Radiation Syndrome Trivia Questions

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Syndrome Quizzes & Trivia

Otherwise known as radiation toxicity, radiation syndrome is a health condition caused by exposure to radiation of the entire body or parts of the body. The quiz below gauges and advances your knowledge on this illness.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    During the process of radioactive decay, what is another name for the electromagnetic force that causes protons to tear apart the nucleus of the atom?
    • A. 

      Coulomb.

    • B. 

      Positron.

    • C. 

      Isomeric

    • D. 

      Transformation.

  • 2. 
    Which statement best describes an alpha particle?
    • A. 

      Heavy and fast.

    • B. 

      Heavy and slow.

    • C. 

      Light and fast.

    • D. 

      Light and slow.

  • 3. 
    Which particle is considered the most ionizing?
    • A. 

      Positron.

    • B. 

      Electron.

    • C. 

      Alpha

    • D. 

      Beta.

  • 4. 
    In beta plus (B+) decay, the parent nucleus changes a
    • A. 

      Proton into a neutron and gives off a positively charged particle.

    • B. 

      Neutron into a proton and gives off a positively charged particle.

    • C. 

      Proton into a neutron and gives off a negatively charged particle.

    • D. 

      Neutron into a proton and gives off a negatively charged particle.

  • 5. 
    What can be used to classify a neutron?
    • A. 

      Size.

    • B. 

      Heat.

    • C. 

      Speed.

    • D. 

      Weight.

  • 6. 
    What is the process by which an alpha particle gains kinetic energy?
    • A. 

      Ionization.

    • B. 

      Excitation.

    • C. 

      Bremmstrahlung.

    • D. 

      Compton scattering.

  • 7. 
    The linear energy transfer (LET) of a beta particle is lower than that of an alpha particle because of its
    • A. 

      Larger mass and higher speed.

    • B. 

      Larger mass and slower speed.

    • C. 

      Smaller mass and higher speed.

    • D. 

      Smaller mass and slower speed.

  • 8. 
    Which type of radiation poses the most serious external hazard because of its high penetrating ability?
    • A. 

      Beta.

    • B. 

      Gamma.

    • C. 

      Alpha.

    • D. 

      Positron.

  • 9. 
    Which can be used to calculate the amount of activity at any point in time, given the activity at another point in time?
    • A. 

      Radioactive decay

    • B. 

      Effective half-life.

    • C. 

      Biological half-life.

    • D. 

      Radioactive half-life.

  • 10. 
    Radioactive materials are cleared from the body at a predictable rate; this is known as
    • A. 

      Radioactive decay.

    • B. 

      Effective half-life.

    • C. 

      Biological half-life.

    • D. 

      Radioactive half-life.

  • 11. 
    Which term is the most often seen exposure unit for ionizing radiation?
    • A. 

      Curie.

    • B. 

      Coulomb.

    • C. 

      Roentgen.

    • D. 

      Becquerel.

  • 12. 
    Because most radiation work exposures are very small, the exposure rate most often used is
    • A. 

      Coulomb per kg.

    • B. 

      Roentgen per hour.

    • C. 

      Milliroentgen per hour.

    • D. 

      Disintegrations per second.

  • 13. 
    Which type of ionizing radiation has been found more effective in producing cataracts?
    • A. 

      Beta.

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      X-Rays

    • D. 

      Neutrons

  • 14. 
    When comparing the relative toxicity of various radiations, what is the result of a higher rate of linear energy transfer (LET)?
    • A. 

      More effective in producing biological damage.

    • B. 

      Less effective in producing biological damage.

    • C. 

      More effective in reducing how much energy was absorbed.

    • D. 

      Less effective in reducing how much energy was absorbed.

  • 15. 
    Which type of cells, if genetically altered by ionizing radiation, might the offspring of the individual carrying the mutation could also have this alteration?
    • A. 

      Stem.

    • B. 

      Somatic.

    • C. 

      Lactotrope.

    • D. 

      Reproductive.

  • 16. 
    What term is used to classify radiation health effects in which a given condition is not seen until a certain dose is received?
    • A. 

      Linear.

    • B. 

      Nonlinear.

    • C. 

      Stochastic.

    • D. 

      Nonstochastic.

  • 17. 
    What types of cells are most easily damaged by ionizing radiation?
    • A. 

      Bone.

    • B. 

      Blood.

    • C. 

      Nerve.

    • D. 

      Muscle.

  • 18. 
    Acute radiation syndrome typically occurs when the radiation dose exceeds
    • A. 

      0.01 Gy (1 rad).

    • B. 

      0.1 Gy (10 rad).

    • C. 

      1 Gy (100 rad).

    • D. 

      100 Gy (10,000 rad).

  • 19. 
    X-ray production that is intentionally accelerated into a material with high atomic number (Z) for the purpose of bremsstrahlung interactions to generate X-ray photons is
    • A. 

      Protrons.

    • B. 

      Neutrons.

    • C. 

      Electrons.

    • D. 

      Positrons.

  • 20. 
    Which component of an x-ray tube is negatively charged?
    • A. 

      Anode.

    • B. 

      Cathode.

    • C. 

      Tube head.

    • D. 

      Collimator.

  • 21. 
    What term is used to identify the area of the target bombarded by electrons at any moment in time in an x-ray machine?
    • A. 

      Field.

    • B. 

      Parameter.

    • C. 

      Focal spot.

    • D. 

      Total distance.

  • 22. 
    What role does the collimator play in x-ray production?
    • A. 

      Reduces scatter radiation.

    • B. 

      Filters out lower energy photons.

    • C. 

      Slows down the eventual burnout of the tube head.

    • D. 

      Increases the number of electrons fired from the filament.

  • 23. 
    Within the radioisotope permit program which of the following is not a type of material that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulates?
    • A. 

      Source.

    • B. 

      Byproduct.

    • C. 

      Radiological.

    • D. 

      Special nuclear.

  • 24. 
    Which is an example of an item that would be covered by a template permit?
    • A. 

      Medical.

    • B. 

      Academic.

    • C. 

      Targeting devices.

    • D. 

      Research and development.

  • 25. 
    Who has the board responsibility of ensuring the receipt, possession, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials within the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Master Material License Committee.

    • B. 

      Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

    • C. 

      Radioisotope Committee.

    • D. 

      Radiation Commission.

  • 26. 
    An x-ray fluorescence device would be covered under which radiation permit?
    • A. 

      Template.

    • B. 

      Traditional.

    • C. 

      Nontemplate.

    • D. 

      Nontraditional.

  • 27. 
    What type of radiation permit is issued for radioactive material uses which are unique in nature or relative risk?
    • A. 

      Nontraditional.

    • B. 

      Nontemplate.

    • C. 

      Traditional.

    • D. 

      Template.

  • 28. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the parameters describe within each radiation permit arefollowed?
    • A. 

      Shop supervisor.

    • B. 

      Permit control officer.

    • C. 

      Radiation safety officer.

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineer.

  • 29. 
    Any workers occupationally exposed to ionizing radiation must be enrolled, who are likely to exceed an external dose of 1mSv (100 mrem) or
    • A. 

      1 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).

    • B. 

      2 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).

    • C. 

      5 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).

    • D. 

      10 percent of the annual limits of intake (ALI).

  • 30. 
    Who is typically given the responsibility of operating the USAF Personnel Dosimetry Program?
    • A. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) journeyman.

    • B. 

      BE senior noncommissioned officer (NCO)..

    • C. 

      Base radiation safety officer (RSO).

    • D. 

      Public health craftsman.

  • 31. 
    Who is responsible for enrolling personnel into the dosimetry program and determining the type of external monitoring required?
    • A. 

      Base Safety.

    • B. 

      Workplace supervisor.

    • C. 

      Squadron Commander.

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering.

  • 32. 
    Who interviews the workplace supervisor and enrolled individual when investigating an abnormal exposure to determine its cause?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM BE.

    • B. 

      Base Ground Safety.

    • C. 

      Squadron Commander and Base Safety.

    • D. 

      Installation Radiation Safety Officer.

  • 33. 
    Which type of dosimeter must be worn by all personnel enrolled in the Dosimetry program regardless of other types of dosimeters worn?
    • A. 

      Collar.

    • B. 

      Neutron.

    • C. 

      Extremity.

    • D. 

      Whole body.

  • 34. 
    Which type of dosimeter should be issued to individuals who perform fluoroscopic examinations or operate portable medical x-ray equipment?
    • A. 

      Collar.

    • B. 

      Neutron.

    • C. 

      Extremity.

    • D. 

      Area control.

  • 35. 
    How often do electronic personal dosimeters used for first responder or readiness purposes require calibration?
    • A. 

      Once per week.

    • B. 

      Every six months.

    • C. 

      Every twelve months.

    • D. 

      Every twenty four months.

  • 36. 
    Which dosimeter should be used to evaluate exposures to the head and lens of the eye?
    • A. 

      Collar.

    • B. 

      Neutron.

    • C. 

      Extremity.

    • D. 

      Whole body.

  • 37. 
    Each work area being monitored is required to have how many control dosimeters?
    • A. 

      Only one.

    • B. 

      Amount is based on number of workers assigned.

    • C. 

      One for each dosimeter type used within the area.

    • D. 

      Amount is determined by the Installation Radiation Safety Officer.

  • 38. 
    Where on their body should you instruct emergency response personnel to place the EPDMk2?
    • A. 

      On their collar, inside of any PPE.

    • B. 

      On their collar, outside of any PPE.

    • C. 

      On their front torso area, inside of any PPE.

    • D. 

      On their front torso area, outside of any personal protective equipment (PPE).

  • 39. 
    What is the first step you must do to disenroll an individual from the dosimetry program?
    • A. 

      Complete the listing 1499.

    • B. 

      Destroy the departing individual’s badge in a safe manner.

    • C. 

      Submit their dosimeter to the USAF Radiation Dosimetry Lab.

    • D. 

      Determine if the individual wore their dosimeter during the monitoring period.

  • 40. 
    Dosimeters must be exchanged
    • A. 

      On the last workday of the monitoring period.

    • B. 

      On the first workday after the monitoring period.

    • C. 

      Within two workdays of the end of the monitoring period.

    • D. 

      Within five workdays of the end of the monitoring period.

  • 41. 
    What factor necessitates a more frequent dosimeter exchange?
    • A. 

      Pregnant workers with a potential to exceed 200 mrem during pregnancy.

    • B. 

      Certain operations having radiation exposures greater than 1.25 rem per year.

    • C. 

      Certain operations having radiation exposures greater than 1.50 rem per month.

    • D. 

      Prior exposure history of individual beginning work as an occupational radiation worker.

  • 42. 
    Once dosimeters are collected after the monitoring period and disassembled, what two things must be compared to account for all issued dosimeters?
    • A. 

      Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) number and the Listing 1523.

    • B. 

      TLD shipping holder and TLD number.

    • C. 

      Shipping document and TLD number.

    • D. 

      Listing 1499 and shipping document.

  • 43. 
    On which of the following forms/listings is the Annual Report of Individual Occupational Exposure to Ionizing Radiation listed?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2753.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1527–1.

    • C. 

      RDL Listing 1523.

    • D. 

      RDL Listing 1499–1.

  • 44. 
    Who sets the value for the investigation action level as part of the as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) program?
    • A. 

      Installation radiation safety officer (IRSO).

    • B. 

      Installation Commander.

    • C. 

      Radioisotope Committee.

    • D. 

      Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

  • 45. 
    After reviewing the Listing 1499–1, Occupational Radiation Exposure Report, it is signed by the Installation Radiations Safety Officer and a copy is sent to the
    • A. 

      Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      Workplace supervisor.

    • C. 

      Base safety manager.

    • D. 

      Worker.

  • 46. 
    What should the installation radiation safety officer (IRSO) develop for each dose equivalent category of the Listing 1499?
    • A. 

      Maximum exposure rates.

    • B. 

      ALARA training requirements.

    • C. 

      Investigation actions levels.

    • D. 

      Installation activity levels.

  • 47. 
    Which radiation measuring device can operate in freeze mode and integrate mode?
    • A. 

      RADeCO.

    • B. 

      SAM 940.

    • C. 

      Geiger-Mueller.

    • D. 

      Victoreen 451P.

  • 48. 
    Which gas ionization instrument would you use if you were interested in measuring relatively high exposure rates of gamma or x-rays?
    • A. 

      Victoreen 451P.

    • B. 

      Photomultiplier tube.

    • C. 

      Proportional counter.

    • D. 

      Geiger-Mueller detector.

  • 49. 
    When using the ADM–300 x-ray probe, how do you position and use the probe?
    • A. 

      Hold the probe parallel and use a fast and steady sweeping motion.

    • B. 

      Hold the probe parallel and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.

    • C. 

      Hold the probe vertically and use a fast and steady sweeping motion.

    • D. 

      Hold the probe vertically and use a slow and steady sweeping motion.

  • 50. 
    You’ve been called by the base fire chief to conduct air sampling for suspected radiological particles in the air. What piece of sampling equipment should you get ready?
    • A. 

      Victoreen.

    • B. 

      EPD Mk2.

    • C. 

      RADeCO.

    • D. 

      ADM–300.

  • 51. 
    What type of testing do you conduct on unsealed radiation sources?
    • A. 

      Leak.

    • B. 

      Air.

    • C. 

      Swipe.

    • D. 

      Bulk.

  • 52. 
    When swipe testing a radiological source, what is the first step after you have prepared the field blank?
    • A. 

      Apply a few drops of deionized (DI) water so the wipe is damp but not soaked.

    • B. 

      Place a small X in pencil on the outer edge of the filter paper on the side to touch the source.

    • C. 

      Check the filter paper with an ADM 300 with probe or an instrument capable of measuring beta/gamma to establish background reading.

    • D. 

      In a slow back and forth “S” motion applying moderate pressure, swipe an area of 100 cm2.

  • 53. 
    What is the total surface area covered during a swipe sample of a sealed radiological source?
    • A. 

      10 square centimeters.

    • B. 

      30 square centimeters.

    • C. 

      100 square centimeters.

    • D. 

      300 square centimeters.

  • 54. 
    What type of survey instrument do you use to monitor external radiation levels for packages that contain radioactive material?
    • A. 

      Proportion detector.

    • B. 

      Portable ion chamber.

    • C. 

      Scintillation instrument.

    • D. 

      Geiger-Mueller detector.

  • 55. 
    When monitoring a radioactive material shipment for external levels of radiation, at what distance from the surface of the package are readings taken?
    • A. 

      100 centimeters.

    • B. 

      50 centimeters.

    • C. 

      20 centimeters.

    • D. 

      10 centimeters.

  • 56. 
    Your role in the ionizing radiation quality assurance program is to
    • A. 

      Verify the training of all x-ray technicians.

    • B. 

      Evaluate the direct output of x-ray machines.

    • C. 

      Verify that the direct output of x-ray machines has been evaluated.

    • D. 

      Perform scatter surveys on medical x-ray units to ensure all personnel are not exposed to unnecessary radiation.

  • 57. 
    What is the easiest and most accurate method you can use to measure ionizing radiation produced by medical x-ray machines is using
    • A. 

      Thermoluminscent dosimeters.

    • B. 

      Theoretical worst-case calculations.

    • C. 

      An electronic portable dosimeter (EPD).

    • D. 

      A portable instrument such as a Geiger-Muller detector.

  • 58. 
    When conducting medical x-ray machine scatter radiation surveys, you recreate the scatter effect of the radiation by
    • A. 

      Placing a one gallon plastic container filled with water in line with the beam.

    • B. 

      Placing a one gallon plastic container filled with sand in line with the beam.

    • C. 

      Placing a specially designed mannequin on the x-ray table.

    • D. 

      Having an x-ray technician lie down on the x-table.

  • 59. 
    What should be your initial action if you suspect that a dosimeter received an abnormal exposure?
    • A. 

      Interview the exposed worker.

    • B. 

      Remove the exposed worker from duties.

    • C. 

      Send the suspect dosimeter for processing.

    • D. 

      Take corrective action to prevent further exposure.

  • 60. 
    When investigating an abnormal exposure to ionizing radiation, which action takes place during the interview the worker step?
    • A. 

      Validating the exposure.

    • B. 

      Identifying corrective action.

    • C. 

      Determining the portion of the body exposed.

    • D. 

      Exploring potential causes for the exposure.

  • 61. 
    How soon after being notified of a potential overexposure to ionizing radiation must a written report be submitted to the Radioanalytical Laboratory?
    • A. 

      7 work days.

    • B. 

      7 calendar days.

    • C. 

      10 work days.

    • D. 

      10 calendar days.

  • 62. 
    Which scenario would be a proper time to use the stay time calculation?
    • A. 

      Determine amount of time an NDI technician can safely work.

    • B. 

      Determine amount of time an Airman can work in a BROKEN ARROW site.

    • C. 

      Determine the number of X-rays a technician can safely perform.

    • D. 

      Determine the amount of leak tests a BE technician can safely perform.

  • 63. 
    What is the intensity at 20.5 feet if the radiation intensity 42 feet from the source is 250 mR/Hr?
    • A. 

      1102 mR/hr.

    • B. 

      1049 mR/hr.

    • C. 

      952 mR/hr.

    • D. 

      512 mR/hr.

  • 64. 
    Radioactive material located in unintended places is the definition of
    • A. 

      Irradiation.

    • B. 

      Radioactivity.

    • C. 

      Radiation exposure.

    • D. 

      Radioactive contamination.

  • 65. 
    What effect does the inverse square law have on a person’s exposure to radiation?
    • A. 

      Moving away double the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 4.

    • B. 

      Moving away double the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 2.

    • C. 

      Moving away 1/2 the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 1/2.

    • D. 

      Moving away 1/3 distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 1/3.

  • 66. 
    Using a combination of a low and high atomic number shielding is best used to control what type of radiation?
    • A. 

      Neutron.

    • B. 

      Photon.

    • C. 

      Alpha.

    • D. 

      Beta.

  • 67. 
    Coveralls and gloves will prevent what type of radiation from potentially harming a person’s skin?
    • A. 

      Photon.

    • B. 

      Neutron.

    • C. 

      Alpha and beta.

    • D. 

      Gamma and x-ray.

  • 68. 
    The primary source for depleted uranium intake by the general public is
    • A. 

      Transport aircraft.

    • B. 

      Food and drinking water.

    • C. 

      Uranium mining facilities.

    • D. 

      Areas where depleted uranium munitions have been used.

  • 69. 
    As it decays, depleted uranium particles emit which type(s) of radiation?
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Gamma

    • C. 

      Alpha and beta.

    • D. 

      Alpha, beta, and gamma.

  • 70. 
    As it decays, radon gas emits type(s) of radiation?
    • A. 

      Alpha.

    • B. 

      Gamma.

    • C. 

      Alpha and beta.

    • D. 

      Alpha, beta and gamma.

  • 71. 
    The only documented health effect from exposure to the airborne radon and its decay products are an increased risk of
    • A. 

      Emphysema.

    • B. 

      Lung cancer.

    • C. 

      Pancreatic cancer.

    • D. 

      Thyroid nodular disease.

  • 72. 
    What section recycles and disposes of radioactive waste and mixed waste generated by Air Force operations?
    • A. 

      Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

    • B. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency.

    • C. 

      USAFSAM Radioanalytical Laboratory.

    • D. 

      Air Force Radioactive Recycle and Disposal office.

  • 73. 
    Nuclear fission involves which process?
    • A. 

      Chemically bonding two atoms using helium.

    • B. 

      Merging two smaller atoms into one larger atom.

    • C. 

      Forcing atoms to vibrate at incredibly high speeds.

    • D. 

      Splitting the nucleus of an atom into smaller fragments.

  • 74. 
    If two atoms of hydrogen are brought together in nuclear fusion, what do they form?
    • A. 

      Halon atom.

    • B. 

      Helium atom.

    • C. 

      Hydrogen molecule.

    • D. 

      Mega-hydrogen.

  • 75. 
    Refer to figure 4–7. Blast effects account for what percent of the overall effects of a surface nuclear detonation?
    • A. 

      5 percent.

    • B. 

      10 percent.

    • C. 

      35 percent.

    • D. 

      50 percent.

  • 76. 
    Most damage from the nuclear detonation comes from
    • A. 

      The fireball.

    • B. 

      The blast wave.

    • C. 

      Initial radiation.

    • D. 

      Fallout radiation.

  • 77. 
    The major incendiary effect of nuclear explosions is caused by
    • A. 

      Flash burns.

    • B. 

      The fire ball.

    • C. 

      The blast wave.

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic pulse.

  • 78. 
    Thermal effects account for what percent of the overall effects of a surface nuclear detonation?
    • A. 

      5 percent.

    • B. 

      10 percent.

    • C. 

      35 percent.

    • D. 

      50 percent.

  • 79. 
    Fallout contains about what percent of the total radioactivity?
    • A. 

      70.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      50.

    • D. 

      40.

  • 80. 
    Which statement is true about an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) from a high altitude burst?
    • A. 

      The EMP results a skin burns flash blindness and skin burns.

    • B. 

      The EMP is a single pulse of energy that disappears in a fraction of a second.

    • C. 

      Most equipment designed to protect electrical facilities from lightening will be effective against the EMP.

    • D. 

      EMP is an electromagnetic wave which results from secondary reactions occurring when alpha radiation is absorbed in the air or ground.

  • 81. 
    Which type of nuclear weapon is fission-based and has a plutonium core?
    • A. 

      Gun-type nuclear bomb.

    • B. 

      Implosion-type nuclear bomb.

    • C. 

      The hydrogen bomb.

    • D. 

      The Neutron bomb.

  • 82. 
    What is the primary difference between a neutron bomb and a standard nuclear weapon?
    • A. 

      Physical structures are more affected by a neutron bomb.

    • B. 

      There is no real discernible difference between the bombs.

    • C. 

      The primary lethal effects come from the radiation damage caused by the neutrons a neutron bomb emits.

    • D. 

      There is less of a distinction between area of high lethality and areas with minimal radiation doses for neutron bombs.

  • 83. 
    What is a radiological exposure device (RED)?
    • A. 

      A Regular explosive laced with lower-grade radioactive material.

    • B. 

      A device intended to expose people to significant does of ionizing radiation without their knowledge.

    • C. 

      An illicit nuclear weapon bought, stolen or otherwise obtained that produces a nuclear explosion.

    • D. 

      A device in which the nuclear yield produces extreme heat, powerful shockwaves, prompt radiation and radioactive fallout.

  • 84. 
    Which is not generally considered a secondary hazard of nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Hydrazine

    • B. 

      Heavy metals.

    • C. 

      Laser radiation.

    • D. 

      Composite materials.

  • 85. 
    Which statement is true regarding secondary hazards of nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      The shock, heat and friction created can cause other high explosive material to detonate

    • B. 

      There are no secondary hazards since the nuclear weapon is completely destroyed upon detonation.

    • C. 

      The only hazards following a detonation are the initial shock wave, the thermal hazard and radiation.

    • D. 

      Fallout radiation penetrating protective structures will be the sole hazard after all issues immediately following a detonation have been dealt with.

  • 86. 
    Which of the following would be categorized as a Bent Spear?
    • A. 

      The forcible, unauthorized seizure of a nuclear weapon.

    • B. 

      An accidental or unauthorized launch of a nuclear weapon.

    • C. 

      An unfavorable environment or condition resulting in damage to the nuclear weapon.

    • D. 

      A non-nuclear detonation or burning of a nuclear weapon or radiological nuclear weapon component.

  • 87. 
    The primary treatment for internal contamination is to increase the rate of elimination of the radioactive isotope. How can this be done?
    • A. 

      Vaccines.

    • B. 

      Mechanical means.

    • C. 

      Anti-biotics.

    • D. 

      Water.

  • 88. 
    What is a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved method for preventing radioactive iodine from being sequestered in the thyroid?
    • A. 

      Potassium iodide.

    • B. 

      Prussian blue.

    • C. 

      Chelation agents.

    • D. 

      Vaccine therapy.

  • 89. 
    Medical countermeasures that are approved to treat known or suspected internal contamination with plutonium, americium or curium are known as:
    • A. 

      Chelating agents.

    • B. 

      Chelating solutions.

    • C. 

      Elimination agents.

    • D. 

      Elimination solutions.

  • 90. 
    When performing external decontamination of patients at the site, what would be the next recommendation to ensure contamination is not spread?
    • A. 

      Transport patient to hospital.

    • B. 

      Perform treatment in the field.

    • C. 

      Remove all contaminated clothing.

    • D. 

      Closely monitor patient.

  • 91. 
    Regarding contamination control, what types of materials should be used in order to reduce tracking and to aid in cleanup tasks?
    • A. 

      Reusable.

    • B. 

      Permanent.

    • C. 

      Disposable.

    • D. 

      Sterile.

  • 92. 
    Who is the primary facilitator for providing on-scene command, control, communications and hazard plots?
    • A. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE).

    • B. 

      Safety.

    • C. 

      Civil Engineering (CE).

    • D. 

      FD.

  • 93. 
    Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) personnel have been given the task of monitoring the contamination levels on the ground in and around a Broken Arrow. Preliminary results from ambient air monitoring indicate the airborne concentration of Alpha activity is 525 dpm/m3 above background. As an entry team leader, what respiratory protection level should be recommended?
    • A. 

      No respiratory protection needed.

    • B. 

      Half-face HEPA respirator.

    • C. 

      Full-face HEPA respirator.

    • D. 

      Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).

  • 94. 
    When recommending contamination control procedures for deceased personnel, make sure that decontamination procedures and remains are handled
    • A. 

      Hastily.

    • B. 

      Slowly.

    • C. 

      With dignity.

    • D. 

      With technical prowess.

  • 95. 
    When surveying a fatality at the field morgue after decontamination, it is observed that the contamination cannot be removed after decontamination. What should be the next course of action?
    • A. 

      Do nothing.

    • B. 

      Isolate and shield the body.

    • C. 

      Decontaminate again.

    • D. 

      Transport regular morgue.

  • 96. 
    Water sample results from an overseas location that you are deployed to indicate that levels of Gross Alpha are 35 pCi/L. What should you do next?
    • A. 

      Resample.

    • B. 

      Do nothing.

    • C. 

      Inform MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      Consult AFRAT.

  • 97. 
    What step in the sampling strategy process is used to identify and comply with regulatory requirements or to identify an associated risk at a satisfactory level?
    • A. 

      Action level.

    • B. 

      Results interpretation.

    • C. 

      Archive results.

    • D. 

      Type of analysis.

  • 98. 
    What plotting program is widely used for initial emergency assessment or safety-analysis planning?
    • A. 

      Hotspot.

    • B. 

      HPAC.

    • C. 

      IMAAC.

    • D. 

      ARAC.

  • 99. 
    The primary risk during nuclear accidents/incidents is a long-term increase in the likelihood of radiation diseases caused by the inhalation of what type of emitters?
    • A. 

      Gamma.

    • B. 

      Beta.

    • C. 

      Alpha.

    • D. 

      Tritium.

  • 100. 
    When documenting hazards encountered, protective measures taken, doses received and decontamination performed for an OEHSA, what Air Force guidance should be referenced?
    • A. 

      AFMAN 48–145.

    • B. 

      AFI 48–145.

    • C. 

      AFOSH Std 48–145.

    • D. 

      AFI 48–125.