Radiation Syndrome Trivia Questions
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Otherwise known as radiation toxicity, radiation syndrome is a health condition caused by exposure to radiation of the entire body or parts of the body. The quiz below gauges and advances your knowledge on this illness.
- 1.During the process of radioactive decay, what is another name for the electromagnetic force that causes protons to tear apart the nucleus of the atom?
- A.
Coulomb.
- B.
Positron.
- C.
Isomeric
- D.
Transformation.
- 2.Which statement best describes an alpha particle?
- A.
Heavy and fast.
- B.
Heavy and slow.
- C.
Light and fast.
- D.
Light and slow.
- 3.Which particle is considered the most ionizing?
- A.
Positron.
- B.
Electron.
- C.
Alpha
- D.
Beta.
- 4.In beta plus (B+) decay, the parent nucleus changes a
- A.
Proton into a neutron and gives off a positively charged particle.
- B.
Neutron into a proton and gives off a positively charged particle.
- C.
Proton into a neutron and gives off a negatively charged particle.
- D.
Neutron into a proton and gives off a negatively charged particle.
- 5.What can be used to classify a neutron?
- A.
Size.
- B.
Heat.
- C.
Speed.
- D.
Weight.
- 6.What is the process by which an alpha particle gains kinetic energy?
- A.
Ionization.
- B.
Excitation.
- C.
Bremmstrahlung.
- D.
Compton scattering.
- 7.The linear energy transfer (LET) of a beta particle is lower than that of an alpha particle because of its
- A.
Larger mass and higher speed.
- B.
Larger mass and slower speed.
- C.
Smaller mass and higher speed.
- D.
Smaller mass and slower speed.
- 8.Which type of radiation poses the most serious external hazard because of its high penetrating ability?
- A.
Beta.
- B.
Gamma.
- C.
Alpha.
- D.
Positron.
- 9.Which can be used to calculate the amount of activity at any point in time, given the activity at another point in time?
- A.
Radioactive decay
- B.
Effective half-life.
- C.
Biological half-life.
- D.
Radioactive half-life.
- 10.Radioactive materials are cleared from the body at a predictable rate; this is known as
- A.
Radioactive decay.
- B.
Effective half-life.
- C.
Biological half-life.
- D.
Radioactive half-life.
- 11.Which term is the most often seen exposure unit for ionizing radiation?
- A.
Curie.
- B.
Coulomb.
- C.
Roentgen.
- D.
Becquerel.
- 12.Because most radiation work exposures are very small, the exposure rate most often used is
- A.
Coulomb per kg.
- B.
Roentgen per hour.
- C.
Milliroentgen per hour.
- D.
Disintegrations per second.
- 13.Which type of ionizing radiation has been found more effective in producing cataracts?
- A.
Beta.
- B.
Alpha
- C.
X-Rays
- D.
Neutrons
- 14.When comparing the relative toxicity of various radiations, what is the result of a higher rate of linear energy transfer (LET)?
- A.
More effective in producing biological damage.
- B.
Less effective in producing biological damage.
- C.
More effective in reducing how much energy was absorbed.
- D.
Less effective in reducing how much energy was absorbed.
- 15.Which type of cells, if genetically altered by ionizing radiation, might the offspring of the individual carrying the mutation could also have this alteration?
- A.
Stem.
- B.
Somatic.
- C.
Lactotrope.
- D.
Reproductive.
- 16.What term is used to classify radiation health effects in which a given condition is not seen until a certain dose is received?
- A.
Linear.
- B.
Nonlinear.
- C.
Stochastic.
- D.
Nonstochastic.
- 17.What types of cells are most easily damaged by ionizing radiation?
- A.
Bone.
- B.
Blood.
- C.
Nerve.
- D.
Muscle.
- 18.Acute radiation syndrome typically occurs when the radiation dose exceeds
- A.
0.01 Gy (1 rad).
- B.
0.1 Gy (10 rad).
- C.
1 Gy (100 rad).
- D.
100 Gy (10,000 rad).
- 19.X-ray production that is intentionally accelerated into a material with high atomic number (Z) for the purpose of bremsstrahlung interactions to generate X-ray photons is
- A.
Protrons.
- B.
Neutrons.
- C.
Electrons.
- D.
Positrons.
- 20.Which component of an x-ray tube is negatively charged?
- A.
Anode.
- B.
Cathode.
- C.
Tube head.
- D.
Collimator.
- 21.What term is used to identify the area of the target bombarded by electrons at any moment in time in an x-ray machine?
- A.
Field.
- B.
Parameter.
- C.
Focal spot.
- D.
Total distance.
- 22.What role does the collimator play in x-ray production?
- A.
Reduces scatter radiation.
- B.
Filters out lower energy photons.
- C.
Slows down the eventual burnout of the tube head.
- D.
Increases the number of electrons fired from the filament.
- 23.Within the radioisotope permit program which of the following is not a type of material that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulates?
- A.
Source.
- B.
Byproduct.
- C.
Radiological.
- D.
Special nuclear.
- 24.Which is an example of an item that would be covered by a template permit?
- A.
Medical.
- B.
Academic.
- C.
Targeting devices.
- D.
Research and development.
- 25.Who has the board responsibility of ensuring the receipt, possession, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials within the Air Force?
- A.
Master Material License Committee.
- B.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
- C.
Radioisotope Committee.
- D.
Radiation Commission.
- 26.An x-ray fluorescence device would be covered under which radiation permit?
- A.
Template.
- B.
Traditional.
- C.
Nontemplate.
- D.
Nontraditional.
- 27.What type of radiation permit is issued for radioactive material uses which are unique in nature or relative risk?
- A.
Nontraditional.
- B.
Nontemplate.
- C.
Traditional.
- D.
Template.
- 28.Who is responsible for ensuring the parameters describe within each radiation permit arefollowed?
- A.
Shop supervisor.
- B.
Permit control officer.
- C.
Radiation safety officer.
- D.
Bioenvironmental Engineer.
- 29.Any workers occupationally exposed to ionizing radiation must be enrolled, who are likely to exceed an external dose of 1mSv (100 mrem) or
- A.
1 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
- B.
2 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
- C.
5 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
- D.
10 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).
- 30.Who is typically given the responsibility of operating the USAF Personnel Dosimetry Program?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) journeyman.
- B.
BE senior noncommissioned officer (NCO)..
- C.
Base radiation safety officer (RSO).
- D.
Public health craftsman.
- 31.Who is responsible for enrolling personnel into the dosimetry program and determining the type of external monitoring required?
- A.
Base Safety.
- B.
Workplace supervisor.
- C.
Squadron Commander.
- D.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- 32.Who interviews the workplace supervisor and enrolled individual when investigating an abnormal exposure to determine its cause?
- A.
MAJCOM BE.
- B.
Base Ground Safety.
- C.
Squadron Commander and Base Safety.
- D.
Installation Radiation Safety Officer.
- 33.Which type of dosimeter must be worn by all personnel enrolled in the Dosimetry program regardless of other types of dosimeters worn?
- A.
Collar.
- B.
Neutron.
- C.
Extremity.
- D.
Whole body.
- 34.Which type of dosimeter should be issued to individuals who perform fluoroscopic examinations or operate portable medical x-ray equipment?
- A.
Collar.
- B.
Neutron.
- C.
Extremity.
- D.
Area control.
- 35.How often do electronic personal dosimeters used for first responder or readiness purposes require calibration?
- A.
Once per week.
- B.
Every six months.
- C.
Every twelve months.
- D.
Every twenty four months.
- 36.Which dosimeter should be used to evaluate exposures to the head and lens of the eye?
- A.
Collar.
- B.
Neutron.
- C.
Extremity.
- D.
Whole body.
- 37.Each work area being monitored is required to have how many control dosimeters?
- A.
Only one.
- B.
Amount is based on number of workers assigned.
- C.
One for each dosimeter type used within the area.
- D.
Amount is determined by the Installation Radiation Safety Officer.
- 38.Where on their body should you instruct emergency response personnel to place the EPDMk2?
- A.
On their collar, inside of any PPE.
- B.
On their collar, outside of any PPE.
- C.
On their front torso area, inside of any PPE.
- D.
On their front torso area, outside of any personal protective equipment (PPE).
- 39.What is the first step you must do to disenroll an individual from the dosimetry program?
- A.
Complete the listing 1499.
- B.
Destroy the departing individual’s badge in a safe manner.
- C.
Submit their dosimeter to the USAF Radiation Dosimetry Lab.
- D.
Determine if the individual wore their dosimeter during the monitoring period.
- 40.Dosimeters must be exchanged
- A.
On the last workday of the monitoring period.
- B.
On the first workday after the monitoring period.
- C.
Within two workdays of the end of the monitoring period.
- D.
Within five workdays of the end of the monitoring period.
- 41.What factor necessitates a more frequent dosimeter exchange?
- A.
Pregnant workers with a potential to exceed 200 mrem during pregnancy.
- B.
Certain operations having radiation exposures greater than 1.25 rem per year.
- C.
Certain operations having radiation exposures greater than 1.50 rem per month.
- D.
Prior exposure history of individual beginning work as an occupational radiation worker.
- 42.Once dosimeters are collected after the monitoring period and disassembled, what two things must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters?
- A.
Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) number and the Listing 1523.
- B.
TLD shipping holder and TLD number.
- C.
Shipping document and TLD number.
- D.
Listing 1499 and shipping document.
- 43.On which of the following forms/listings is the Annual Report of Individual Occupational Exposure to Ionizing Radiation listed?
- A.
AF Form 2753.
- B.
AF Form 1527–1.
- C.
RDL Listing 1523.
- D.
RDL Listing 1499–1.
- 44.Who sets the value for the investigation action level as part of the as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) program?
- A.
Installation radiation safety officer (IRSO).
- B.
Installation Commander.
- C.
Radioisotope Committee.
- D.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
- 45.After reviewing the Listing 1499–1, Occupational Radiation Exposure Report, it is signed by the Installation Radiations Safety Officer and a copy is sent to the
- A.
Squadron commander.
- B.
Workplace supervisor.
- C.
Base safety manager.
- D.
Worker.
- 46.What should the installation radiation safety officer (IRSO) develop for each dose equivalent category of the Listing 1499?
- A.
Maximum exposure rates.
- B.
ALARA training requirements.
- C.
Investigation actions levels.
- D.
Installation activity levels.
- 47.Which radiation measuring device can operate in freeze mode and integrate mode?
- A.
RADeCO.
- B.
SAM 940.
- C.
Geiger-Mueller.
- D.
Victoreen 451P.
- 48.Which gas ionization instrument would you use if you were interested in measuring relatively high exposure rates of gamma or x-rays?
- A.
Victoreen 451P.
- B.
Photomultiplier tube.
- C.
Proportional counter.
- D.
Geiger-Mueller detector.
- 49.When using the ADM–300 x-ray probe, how do you position and use the probe?
- A.
Hold the probe parallel and use a fast and steady sweeping motion.
- B.
Hold the probe parallel and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.
- C.
Hold the probe vertically and use a fast and steady sweeping motion.
- D.
Hold the probe vertically and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.
- 50.You’ve been called by the base fire chief to conduct air sampling for suspected radiological particles in the air. What piece of sampling equipment should you get ready?
- A.
Victoreen.
- B.
EPD Mk2.
- C.
RADeCO.
- D.
ADM–300.
- 51.What type of testing do you conduct on unsealed radiation sources?
- A.
Leak.
- B.
Air.
- C.
Swipe.
- D.
Bulk.
- 52.When swipe testing a radiological source, what is the first step after you have prepared the field blank?
- A.
Apply a few drops of deionized (DI) water so the wipe is damp but not soaked.
- B.
Place a small X in pencil on the outer edge of the filter paper on the side to touch the source.
- C.
Check the filter paper with an ADM 300 with probe or an instrument capable of measuring beta/gamma to establish background reading.
- D.
In a slow back and forth “S” motion applying moderate pressure, swipe an area of 100 cm2.
- 53.What is the total surface area covered during a swipe sample of a sealed radiological source?
- A.
10 square centimeters.
- B.
30 square centimeters.
- C.
100 square centimeters.
- D.
300 square centimeters.
- 54.What type of survey instrument do you use to monitor external radiation levels for packages that contain radioactive material?
- A.
Proportion detector.
- B.
Portable ion chamber.
- C.
Scintillation instrument.
- D.
Geiger-Mueller detector.
- 55.When monitoring a radioactive material shipment for external levels of radiation, at what distance from the surface of the package are readings taken?
- A.
100 centimeters.
- B.
50 centimeters.
- C.
20 centimeters.
- D.
10 centimeters.
- 56.Your role in the ionizing radiation quality assurance program is to
- A.
Verify the training of all x-ray technicians.
- B.
Evaluate the direct output of x-ray machines.
- C.
Verify that the direct output of x-ray machines has been evaluated.
- D.
Perform scatter surveys on medical x-ray units to ensure all personnel are not exposed to unnecessary radiation.
- 57.What is the easiest and most accurate method you can use to measure ionizing radiation produced by medical x-ray machines is using
- A.
Thermoluminscent dosimeters.
- B.
Theoretical worst-case calculations.
- C.
An electronic portable dosimeter (EPD).
- D.
A portable instrument such as a Geiger-Muller detector.
- 58.When conducting medical x-ray machine scatter radiation surveys, you recreate the scatter effect of the radiation by
- A.
Placing a one gallon plastic container filled with water in line with the beam.
- B.
Placing a one gallon plastic container filled with sand in line with the beam.
- C.
Placing a specially designed mannequin on the x-ray table.
- D.
Having an x-ray technician lie down on the x-table.
- 59.What should be your initial action if you suspect that a dosimeter received an abnormal exposure?
- A.
Interview the exposed worker.
- B.
Remove the exposed worker from duties.
- C.
Send the suspect dosimeter for processing.
- D.
Take corrective action to prevent further exposure.
- 60.When investigating an abnormal exposure to ionizing radiation, which action takes place during the interview the worker step?
- A.
Validating the exposure.
- B.
Identifying corrective action.
- C.
Determining the portion of the body exposed.
- D.
Exploring potential causes for the exposure.
- 61.How soon after being notified of a potential overexposure to ionizing radiation must a written report be submitted to the Radioanalytical Laboratory?
- A.
7 work days.
- B.
7 calendar days.
- C.
10 work days.
- D.
10 calendar days.
- 62.Which scenario would be a proper time to use the stay time calculation?
- A.
Determine amount of time an NDI technician can safely work.
- B.
Determine amount of time an Airman can work in a BROKEN ARROW site.
- C.
Determine the number of X-rays a technician can safely perform.
- D.
Determine the amount of leak tests a BE technician can safely perform.
- 63.What is the intensity at 20.5 feet if the radiation intensity 42 feet from the source is 250 mR/Hr?
- A.
1102 mR/hr.
- B.
1049 mR/hr.
- C.
952 mR/hr.
- D.
512 mR/hr.
- 64.Radioactive material located in unintended places is the definition of
- A.
Irradiation.
- B.
Radioactivity.
- C.
Radiation exposure.
- D.
Radioactive contamination.
- 65.What effect does the inverse square law have on a person’s exposure to radiation?
- A.
Moving away double the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 4.
- B.
Moving away double the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 2.
- C.
Moving away 1/2 the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 1/2.
- D.
Moving away 1/3 distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 1/3.
- 66.Using a combination of a low and high atomic number shielding is best used to control what type of radiation?
- A.
Neutron.
- B.
Photon.
- C.
Alpha.
- D.
Beta.
- 67.Coveralls and gloves will prevent what type of radiation from potentially harming a person’s skin?
- A.
Photon.
- B.
Neutron.
- C.
Alpha and beta.
- D.
Gamma and x-ray.
- 68.The primary source for depleted uranium intake by the general public is
- A.
Transport aircraft.
- B.
Food and drinking water.
- C.
Uranium mining facilities.
- D.
Areas where depleted uranium munitions have been used.
- 69.As it decays, depleted uranium particles emit which type(s) of radiation?
- A.
Alpha
- B.
Gamma
- C.
Alpha and beta.
- D.
Alpha, beta, and gamma.
- 70.As it decays, radon gas emits type(s) of radiation?
- A.
Alpha.
- B.
Gamma.
- C.
Alpha and beta.
- D.
Alpha, beta and gamma.
- 71.The only documented health effect from exposure to the airborne radon and its decay products are an increased risk of
- A.
Emphysema.
- B.
Lung cancer.
- C.
Pancreatic cancer.
- D.
Thyroid nodular disease.
- 72.What section recycles and disposes of radioactive waste and mixed waste generated by Air Force operations?
- A.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
- B.
Air Force Medical Support Agency.
- C.
USAFSAM Radioanalytical Laboratory.
- D.
Air Force Radioactive Recycle and Disposal office.
- 73.Nuclear fission involves which process?
- A.
Chemically bonding two atoms using helium.
- B.
Merging two smaller atoms into one larger atom.
- C.
Forcing atoms to vibrate at incredibly high speeds.
- D.
Splitting the nucleus of an atom into smaller fragments.
- 74.If two atoms of hydrogen are brought together in nuclear fusion, what do they form?
- A.
Halon atom.
- B.
Helium atom.
- C.
Hydrogen molecule.
- D.
Mega-hydrogen.
- 75.Refer to figure 4–7. Blast effects account for what percent of the overall effects of a surface nuclear detonation?
- A.
5 percent.
- B.
10 percent.
- C.
35 percent.
- D.
50 percent.
- 76.Most damage from the nuclear detonation comes from
- A.
The fireball.
- B.
The blast wave.
- C.
Initial radiation.
- D.
Fallout radiation.
- 77.The major incendiary effect of nuclear explosions is caused by
- A.
Flash burns.
- B.
The fire ball.
- C.
The blast wave.
- D.
Electromagnetic pulse.
- 78.Thermal effects account for what percent of the overall effects of a surface nuclear detonation?
- A.
5 percent.
- B.
10 percent.
- C.
35 percent.
- D.
50 percent.
- 79.Fallout contains about what percent of the total radioactivity?
- A.
70.
- B.
60.
- C.
50.
- D.
40.
- 80.Which statement is true about an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) from a high altitude burst?
- A.
The EMP results a skin burns flash blindness and skin burns.
- B.
The EMP is a single pulse of energy that disappears in a fraction of a second.
- C.
Most equipment designed to protect electrical facilities from lightening will be effective against the EMP.
- D.
EMP is an electromagnetic wave which results from secondary reactions occurring when alpha radiation is absorbed in the air or ground.
- 81.Which type of nuclear weapon is fission-based and has a plutonium core?
- A.
Gun-type nuclear bomb.
- B.
Implosion-type nuclear bomb.
- C.
The hydrogen bomb.
- D.
The Neutron bomb.
- 82.What is the primary difference between a neutron bomb and a standard nuclear weapon?
- A.
Physical structures are more affected by a neutron bomb.
- B.
There is no real discernible difference between the bombs.
- C.
The primary lethal effects come from the radiation damage caused by the neutrons a neutron bomb emits.
- D.
There is less of a distinction between area of high lethality and areas with minimal radiation doses for neutron bombs.
- 83.What is a radiological exposure device (RED)?
- A.
A Regular explosive laced with lower-grade radioactive material.
- B.
A device intended to expose people to significant does of ionizing radiation without their knowledge.
- C.
An illicit nuclear weapon bought, stolen or otherwise obtained that produces a nuclear explosion.
- D.
A device in which the nuclear yield produces extreme heat, powerful shockwaves, prompt radiation and radioactive fallout.
- 84.Which is not generally considered a secondary hazard of nuclear weapons?
- A.
Hydrazine
- B.
Heavy metals.
- C.
Laser radiation.
- D.
Composite materials.
- 85.Which statement is true regarding secondary hazards of nuclear weapons?
- A.
The shock, heat and friction created can cause other high explosive material to detonate
- B.
There are no secondary hazards since the nuclear weapon is completely destroyed upon detonation.
- C.
The only hazards following a detonation are the initial shock wave, the thermal hazard and radiation.
- D.
Fallout radiation penetrating protective structures will be the sole hazard after all issues immediately following a detonation have been dealt with.
- 86.Which of the following would be categorized as a Bent Spear?
- A.
The forcible, unauthorized seizure of a nuclear weapon.
- B.
An accidental or unauthorized launch of a nuclear weapon.
- C.
An unfavorable environment or condition resulting in damage to the nuclear weapon.
- D.
A non-nuclear detonation or burning of a nuclear weapon or radiological nuclear weapon component.
- 87.The primary treatment for internal contamination is to increase the rate of elimination of the radioactive isotope. How can this be done?
- A.
Vaccines.
- B.
Mechanical means.
- C.
Anti-biotics.
- D.
Water.
- 88.What is a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved method for preventing radioactive iodine from being sequestered in the thyroid?
- A.
Potassium iodide.
- B.
Prussian blue.
- C.
Chelation agents.
- D.
Vaccine therapy.
- 89.Medical countermeasures that are approved to treat known or suspected internal contamination with plutonium, americium or curium are known as:
- A.
Chelating agents.
- B.
Chelating solutions.
- C.
Elimination agents.
- D.
Elimination solutions.
- 90.When performing external decontamination of patients at the site, what would be the next recommendation to ensure contamination is not spread?
- A.
Transport patient to hospital.
- B.
Perform treatment in the field.
- C.
Remove all contaminated clothing.
- D.
Closely monitor patient.
- 91.Regarding contamination control, what types of materials should be used in order to reduce tracking and to aid in cleanup tasks?
- A.
Reusable.
- B.
Permanent.
- C.
Disposable.
- D.
Sterile.
- 92.Who is the primary facilitator for providing on-scene command, control, communications and hazard plots?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE).
- B.
Safety.
- C.
Civil Engineering (CE).
- D.
FD.
- 93.Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) personnel have been given the task of monitoring the contamination levels on the ground in and around a Broken Arrow. Preliminary results from ambient air monitoring indicate the airborne concentration of Alpha activity is 525 dpm/m3 above background. As an entry team leader, what respiratory protection level should be recommended?
- A.
No respiratory protection needed.
- B.
Half-face HEPA respirator.
- C.
Full-face HEPA respirator.
- D.
Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
- 94.When recommending contamination control procedures for deceased personnel, make sure that decontamination procedures and remains are handled
- A.
Hastily.
- B.
Slowly.
- C.
With dignity.
- D.
With technical prowess.
- 95.When surveying a fatality at the field morgue after decontamination, it is observed that the contamination cannot be removed after decontamination. What should be the next course of action?
- A.
Do nothing.
- B.
Isolate and shield the body.
- C.
Decontaminate again.
- D.
Transport regular morgue.
- 96.Water sample results from an overseas location that you are deployed to indicate that levels of Gross Alpha are 35 pCi/L. What should you do next?
- A.
Resample.
- B.
Do nothing.
- C.
Inform MAJCOM.
- D.
Consult AFRAT.
- 97.What step in the sampling strategy process is used to identify and comply with regulatory requirements or to identify an associated risk at a satisfactory level?
- A.
Action level.
- B.
Results interpretation.
- C.
Archive results.
- D.
Type of analysis.
- 98.What plotting program is widely used for initial emergency assessment or safety-analysis planning?
- A.
Hotspot.
- B.
HPAC.
- C.
IMAAC.
- D.
ARAC.
- 99.The primary risk during nuclear accidents/incidents is a long-term increase in the likelihood of radiation diseases caused by the inhalation of what type of emitters?
- A.
Gamma.
- B.
Beta.
- C.
Alpha.
- D.
Tritium.
- 100.When documenting hazards encountered, protective measures taken, doses received and decontamination performed for an OEHSA, what Air Force guidance should be referenced?
- A.
AFMAN 48–145.
- B.
AFI 48–145.
- C.
AFOSH Std 48–145.
- D.
AFI 48–125.
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