Windows Server 2008 Active Directory Configuration

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Windows Server 2008 Active Directory Configuration - Quiz

Hello and welcome to this 'Windows server 2008 active directory configuration' quiz. This quiz is designed to test your knowledge about Windows server 2008 ad its related concepts. So, if you think you have a good understanding of this topic, then you must try this quiz and see how much you can score. If you score more than 70%, it means that you've passed this test. This quiz consists of both easy and difficult questions so be prepared.
Ready to start this test? Best of luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following Windows Server 2008 editions supports the hot-add processor feature?

    • A.

      Windows Web Server 2008

    • B.

      Standard Edition

    • C.

      Enterprise Edition

    • D.

      Datacenter Edition

    Correct Answer
    D. Datacenter Edition
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2008 Datacenter Edition supports the hot-add processor feature. This means that administrators can add or remove processors from a running system without having to shut it down. This feature is particularly useful for organizations that require high availability and scalability in their server environments. The Datacenter Edition is specifically designed for large-scale virtualization and high-performance computing, making it the ideal choice for environments that need to dynamically adjust their processing power.

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  • 2. 

    Windows Server 2008 Enterprise is capable of being configured with failover clustering for up to how many nodes?

    • A.

      4 nodes

    • B.

      8 nodes

    • C.

      16 nodes

    • D.

      30 nodes

    Correct Answer
    C. 16 nodes
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2008 Enterprise is capable of being configured with failover clustering for up to 16 nodes. This means that the server can support a cluster of up to 16 individual servers, providing high availability and automatic failover in case of a node failure. This allows for increased scalability and reliability in enterprise environments.

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  • 3. 

    One of your partner organizations currently has to provide logon credentials to access criticial applications on your extranet's web site.  While this has worked in the past, a recent metting has brought to light the need for singole sign-on capabilities for the website.  After researching the issue, you discover that one of Windows Server 2008's new Active Directory roles can help solve the problem.  Which of the following answers allows you to create a trust relationshiop between your extranet and your partner organization?

    • A.

      Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)

    • B.

      Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS)

    • C.

      Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)

    • D.

      Active Directory Advanced Integration Services (AD AIS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
    Explanation
    Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) allows you to create a trust relationship between your extranet and your partner organization. AD FS enables single sign-on capabilities for the website, eliminating the need for separate logon credentials. It allows users to access critical applications on the extranet's website using their existing credentials from their partner organization's Active Directory. AD FS provides a secure and seamless authentication and authorization process, enhancing the user experience and simplifying access management for both organizations.

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  • 4. 

    What version of Internet Inforamation Services (IIS) is included with Windows Server 2008?

    • A.

      IIS 6.0

    • B.

      IIS 7.0

    • C.

      IIS 6.9.1

    • D.

      IIS 7.5

    Correct Answer
    B. IIS 7.0
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2008 includes Internet Information Services (IIS) version 7.0.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following tools is the basic application responsible for loading more useful management related snap-ins?

    • A.

      Microsoft Management Console

    • B.

      Disk Management

    • C.

      Internet Information Services Manager

    • D.

      Hyper V Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Microsoft Management Console
    Explanation
    The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is the correct answer because it is the basic application responsible for loading more useful management related snap-ins. The MMC provides a framework for hosting and integrating various administrative tools, called snap-ins, which allow users to manage different aspects of their computer or network. It serves as a central management tool for configuring and monitoring system components, such as services, event logs, and device drivers. The other options, Disk Management, Internet Information Services Manager, and Hyper V Manager, are specific tools within the MMC that focus on disk management, web server administration, and virtualization management, respectively.

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  • 6. 

    When examining a Workgroup Model, a Windows Server 2008 server that participates in a workgroup is referred to as a _____.

    • A.

      Domain controller

    • B.

      Member server

    • C.

      Stand-alone server

    • D.

      Stand-alone member server

    Correct Answer
    C. Stand-alone server
    Explanation
    In a Workgroup Model, a Windows Server 2008 server that participates in a workgroup is referred to as a stand-alone server. This means that the server operates independently and does not belong to a domain. It does not have the role of a domain controller or a member server, which are terms used in a domain environment. A stand-alone member server is not a correct term in this context.

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  • 7. 

    Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) adds to the TS web access functionality by allowing a secure, encrypted connection using ____.

    • A.

      Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • B.

      Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP)

    • C.

      Secure HTTP (HTTPS)

    • D.

      Network Address Translation (NAT)

    Correct Answer
    C. Secure HTTP (HTTPS)
    Explanation
    TS Gateway allows a secure, encrypted connection, and the most suitable protocol for this purpose is Secure HTTP (HTTPS). HTTPS is a combination of HTTP and SSL/TLS protocols, providing secure communication over the internet. It encrypts the data transmitted between the client and the server, ensuring confidentiality and integrity. This makes it an ideal choice for establishing a secure connection in TS Gateway, protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access or tampering.

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  • 8. 

    Windows Server 2008 is activated automatically after several days. However, if it can't be activated, how many days do you have to active Windows Server 2008 before you can no longer log on?

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      15 days

    • C.

      60 days

    • D.

      90 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 60 days
    Explanation
    After installing Windows Server 2008, it is activated automatically within a few days. However, if the automatic activation fails, the user has a grace period of 60 days to manually activate the operating system. If the user fails to activate within this timeframe, they will no longer be able to log on to Windows Server 2008.

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  • 9. 

    Select below a vaild requirement for the installation of Hyper-V:

    • A.

      Windows Server 2008 Datacenter must be installed to use Hyper-V

    • B.

      Your CPU must support virtualization extensions

    • C.

      You require a Hyper-V license key

    • D.

      You must have at least 128MB of RAM installed

    Correct Answer
    B. Your CPU must support virtualization extensions
    Explanation
    To install Hyper-V, it is necessary for the CPU to support virtualization extensions. This is because Hyper-V relies on hardware virtualization capabilities provided by the CPU to create and manage virtual machines. Without virtualization extensions, the CPU would not be able to efficiently run virtual machines, resulting in poor performance or inability to run them at all. Therefore, ensuring that the CPU supports virtualization extensions is a valid requirement for the installation of Hyper-V.

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  • 10. 

    If correct time zone information is not used and your servers' clocks run at different times, what is most likely to have issuses on your network?

    • A.

      Windows Update

    • B.

      IP address assignment

    • C.

      Program performance

    • D.

      User authentication

    Correct Answer
    D. User authentication
    Explanation
    If the correct time zone information is not used and the servers' clocks run at different times, it is most likely that user authentication will have issues on the network. User authentication relies on accurate time synchronization to ensure that authentication tokens and certificates are valid and not expired. If the clocks on the servers are not synchronized, it can lead to authentication failures and access issues for users trying to log in to the network.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following Windows Server 2008 editions has no upgrade path?

    • A.

      Standard Edition

    • B.

      Enterprise Edition

    • C.

      Datacenter Edition

    • D.

      Web Server Edition

    Correct Answer
    D. Web Server Edition
    Explanation
    The Web Server Edition of Windows Server 2008 has no upgrade path because it is designed specifically for hosting websites and web applications, and does not include some of the features and capabilities found in the other editions. Therefore, it is not possible to upgrade from Web Server Edition to any other edition of Windows Server 2008.

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  • 12. 

    You are constructing a server for a small office complex that will run for approximately 12 hours everyday. Because of a limited budget, you have decided to use a disk subsystem that is inexpensive and offers excellent performance.  Pick the technology that best fits this description.

    • A.

      SCSI

    • B.

      SATA

    • C.

      PATA

    • D.

      SAS

    Correct Answer
    B. SATA
    Explanation
    SATA (Serial ATA) is the best technology that fits the description of being inexpensive and offering excellent performance. SATA drives are cost-effective and provide fast data transfer speeds, making them suitable for a small office server that needs to run for 12 hours every day. Additionally, SATA drives are widely available and compatible with most computers, making them a practical choice for a limited budget.

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  • 13. 

    Your intern would like to know which of the following situations would be ideal for a Server Core installation:

    • A.

      You're installing the first server in a network

    • B.

      You're upgrading from Windows Server 2003

    • C.

      You want to run Windows Web Server 2003

    • D.

      You want to install an RODC in a branch office

    Correct Answer
    D. You want to install an RODC in a branch office
    Explanation
    An RODC (Read-Only Domain Controller) is a type of domain controller that holds a read-only copy of the Active Directory database. It is designed for use in branch offices where physical security cannot be guaranteed. Since an RODC does not allow any changes to the Active Directory database, it reduces the risk of compromising sensitive information in case the server is physically accessed by unauthorized individuals. Therefore, installing an RODC in a branch office would be ideal for a Server Core installation.

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  • 14. 

    What can be done to solve the issue of server sprawl?

    • A.

      Add new servers

    • B.

      Consolidate the servers with virtualization

    • C.

      Install potentially conflicting applications on seperate servers

    • D.

      Reducing server uptime

    Correct Answer
    B. Consolidate the servers with virtualization
    Explanation
    Consolidating the servers with virtualization is the most effective solution to solve the issue of server sprawl. By using virtualization technology, multiple virtual servers can be created and run on a single physical server, reducing the number of physical servers required. This helps in optimizing server resources, reducing power consumption, and improving overall efficiency. Additionally, virtualization allows for better management and flexibility in allocating resources to different virtual servers, making it an ideal solution for addressing server sprawl.

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  • 15. 

    Where can you view a list of installed updates?

    • A.

      Update and Service Pack Manager

    • B.

      Installed Updates Manager

    • C.

      Programs and Features applet

    • D.

      View/updates command

    Correct Answer
    C. Programs and Features applet
    Explanation
    The Programs and Features applet allows you to view a list of installed updates on your computer. This applet provides a comprehensive list of all the programs and features installed on your system, including updates and service packs. By accessing this applet, you can easily manage and uninstall any updates that have been installed on your computer.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following defines the types of information stored in an Active Directory object?

    • A.

      Attribute value

    • B.

      Schema classes

    • C.

      Schema attributes

    • D.

      GPO's

    Correct Answer
    C. Schema attributes
    Explanation
    Schema attributes define the types of information that can be stored in an Active Directory object. These attributes determine the properties and characteristics of the objects, such as their names, data types, and constraints. By defining the schema attributes, administrators can control and manage the structure and content of the Active Directory database.

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  • 17. 

    Under what circumstances are the built-in user accounts no longer local user accounts?

    • A.

      When accessing a network resource in a workgroup environment

    • B.

      After installing Active Directory

    • C.

      This is impossible, built-in user accounts cannot be converted

    • D.

      When using dsadd on the built-in accounts

    Correct Answer
    B. After installing Active Directory
    Explanation
    After installing Active Directory, the built-in user accounts are no longer local user accounts. Active Directory is a directory service that allows for centralized management of users, groups, and resources in a network environment. Once Active Directory is installed, the built-in user accounts are migrated to the Active Directory domain, making them domain user accounts instead of local user accounts.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following best describes a directory service?

    • A.

      Similar to a list of information in a text file

    • B.

      Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it

    • C.

      A program for managing the user interface on a server

    • D.

      A program for managing folders, files, and permissions on a distributed server

    Correct Answer
    B. Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it
    Explanation
    A directory service is similar to a database program because it allows for the management of objects within it. It is specifically designed to store and organize information about users, resources, and network devices in a network environment. This information can include user profiles, access permissions, and network resources. By providing a centralized and structured database, a directory service enables efficient management and access control within a network.

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  • 19. 

    A _____ is a different from normal DCs in that you cannot use it to update information in Active Directory and it does not replicate to regular DCs.

    • A.

      Restricted Domain Controller

    • B.

      Limited Access Domain Controller

    • C.

      Read-Only Domain Controller

    • D.

      Replication-Limited Domain Controller

    Correct Answer
    C. Read-Only Domain Controller
    Explanation
    A Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC) is a type of domain controller that has limited functionality compared to a normal DC. It cannot be used to update information in Active Directory and it does not replicate to regular DCs. RODCs are typically deployed in remote or branch office locations where physical security cannot be guaranteed. They store a read-only copy of the Active Directory database, allowing users in these locations to authenticate and access resources locally without the need to connect to a central DC. This helps to improve security by reducing the risk of unauthorized changes to the directory.

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  • 20. 

    A(n) ______ is a list of privleges given to an account or security group granting access to an object, such as a shared folder or shared printer.

    • A.

      ACL

    • B.

      ACE

    • C.

      Attribute list

    • D.

      GPO

    Correct Answer
    A. ACL
    Explanation
    An Access Control List (ACL) is a list of privileges given to an account or security group granting access to an object, such as a shared folder or shared printer. It specifies the permissions or restrictions that determine what actions can be performed on the object by the account or group. ACLs are commonly used in computer systems to enforce security and control access to resources.

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  • 21. 

    When configuring folder and file permissions, use the _____ button on the folder properties Security tab to change which groups and users have permissions to a folder.

    • A.

      General

    • B.

      Edit

    • C.

      Modify

    • D.

      Tools

    Correct Answer
    B. Edit
    Explanation
    When configuring folder and file permissions, the "Edit" button on the folder properties Security tab is used to change which groups and users have permissions to a folder. This button allows the user to modify the existing permissions and add or remove groups and users from the access control list of the folder. By clicking on the "Edit" button, the user can make changes to the permissions and determine who can access and modify the folder and its contents.

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  • 22. 

    Accessing folders and files can be tracked by setting up _____, which in Windows Server 2008 enables you to track activity on a folder or file, such as read or write activity.

    • A.

      Archiving

    • B.

      Logging

    • C.

      Tracking

    • D.

      Auditing

    Correct Answer
    D. Auditing
    Explanation
    In Windows Server 2008, the process of tracking activity on a folder or file, such as read or write activity, can be achieved by setting up auditing. Auditing allows administrators to monitor and record access to folders and files, providing an additional layer of security and accountability. By enabling auditing, administrators can track and review the actions performed on specific folders and files, helping to identify any unauthorized or suspicious activities.

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  • 23. 

    To _____ an object means to make it available for users to access when they view Active Directory contents.

    • A.

      Inherit

    • B.

      Control

    • C.

      Present

    • D.

      Publish

    Correct Answer
    D. Publish
    Explanation
    To "publish" an object in Active Directory means to make it available for users to access when they view Active Directory contents. This implies that the object will be visible and accessible to users who have the necessary permissions to view and interact with it.

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  • 24. 

    The _____ enables you to simplify access to the shared folders on a network by setting up folders to appear as though they are accessed from only one place.

    • A.

      Encrypted File System

    • B.

      Distributed File System

    • C.

      Dispersed File System

    • D.

      Extended File System

    Correct Answer
    B. Distributed File System
    Explanation
    Distributed File System enables you to simplify access to the shared folders on a network by setting up folders to appear as though they are accessed from only one place. This means that users can access files and folders from different locations on the network without having to know the physical location of the files. The distributed file system manages the mapping between the logical and physical locations of the files, providing a seamless and unified view of the shared folders on the network.

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  • 25. 

    In DFS, access to shared folders can be distributed across many servers, resulting in the ability to perform _____, so that one server does not experience more load than others.

    • A.

      Distribution

    • B.

      Replication

    • C.

      Load balancing

    • D.

      Redundancy

    Correct Answer
    C. Load balancing
    Explanation
    Load balancing in DFS helps distribute the access to shared folders across multiple servers. This ensures that the workload is evenly distributed among the servers, preventing any single server from becoming overloaded. By distributing the load, the system can handle more requests efficiently, improving performance and preventing any server from being overwhelmed with excessive traffic.

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  • 26. 

    The computer or print server device offering the printer share is the _____.

    • A.

      Network print server

    • B.

      Network print manager

    • C.

      Network print client

    • D.

      Network print provider

    Correct Answer
    A. Network print server
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "network print server." A network print server refers to a computer or print server device that offers printer sharing. It acts as a central hub that allows multiple users to connect and print to a shared printer over a network. This server manages the print jobs, queues, and ensures efficient printing for all connected clients.

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  • 27. 

    In the Windows environment, a _____ is a group of DLLs, information files, and programs that processes print jobs for printing.

    • A.

      Driver

    • B.

      Renderer

    • C.

      Queue manager

    • D.

      Spooler

    Correct Answer
    D. Spooler
    Explanation
    A spooler in the Windows environment is a collection of DLLs, information files, and programs that are responsible for processing print jobs for printing. It manages the print queue, allowing multiple print jobs to be stored and processed in the background, while the user can continue working on other tasks. The spooler ensures that print jobs are processed in the correct order and sends them to the appropriate printer for output.

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  • 28. 

    When a print job is processed over the Internet or an intranet, _____ must be installed and running in Windows Server 2008.

    • A.

      Windows Distribution Services (WDS)

    • B.

      Internet Information Services (IIS)

    • C.

      Windows Support Services (WSS)

    • D.

      Web Server Service (WSS)

    Correct Answer
    B. Internet Information Services (IIS)
    Explanation
    When a print job is processed over the Internet or an intranet, Internet Information Services (IIS) must be installed and running in Windows Server 2008. IIS is a web server software that enables the hosting of websites, web applications, and services on Windows servers. It provides the necessary infrastructure for processing print jobs over the network. Windows Distribution Services (WDS) is a technology used for deploying Windows operating systems, not related to print job processing. Windows Support Services (WSS) and Web Server Service (WSS) are not valid terms or services in the context of this question.

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  • 29. 

    To take full advantage of Windows Server 2008 to manage shared printers for one location, install the _____ role.

    • A.

      Client Services

    • B.

      Print Management

    • C.

      Print Services

    • D.

      Distribution Services

    Correct Answer
    C. Print Services
    Explanation
    To take full advantage of Windows Server 2008 to manage shared printers for one location, the Print Services role should be installed. This role allows for the management and administration of printers and print servers, including the ability to install, configure, and monitor printers, as well as manage print queues and print jobs. By installing the Print Services role, the server can effectively handle the printing needs of the location, ensuring efficient and reliable printing services.

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  • 30. 

    The _____ boxes are used to store special notes about the printer that can help distinguish it from other printers, particularly for the sake of users if the printer is shared on the network.

    • A.

      General

    • B.

      Type

    • C.

      Notes

    • D.

      Location and Comment

    Correct Answer
    D. Location and Comment
    Explanation
    The "Location and Comment" boxes are used to store special notes about the printer that can help distinguish it from other printers, particularly for the sake of users if the printer is shared on the network. These notes can include information about the physical location of the printer or any additional comments or instructions that users need to be aware of. This helps in identifying and differentiating the printer in a shared network environment.

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  • 31. 

    The _____ tab is used to enable or disable a printer for sharing as well as to specify the name of the share.

    • A.

      Sharing

    • B.

      General

    • C.

      Advanced

    • D.

      Location

    Correct Answer
    A. Sharing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Sharing." The Sharing tab is used to enable or disable a printer for sharing and to specify the name of the share. This tab allows users to control the printer's accessibility and set up sharing options for other users on the network.

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  • 32. 

    The _____ tab enables you to specify printer settings that are specific to the printer you have installed, such as printer trays, memory, paper size, fonts, duplexing, and installable options.

    • A.

      Advanced

    • B.

      Device settings

    • C.

      Printer preferences

    • D.

      Output settings

    Correct Answer
    B. Device settings
    Explanation
    The device settings tab allows you to customize the printer settings based on the specific printer you have installed. This includes options such as printer trays, memory, paper size, fonts, duplexing, and installable options. By accessing the device settings tab, you can adjust these settings to optimize the printing experience according to your printer's capabilities and your specific requirements.

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  • 33. 

    When a PostScript-formatted document is sent to a non-PostScript printer, if you do not have _____ enabled, the printer might print tens or hundreds of pages with a single control code on each page.

    • A.

      Hold mismatched documents

    • B.

      Control mismatched documents

    • C.

      Prevent mismatched documents

    • D.

      Suppress mismatched documents

    Correct Answer
    A. Hold mismatched documents
    Explanation
    If the "hold mismatched documents" option is not enabled when a PostScript-formatted document is sent to a non-PostScript printer, the printer might print tens or hundreds of pages with a single control code on each page. Enabling the "hold mismatched documents" option would prevent this from happening by holding the documents that do not match the printer's format, allowing the user to review and correct any issues before printing.

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  • 34. 

    A(n) _____ is like a stack of print jobs, with the first job submitted at the top of the stack and the last job submitted at the bottom, and all of the jobs waiting to be sent from the spooler to the printer.

    • A.

      Print stack

    • B.

      Print queue

    • C.

      Print deek

    • D.

      Print block

    Correct Answer
    B. Print queue
    Explanation
    A print queue is a list of print jobs that are waiting to be sent from the spooler to the printer. It functions like a stack, where the first job submitted is at the top and the last job is at the bottom. The jobs are processed in the order they were added to the queue, with the oldest job being printed first.

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  • 35. 

    Which of these is not a new GPO in Windows Vista and Server 2008?

    • A.

      Local Administrators GPO

    • B.

      Local Non-Administrators GPO

    • C.

      User-Specific GPO

    • D.

      Local Computers GPO

    Correct Answer
    D. Local Computers GPO
    Explanation
    The Local Computers GPO is not a new GPO in Windows Vista and Server 2008. The other options (Local Administrators GPO, Local Non-Administrators GPO, User-Specific GPO) are all potential new GPOs in these operating systems.

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  • 36. 

    If you make changes to an existing GPO that is already linked in Active Directory, how fast do the policy settings take effect?

    • A.

      50 seconds

    • B.

      30 minutes

    • C.

      1 hour

    • D.

      As soon as the client downloads them

    Correct Answer
    D. As soon as the client downloads them
    Explanation
    When changes are made to an existing Group Policy Object (GPO) that is already linked in Active Directory, the policy settings take effect as soon as the client downloads them. This means that the client needs to refresh its Group Policy settings by downloading the updated GPO from the domain controller. Once the client receives the updated policy settings, they will be applied immediately. The time it takes for the client to download the updated GPO can vary depending on factors such as network speed and client configuration.

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  • 37. 

    What would you use to prevent GPOs linked to parent containers from affecting child containers?

    • A.

      GPO filtering

    • B.

      Enforcing inheritance

    • C.

      Loopback policy processing

    • D.

      Inheritance blocking

    Correct Answer
    D. Inheritance blocking
    Explanation
    Inheritance blocking is the correct answer because it allows you to prevent Group Policy Objects (GPOs) linked to parent containers from affecting child containers. By blocking inheritance, you can ensure that specific GPOs are not applied to certain containers, giving you more control over the application of policies in your organizational structure.

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  • 38. 

    How can you ensure that a GPO's settings are applied to all child objects, even if a GPO with conflicting settings is linked to a container at a deeper level?

    • A.

      GPO Filtering

    • B.

      Enforcing inheritance

    • C.

      Loopback policy processing

    • D.

      Inheritance blocking

    Correct Answer
    B. Enforcing inheritance
    Explanation
    Enforcing inheritance ensures that a GPO's settings are applied to all child objects, regardless of any conflicting settings from a GPO linked to a container at a deeper level. This means that the GPO's settings will take precedence over any conflicting settings and be applied to all objects within the scope of the GPO.

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  • 39. 

    If a software package is assigned to a group of targeted computers via the Computer Configuration node, what happens?

    • A.

      Next time a user logs in to one of the targeted computers, they are prompted to install the package

    • B.

      The package is advertised in Add/Remove programs as an installation option

    • C.

      The package is placed on the computers but is not installed until a member of the Administrators group installs it

    • D.

      The package installation is mandatory and begins the next time the computer starts

    Correct Answer
    D. The package installation is mandatory and begins the next time the computer starts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the package installation is mandatory and begins the next time the computer starts. This means that once the software package is assigned to a group of targeted computers via the Computer Configuration node, it will be automatically installed on those computers the next time they are restarted. No user interaction or manual installation is required, making it a convenient and efficient method of deploying software across multiple computers.

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  • 40. 

    Under Password policies, what is the default maximum password age?

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      2 months

    • C.

      42 days

    • D.

      100 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 42 days
    Explanation
    The default maximum password age under password policies is 42 days. This means that after 42 days, users are required to change their passwords. This is a security measure to ensure that passwords are regularly updated and to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to accounts.

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  • 41. 

    What is a major drawback to enabling the auditing of object access?

    • A.

      Decreased security

    • B.

      Too much information is logged

    • C.

      Not ideal for highly secure environment

    • D.

      Involves considerable overhead

    Correct Answer
    D. Involves considerable overhead
    Explanation
    Enabling the auditing of object access involves considerable overhead. This means that it requires a significant amount of resources and can impact the performance of the system. The process of auditing involves tracking and recording every access to objects, which can result in a large amount of data being logged. This can lead to increased storage requirements and processing time. In highly secure environments, where performance and efficiency are crucial, the overhead involved in auditing may outweigh the benefits and make it less ideal.

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  • 42. 

    What subnode under Security Settings applies to wireless network policies?

    • A.

      Wireless Network (IEEE 802.3) Policies

    • B.

      IP Security Policies on Active Directory

    • C.

      Wireless Network (IEEE 802.11) Policies

    • D.

      Network Access Protection

    Correct Answer
    C. Wireless Network (IEEE 802.11) Policies
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Wireless Network (IEEE 802.11) Policies". This subnode under Security Settings specifically applies to wireless network policies. It is designed to manage and configure the security settings for wireless networks using the IEEE 802.11 standard. This subnode allows administrators to define security settings such as authentication methods, encryption protocols, and other security parameters for wireless networks.

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  • 43. 

    GPC replication between domain controllers in the same site occurs at about what interval after a change has been made by default?

    • A.

      20 seconds

    • B.

      50 seconds

    • C.

      30 seconds

    • D.

      15 seconds

    Correct Answer
    D. 15 seconds
    Explanation
    By default, GPC (Group Policy Container) replication between domain controllers in the same site occurs at a 15-second interval after a change has been made. This means that any modifications or updates made to the Group Policy settings will be replicated to other domain controllers within the same site every 15 seconds. This ensures that the changes are quickly propagated throughout the network, allowing for consistent and up-to-date Group Policy enforcement across all domain controllers.

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  • 44. 

    You work for the large Example.com corporation.  Recently, Example.com has been adding new branch offices at a steady rate.  Just last week, a new branch office was created and now you have been put in charge of configuring group policy settings for the branch office.  Because this branch office will be fairly large, it will be set up as a separate domain. Since there are several branch offices with similar GPO requirements, you want to be able to make use of GPOs that have already proven to be useful.  What is the easiest way to make the policies in this new branch office similar to those already in place?

    • A.

      Manually recreate all GPO settings from the other domains and link them to the new domain

    • B.

      Use GPO migration by adding the domains with the policies you want to GPMC, and then copy and paste them.

    • C.

      Use CSVDE import the GPOs via comma separated values in text files

    • D.

      Backup the desired GPOs on the domains you want to mimic, then restore the GPOs in the new domain.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use GPO migration by adding the domains with the policies you want to GPMC, and then copy and paste them.
    Explanation
    The easiest way to make the policies in the new branch office similar to those already in place is to use GPO migration by adding the domains with the desired policies to the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) and then copying and pasting them. This allows for a quick and efficient transfer of the proven useful GPO settings to the new domain without the need to manually recreate all the settings or import them via CSVDE. Additionally, backing up and restoring the desired GPOs may not be as straightforward and efficient as using GPO migration.

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  • 45. 

    What is the default location of the ADMX files?

    • A.

      %systemroot%\Policies

    • B.

      %systemroot%\Policies\ADMX

    • C.

      %systemroot%\PolicyDefinitions

    • D.

      %systemroot%\PolicyDefinitions\ADMX

    Correct Answer
    C. %systemroot%\PolicyDefinitions
    Explanation
    The default location of the ADMX files is %systemroot%\PolicyDefinitions.

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  • 46. 

    You are troubleshooting a network issue a user is having.  After having changed his network adapter to static addressing, he can no longer reach the internet.  However, the machine resolves Internet names to IP addresses.  Observe the adapter's configuration below, and determine the problem. IP Address: 172.31.20.103 Subnet: 255.255.255.0 DNS Server: 172.31.20.251 Gateway Address: 172.31.19.254

    • A.

      Gateway is outside of the user's subnet

    • B.

      Change subnet mask to 255.255.255.128

    • C.

      The gateway no longer has a route to your ISP, so it does not deliver packets

    • D.

      DNS is providing incorrect or old resolution information, and the IP addresses given are no longer accurate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gateway is outside of the user's subnet
    Explanation
    The problem is that the gateway address specified in the network adapter's configuration is outside of the user's subnet. This means that the gateway is not within the range of IP addresses that the user's device can communicate with. As a result, the user is unable to reach the internet even though the machine can still resolve internet names to IP addresses. To resolve this issue, the subnet mask should be changed to 255.255.255.128 so that the gateway falls within the user's subnet.

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  • 47. 

    What does the "Client for Microsoft Networks" item in a network adapter's connection properties provide?

    • A.

      Allows the machine to connect to Windows Shared resources by using Server Message Block (SMB)

    • B.

      Network connectivity. Without it, the adapter is no longer able to communicate with DNS servers running Windows

    • C.

      Provides an FTP client

    • D.

      Enables the sharing of folder over the network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allows the machine to connect to Windows Shared resources by using Server Message Block (SMB)
    Explanation
    The "Client for Microsoft Networks" item in a network adapter's connection properties allows the machine to connect to Windows Shared resources by using Server Message Block (SMB). This means that the machine can access files, folders, printers, and other shared resources on a Windows network. Without this client, the machine would not be able to connect to these shared resources and access the information or services they provide.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is NOT a reason why some devices can't be placed on the network map?

    • A.

      They lack the Link Layer Topology Discovery (LLTD) protocol

    • B.

      Network discovery is turned off

    • C.

      Firewall settings on the computer or network are preventing Windows from detecting the computer

    • D.

      The device is a domain memmber

    Correct Answer
    D. The device is a domain memmber
    Explanation
    Devices that are domain members can be placed on the network map, so this is not a reason why some devices can't be placed on the network map.

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  • 49. 

    What protocol provides automatic IP address configuration?

    • A.

      DNS

    • B.

      DHCP

    • C.

      ARP

    • D.

      TCP

    Correct Answer
    B. DHCP
    Explanation
    DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) provides automatic IP address configuration. DHCP allows devices to automatically obtain an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other network configuration settings from a DHCP server. This eliminates the need for manual configuration of IP addresses, making it easier to connect devices to a network. DNS (Domain Name System) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses, and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a communication protocol used for reliable and ordered delivery of data.

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  • 50. 

    One of the below IP address / subnet mask pairs is invalid; find the invalid answer.

    • A.

      10.0.239.254/255.0.255.0

    • B.

      172.31.1.200/255.255.0.0

    • C.

      192.168.2.190/255.255.255.128

    • D.

      10.200.139.1/255.255.255.248

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.0.239.254/255.0.255.0
    Explanation
    The given IP address/subnet mask pair 10.0.239.254/255.0.255.0 is invalid because the subnet mask is not in the correct format. Subnet masks should consist of consecutive 1s followed by consecutive 0s, but in this case, there are non-consecutive 0s in the subnet mask.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 03, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 01, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    E2D3
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