air Force. This committee is specifically dedicated to handling the management and oversight of radioactive materials, ensuring that they are handled safely and in accordance with regulations. The other options, such as the Master Material License Committee, Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and Radiation Commission, do not have the specific mandate or authority to oversee radioactive materials within the Air Force.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
An x-ray fluorescence device would be covered under which radiation permit?
- A.
Template.
- B.
Traditional.
- C.
Nontemplate.
- D.
Nontraditional.
Correct Answer
A. Template.Explanation
An x-ray fluorescence device would be covered under a radiation permit that falls under the category of "Template." This means that the device follows a standardized format or structure that is recognized and approved by regulatory authorities. The use of a template ensures that the device meets all the necessary requirements and safety standards for radiation emission, making it eligible for a radiation permit.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
What type of radiation permit is issued for radioactive material uses which are unique in nature or relative risk?
- A.
Nontraditional.
- B.
Nontemplate.
- C.
Traditional.
- D.
Template.
Correct Answer
B. Nontemplate.Explanation
A nontemplate radiation permit is issued for radioactive material uses that are unique in nature or relative risk. This means that these uses do not fit into the traditional or standard templates for radiation permits. Nontemplate permits are specifically designed to address the specific risks and characteristics of these unique uses, ensuring that appropriate safety measures and regulations are in place to protect both workers and the public from potential radiation hazards.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Who is responsible for ensuring the parameters describe within each radiation permit arefollowed?
- A.
Shop supervisor.
- B.
Permit control officer.
- C.
Radiation safety officer.
- D.
Bioenvironmental Engineer.
Correct Answer
C. Radiation safety officer.Explanation
The radiation safety officer is responsible for ensuring that the parameters described within each radiation permit are followed. They are specifically trained in radiation safety and are responsible for implementing and enforcing safety protocols to protect individuals and the environment from potential radiation hazards. The shop supervisor may have general oversight, but the radiation safety officer is the designated expert in this area. The permit control officer is responsible for managing the issuance and control of permits, but not necessarily ensuring compliance with the parameters. The bioenvironmental engineer may have a role in assessing and mitigating radiation risks, but they are not specifically responsible for ensuring compliance with permit parameters.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Any workers occupationally exposed to ionizing radiation must be enrolled, who are likely to exceed an external dose of 1mSv (100 mrem) or
- A.
1 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
- B.
2 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
- C.
5 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
- D.
10 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
Correct Answer
B. 2 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).Explanation
Workers occupationally exposed to ionizing radiation must be enrolled if they are likely to exceed 2 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI). This means that if their exposure is expected to be higher than 2 percent of the maximum allowable intake of radiation for a year, they must be enrolled. This ensures that workers who are at risk of significant radiation exposure are properly monitored and protected.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Who is typically given the responsibility of operating the USAF Personnel Dosimetry Program?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) journeyman.
- B.
BE senior noncommissioned officer (NCO)..
- C.
Base radiation safety officer (RSO).
- D.
Public health craftsman.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) journeyman.Explanation
A Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) journeyman is typically given the responsibility of operating the USAF Personnel Dosimetry Program. This individual is trained in the field of bioenvironmental engineering and has the necessary knowledge and skills to handle the dosimetry program effectively. They are responsible for monitoring and assessing radiation exposure levels for personnel in the United States Air Force.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Who is responsible for enrolling personnel into the dosimetry program and determining the type of external monitoring required?
- A.
Base Safety.
- B.
Workplace supervisor.
- C.
Squadron Commander.
- D.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
Correct Answer
D. Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for enrolling personnel into the dosimetry program and determining the type of external monitoring required. They are experts in assessing and managing environmental factors that may affect human health. In the context of dosimetry, they have the knowledge and expertise to determine the appropriate monitoring methods and equipment needed to measure and assess radiation exposure. This responsibility falls under their domain as they are trained to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel in relation to environmental hazards.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Who interviews the workplace supervisor and enrolled individual when investigating an abnormal exposure to determine its cause?
- A.
MAJCOM BE.
- B.
Base Ground Safety.
- C.
Squadron Commander and Base Safety.
- D.
Installation Radiation Safety Officer.
Correct Answer
D. Installation Radiation Safety Officer.Explanation
The Installation Radiation Safety Officer is responsible for conducting investigations into abnormal exposures to determine their cause. This includes interviewing both the workplace supervisor and the enrolled individual involved in the incident. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess radiation safety protocols and identify any potential breaches or errors that may have led to the exposure. This role is crucial in ensuring the safety of personnel and preventing future incidents.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Which type of dosimeter must be worn by all personnel enrolled in the Dosimetry program regardless of other types of dosimeters worn?
- A.
Collar.
- B.
Neutron.
- C.
Extremity.
- D.
Whole body.
Correct Answer
D. Whole body.Explanation
All personnel enrolled in the Dosimetry program must wear a whole body dosimeter regardless of any other dosimeters they may be wearing. This is because a whole body dosimeter measures the radiation dose received by the entire body, providing an overall assessment of radiation exposure. Other types of dosimeters, such as collar, neutron, or extremity dosimeters, may be worn to measure specific areas or types of radiation, but a whole body dosimeter is necessary to ensure comprehensive monitoring of radiation exposure.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Which type of dosimeter should be issued to individuals who perform fluoroscopic examinations or operate portable medical x-ray equipment?
- A.
Collar.
- B.
Neutron.
- C.
Extremity.
- D.
Area control.
Correct Answer
A. Collar.Explanation
Individuals who perform fluoroscopic examinations or operate portable medical x-ray equipment are at risk of exposure to radiation. A collar dosimeter is specifically designed to be worn around the neck and measures the radiation dose received in the head and neck region, which is the most vulnerable area to radiation exposure in these situations. Therefore, issuing a collar dosimeter to these individuals ensures accurate monitoring of their radiation exposure levels.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
How often do electronic personal dosimeters used for first responder or readiness purposes require calibration?
- A.
Once per week.
- B.
Every six months.
- C.
Every twelve months.
- D.
Every twenty four months.
Correct Answer
C. Every twelve months.Explanation
Electronic personal dosimeters are devices used by first responders or individuals in readiness situations to measure and monitor their exposure to radiation. Calibration is necessary to ensure the accuracy and reliability of these devices. The correct answer states that electronic personal dosimeters used for these purposes require calibration every twelve months. This means that the dosimeters should be checked and adjusted, if necessary, on an annual basis to maintain their accuracy in measuring radiation levels.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Which dosimeter should be used to evaluate exposures to the head and lens of the eye?
- A.
Collar.
- B.
Neutron.
- C.
Extremity.
- D.
Whole body.
Correct Answer
A. Collar.Explanation
The collar dosimeter should be used to evaluate exposures to the head and lens of the eye because it is specifically designed to measure radiation doses in these areas. The collar dosimeter is worn around the neck, close to the head, and provides accurate readings of radiation exposure to the head and lens of the eye. This dosimeter is particularly important in situations where there is a higher risk of radiation exposure to these sensitive areas, such as in medical imaging procedures or certain occupational settings.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Each work area being monitored is required to have how many control dosimeters?
- A.
Only one.
- B.
Amount is based on number of workers assigned.
- C.
One for each dosimeter type used within the area.
- D.
Amount is determined by the Installation Radiation Safety Officer.
Correct Answer
C. One for each dosimeter type used within the area.Explanation
The correct answer is "One for each dosimeter type used within the area." This means that each work area being monitored should have a control dosimeter for each type of dosimeter that is being used within that area. This ensures that accurate measurements can be taken for each type of radiation being monitored in the area.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Where on their body should you instruct emergency response personnel to place the EPDMk2?
- A.
On their collar, inside of any PPE.
- B.
On their collar, outside of any PPE.
- C.
On their front torso area, inside of any PPE.
- D.
On their front torso area, outside of any personal protective equipment (PPE).
Correct Answer
D. On their front torso area, outside of any personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The EPDMk2 should be placed on the front torso area, outside of any personal protective equipment (PPE). Placing it on the collar, inside or outside of PPE, may not be visible or easily accessible in emergency situations. By placing it on the front torso area, outside of PPE, it ensures that the emergency response personnel can quickly and easily locate and access the EPDMk2 for immediate assistance.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What is the first step you must do to disenroll an individual from the dosimetry program?
- A.
Complete the listing 1499.
- B.
Destroy the departing individual’s badge in a safe manner.
- C.
Submit their dosimeter to the USAF Radiation Dosimetry Lab.
- D.
Determine if the individual wore their dosimeter during the monitoring period.
Correct Answer
D. Determine if the individual wore their dosimeter during the monitoring period.Explanation
To disenroll an individual from the dosimetry program, the first step is to determine if the individual wore their dosimeter during the monitoring period. This step is crucial because it helps to ensure accurate monitoring of radiation exposure. If the individual did not wear their dosimeter, it may affect the overall monitoring results and could lead to incorrect assessment of radiation exposure. Therefore, determining if the individual wore their dosimeter is necessary before proceeding with the disenrollment process.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Dosimeters must be exchanged
- A.
On the last workday of the monitoring period.
- B.
On the first workday after the monitoring period.
- C.
Within two workdays of the end of the monitoring period.
- D.
Within five workdays of the end of the monitoring period.
Correct Answer
C. Within two workdays of the end of the monitoring period.Explanation
Dosimeters must be exchanged within two workdays of the end of the monitoring period. This means that the dosimeters, which are used to measure radiation exposure, must be replaced with new ones within two workdays after the monitoring period ends. This ensures that accurate and up-to-date measurements are taken and that workers are protected from excessive radiation exposure.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
What factor necessitates a more frequent dosimeter exchange?
- A.
Pregnant workers with a potential to exceed 200 mrem during pregnancy.
- B.
Certain operations having radiation exposures greater than 1.25 rem per year.
- C.
Certain operations having radiation exposures greater than 1.50 rem per month.
- D.
Prior exposure history of individual beginning work as an occupational radiation worker.
Correct Answer
D. Prior exposure history of individual beginning work as an occupational radiation worker.Explanation
Workers who have had prior exposure to radiation and are beginning work as an occupational radiation worker may require a more frequent dosimeter exchange. This is because their prior exposure history indicates that they may have a higher risk of radiation exposure and therefore need more frequent monitoring to ensure their safety.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Once dosimeters are collected after the monitoring period and disassembled, what two things must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters?
- A.
Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) number and the Listing 1523.
- B.
TLD shipping holder and TLD number.
- C.
Shipping document and TLD number.
- D.
Listing 1499 and shipping document.
Correct Answer
A. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) number and the Listing 1523.Explanation
After the monitoring period, the dosimeters are collected and disassembled. To ensure that all issued dosimeters are accounted for, two things need to be compared: the TLD number (which is a unique identifier for each dosimeter) and the Listing 1523 (which likely contains a record of all the dosimeters that were issued). By comparing these two, it can be determined if any dosimeters are missing or if there are any discrepancies in the records.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
On which of the following forms/listings is the Annual Report of Individual Occupational Exposure to Ionizing Radiation listed?
- A.
AF Form 2753.
- B.
AF Form 1527–1.
- C.
RDL Listing 1523.
- D.
RDL Listing 1499–1.
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1527–1.Explanation
The Annual Report of Individual Occupational Exposure to Ionizing Radiation is listed on AF Form 1527–1.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Who sets the value for the investigation action level as part of the as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) program?
- A.
Installation radiation safety officer (IRSO).
- B.
Installation Commander.
- C.
Radioisotope Committee.
- D.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Correct Answer
A. Installation radiation safety officer (IRSO).Explanation
The installation radiation safety officer (IRSO) is responsible for setting the value for the investigation action level as part of the as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) program. This officer is in charge of ensuring radiation safety within the installation and has the knowledge and expertise to determine the appropriate level at which investigations should be conducted to minimize radiation exposure. The IRSO plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe working environment and implementing ALARA principles to protect individuals from unnecessary radiation exposure.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
After reviewing the Listing 1499–1, Occupational Radiation Exposure Report, it is signed by the Installation Radiations Safety Officer and a copy is sent to the
- A.
Squadron commander.
- B.
Workplace supervisor.
- C.
Base safety manager.
- D.
Worker.
Correct Answer
B. Workplace supervisor.Explanation
The correct answer is the workplace supervisor. This can be inferred from the information provided in the question, which states that the report is reviewed by the Installation Radiation Safety Officer and a copy is sent to the workplace supervisor. This suggests that the workplace supervisor is responsible for receiving and reviewing the report.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
What should the installation radiation safety officer (IRSO) develop for each dose equivalent category of the Listing 1499?
- A.
Maximum exposure rates.
- B.
ALARA training requirements.
- C.
Investigation actions levels.
- D.
Installation activity levels.
Correct Answer
C. Investigation actions levels.Explanation
The installation radiation safety officer (IRSO) should develop investigation action levels for each dose equivalent category of the Listing 1499. Investigation action levels help determine the appropriate actions to be taken in the event of radiation exposure exceeding certain thresholds. These levels provide guidelines for investigating and managing potential radiation incidents, ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals and the environment.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Which radiation measuring device can operate in freeze mode and integrate mode?
- A.
RADeCO.
- B.
SAM 940.
- C.
Geiger-Mueller.
- D.
Victoreen 451P.
Correct Answer
D. Victoreen 451P.Explanation
The Victoreen 451P is the correct answer because it is a radiation measuring device that can operate in both freeze mode and integrate mode. Freeze mode allows the device to capture and hold a reading, while integrate mode allows for the accumulation of radiation dose over a period of time. This makes the Victoreen 451P versatile and suitable for various radiation measurement applications.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
Which gas ionization instrument would you use if you were interested in measuring relatively high exposure rates of gamma or x-rays?
- A.
Victoreen 451P.
- B.
Photomultiplier tube.
- C.
Proportional counter.
- D.
Geiger-Mueller detector.
Correct Answer
A. Victoreen 451P.Explanation
The Victoreen 451P is the correct answer because it is a gas ionization instrument specifically designed for measuring relatively high exposure rates of gamma or x-rays. This instrument is known for its accuracy and reliability in detecting and measuring ionizing radiation. It is commonly used in fields such as nuclear power plants, medical facilities, and industrial settings where there is a need to monitor and measure high levels of radiation exposure.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
When using the ADM–300 x-ray probe, how do you position and use the probe?
- A.
Hold the probe parallel and use a fast and steady sweeping motion.
- B.
Hold the probe parallel and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.
- C.
Hold the probe vertically and use a fast and steady sweeping motion.
- D.
Hold the probe vertically and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.
Correct Answer
D. Hold the probe vertically and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.Explanation
Hold the probe vertically and use a slow and steady sweeping motion. This is the correct answer because when using the ADM-300 x-ray probe, it is important to hold the probe vertically in order to get accurate readings. Holding the probe parallel would not provide accurate results. Additionally, using a slow and steady sweeping motion allows for thorough scanning and ensures that all areas are properly examined. A fast sweeping motion may lead to missed areas or inaccurate readings.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
You’ve been called by the base fire chief to conduct air sampling for suspected radiological particles in the air. What piece of sampling equipment should you get ready?
- A.
Victoreen.
- B.
EPD Mk2.
- C.
RADeCO.
- D.
ADM–300.
Correct Answer
C. RADeCO.Explanation
The correct answer is RADeCO. RADeCO is a company that specializes in providing equipment for radiological monitoring and detection. In this scenario, the base fire chief suspects the presence of radiological particles in the air, so it is appropriate to use sampling equipment specifically designed for this purpose. RADeCO is a reliable choice for conducting air sampling in such situations.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 06, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 18, 2015Quiz Created by
Fatal16
- Computed Tomography Quizzes
- EEG Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- GCP Quizzes
- Healing Quizzes
- Mammography Quizzes
- Medical Coding Quizzes
- Medical Science Quizzes
- Medical Term Quizzes
- Medical Terminology Quizzes
- Medical Training Quizzes
- Medical Vocabulary Quizzes
- MRI Quizzes
- Nuclear Medicine Quizzes
- Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes
- Pathology Quizzes
- Pathophysiology Quizzes
- Phlebotomy Quizzes
- Pulmonary Quizzes
- Radiography Quizzes
- Radiology Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
Back to top