Pmkvy - Ftns Final Internal Assessment

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Pmkvy - Ftns Final Internal Assessment - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Your IT Company is constantly changing, with new users coming and going throughout the year. One of your common tasks requires the deletion of user accounts for employees who have left the company. Which command can be used to delete user accounts?

    • A.

      Dsmod

    • B.

      LDIFDE

    • C.

      Netsh

    • D.

      Dcpromo

    Correct Answer
    B. LDIFDE
    Explanation
    LDIFDE can be used to delete user accounts. LDIFDE stands for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Data Interchange Format Editor and it is a command-line tool used to import, export, and modify objects in Active Directory. In this scenario, since the task is to delete user accounts for employees who have left the company, LDIFDE can be used to remove those user accounts from the Active Directory.

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  • 2. 

    What type of DNS record is the record that points out the location of the mail server?

    • A.

      PTR

    • B.

      MX

    • C.

      SVR

    • D.

      SOA

    Correct Answer
    B. MX
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MX. MX stands for Mail Exchanger, and it is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail server responsible for accepting incoming email messages for a specific domain. It points out the location of the mail server, allowing email to be properly routed and delivered to the intended recipients.

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  • 3. 

    You install Active Directory on a server. You want it to be a separate domain that is part of an existing forest but containing a namespace separate from the forest where you are installing it. What is this type of domain called?

    • A.

      A replica

    • B.

      A child domain

    • C.

      A forest root

    • D.

      A tree root

    Correct Answer
    D. A tree root
    Explanation
    A tree root domain is a separate domain within an existing forest that has its own namespace separate from the forest where it is installed. This allows for the creation of a distinct domain structure within the forest, with its own unique domain name.

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  • 4. 

    You are installing Active Directory on a new domain controller and selecting options for placing the database and log files. Which of the following options would produce the optimum performance of these files? Each answer represents part of the solution..?

    • A.

      Placing them on the same NTFS partition

    • B.

      Ensuring plenty of hard disk space for these files to expand

    • C.

      Placing them on NTFS partitions located on separate physical disks

    • D.

      Restricting them to small partitions to control their size

    Correct Answer
    C. Placing them on NTFS partitions located on separate physical disks
    Explanation
    Placing the Active Directory database and log files on separate physical disks would result in optimum performance. This is because separating the files onto different disks allows for parallel read and write operations, reducing disk contention and improving overall performance. Additionally, by placing them on NTFS partitions, the files can benefit from the security and reliability features provided by the NTFS file system. Ensuring plenty of hard disk space for these files to expand is also important to prevent any potential issues caused by running out of disk space. Restricting them to small partitions may limit their size and potentially hinder their functionality.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is the most appropriate scenario where you would want to install a read-only domain controller?

    • A.

      In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum

    • B.

      In the head office near the receptionist’s desk

    • C.

      In the server room where the forest root domain is located and you need an optimum location for the schema master and domain naming master

    • D.

      In a branch office server room where you need to place the infrastructure master, RID master, and PDC emulator close to clients requiring their services

    Correct Answer
    A. In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum
    Explanation
    Installing a read-only domain controller (RODC) in a branch office with less than optimum physical security would be the most appropriate scenario. RODC is designed to enhance security in remote locations where the physical security of the server might be compromised. It allows organizations to deploy a domain controller without risking the exposure of sensitive information in case of theft or unauthorized access. By installing an RODC, the risk of compromising the entire domain is minimized, as it stores a read-only copy of the Active Directory database and does not allow any changes to be made locally.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following are valid domain and forest functional levels for a Windows Server 2008 domain?

    • A.

      Windows 2000 mixed

    • B.

      Windows 2000 native

    • C.

      Windows Server 2003 mixed

    • D.

      Windows Server 2003 /2008

    Correct Answer
    D. Windows Server 2003 /2008
    Explanation
    The valid domain and forest functional levels for a Windows Server 2008 domain include Windows Server 2003 /2008. This means that the domain and forest functional levels can be set to either Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008.

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  • 7. 

    How can you create a user object with the help of a single command?

    • A.

      The Dsadd command

    • B.

      The Create Method

    • C.

      The Create-item cmdlet

    • D.

      The set info method

    Correct Answer
    A. The Dsadd command
    Explanation
    The Dsadd command can be used to create a user object with a single command. This command is a command-line tool that is used to create objects in Active Directory, including user objects. By using the appropriate syntax and parameters, the Dsadd command allows administrators to quickly and efficiently create user objects without the need for multiple commands or manual configuration.

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  • 8. 

    You are the administrator of an active directory domain. A user complains to you that he is unable to change his password. No other users have this issue. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      Insufficient login credentials

    • B.

      He is a member of the Administrators group

    • C.

      He is not a member of the domain

    • D.

      The property “User cannot change password” has been enabled when it was created

    Correct Answer
    D. The property “User cannot change password” has been enabled when it was created
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the user's inability to change his password is that the property "User cannot change password" has been enabled when his account was created. This property restricts the user from changing their password, and since no other users are experiencing this issue, it suggests that it is specific to this user's account.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is arranged in the correct Active Directory organizational order (largest to smallest)?

    • A.

      Forest, Domain, Tree, Branch, Computer

    • B.

      Computer, Forest, Domain, Tree

    • C.

      Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer

    • D.

      Forest, Tree, Computer, Domain

    Correct Answer
    C. Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer
    Explanation
    The correct order for the Active Directory organizational structure is as follows: Forest is the highest level, containing multiple Trees. Each Tree contains multiple Domains. Finally, within each Domain, there are Computers. Therefore, the correct order is Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following groupings of linked domains would be a tree?

    • A.

      Mycorp.com and newcorp.com

    • B.

      Mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com

    • C.

      Marketing and Talent

    • D.

      Windows 2000 and Window NT

    Correct Answer
    B. Mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com
    Explanation
    The grouping of "mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com" would form a tree. This is because "newsite.mycorp.com" is a subdomain of "mycorp.com". In a tree structure, there is a hierarchical relationship between the nodes, where each node can have only one parent. In this case, "mycorp.com" would be the parent node and "newsite.mycorp.com" would be the child node. This grouping follows the tree structure as it has a clear parent-child relationship between the domains.

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  • 11. 

    A user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com may administer which of the following groupings?

    • A.

      Mycorp.com within the central USA site

    • B.

      Dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain

    • C.

      Austin.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain

    • D.

      Managers organizational unit within the dallas.mycorp.com Sales organizational unit

    Correct Answer
    B. Dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain
    Explanation
    The user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com can administer the grouping of dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain. This means they have administrative control over the specific domain dallas.mycorp.com, which is a subdomain of the larger mycorp.com domain. They do not have administrative control over the other groupings mentioned in the question.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following commands will force an update of group policy of computers on the domain Airtel?

    • A.

      GPUPDATE –airtel/all

    • B.

      GPFORCE /airtel

    • C.

      GPUPDATE /force –all

    • D.

      GPUPDATE /force

    Correct Answer
    D. GPUPDATE /force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GPUPDATE /force. This command is used to force an immediate update of group policy settings on a computer or a specific target. By using the /force parameter, all policies are reapplied, even if there are no changes since the last update. This ensures that any changes made to group policy settings on the domain Airtel are immediately applied to the computers within that domain.

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  • 13. 

    Groups are considered an organizing component of Active Directory

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Active Directory is a hierarchical directory service that is used to store information about network resources, such as users, groups, and computers, in a centralized database. While groups are an important component of Active Directory, they are not considered the organizing component. The organizing component of Active Directory is the Domain, which is a logical grouping of network resources that share a common directory database. Therefore, the statement that groups are considered the organizing component of Active Directory is false.

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  • 14. 

    You run the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role.  After the wizard is finished, you check the Administrative Tools folder but don't find any of the Active Directory management tools.  What should you do?

    • A.

      ADSI Edit

    • B.

      Run Dcpromo.exe

    • C.

      Global catalog

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Run Dcpromo.exe
    Explanation
    After running the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role, if the Active Directory management tools are not found in the Administrative Tools folder, the next step would be to run Dcpromo.exe. Dcpromo.exe is a command-line tool used to promote a server to a domain controller. Running this tool can help resolve the issue and make the Active Directory management tools available.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a container object?

    • A.

      Domain & OU

    • B.

      Users

    • C.

      Computers

    • D.

      Groups

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain & OU
    Explanation
    Domain & OU (Organizational Unit) are both container objects in a Windows Active Directory environment. They are used to organize and manage objects such as users, computers, and groups within a network. A domain is a logical grouping of network resources, while an OU is a subdivision within a domain that allows for further organization and delegation of administrative tasks.

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  • 16. 

    To which of the following can a GPO be linked?

    • A.

      Domains

    • B.

      Sites

    • C.

      Leaf object

    • D.

      Container object

    Correct Answer
    B. Sites
    Explanation
    A Group Policy Object (GPO) can be linked to sites in Active Directory. Sites in Active Directory represent physical locations or network segments within a domain. By linking a GPO to a site, the policy settings defined in the GPO will be applied to all objects within that site. This allows for more granular control and management of policies based on the physical location of the network.

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  • 17. 

    If a policy is defined in a GPO linked to a domain, and that policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to an OU, which is true by default?

    • A.

      The policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied

    • B.

      The policy setting in the GPO linked to the domain is applied

    • C.

      Neither policy setting is not applied, nor is an error message generated

    • D.

      The policy in both GPOs defaults to Not Defined so that no conflict exists

    Correct Answer
    A. The policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied
    Explanation
    When a policy is defined in a Group Policy Object (GPO) linked to an Organizational Unit (OU) and the same policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to a domain, the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU takes precedence by default. This means that the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU will be applied to the objects within that OU, overriding the policy setting in the GPO linked to the domain.

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  • 18. 

    The policy in both GPOs defaults to Not Defined so that no conflict exists

    • A.

      Similar to a list of information in a text file

    • B.

      Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it

    • C.

      A program for managing the user interface on a server

    • D.

      A program for managing folders, files, and permissions on a distributed server

    Correct Answer
    B. Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it
    Explanation
    The given answer suggests that the policy in both GPOs defaults to "Not Defined" in order to avoid any conflicts. This means that there are no specific settings defined in the GPOs, allowing the system to use its default settings. The explanation does not include the phrase "The correct answer is" as instructed.

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  • 19. 

    At about what interval are GPOs updated on domain controllers?

    • A.

      5 seconds

    • B.

      15 minutes

    • C.

      50 minutes

    • D.

      5 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 minutes
    Explanation
    GPOs (Group Policy Objects) are updated on domain controllers at approximately 15-minute intervals. This means that any changes made to GPOs will be propagated to the domain controllers within this timeframe. This interval allows for efficient and timely distribution of policy updates across the domain, ensuring that all client computers receive the latest policies and settings.

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  • 20. 

    When configuring GPOs, which node contains the majority of account policies?

    • A.

      Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node

    • B.

      Computer Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder, Windows Components node

    • C.

      The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder

    • D.

      The User Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node
    Explanation
    The majority of account policies can be found in the Computer Configuration node, specifically within the Windows Settings folder and the Security Settings node. This is where settings related to password policies, account lockout policies, and other security-related configurations are typically located. The Administrative Templates folder and the Windows Components node may contain other configuration options, but they do not specifically pertain to account policies. The User Configuration node and its folders are primarily used to configure settings for individual user accounts, rather than account policies in general.

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  • 21. 

    What are the two default GPOs that are created when Active Directory is installed?

    • A.

      Default Directory Policy and Default Domain Policy

    • B.

      Default Domain Controllers Policy and Default Directory Policy

    • C.

      Default Domain-Wide Policy and Default Active Directory Policy

    • D.

      Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy

    Correct Answer
    D. Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy
    Explanation
    When Active Directory is installed, two default Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are created: Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy. The Default Domain Policy is applied to all users and computers in the domain, while the Default Domain Controllers Policy is applied specifically to domain controllers. These GPOs define the default security and configuration settings for the domain and domain controllers, respectively.

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  • 22. 

    Under what circumstances are the built-in user accounts no longer local user accounts?

    • A.

      When accessing a network resource in a workgroup environment

    • B.

      After installing Active Directory

    • C.

      This is impossible; built-in user accounts cannot be converted

    • D.

      When using dsadd on the built-in accounts

    Correct Answer
    B. After installing Active Directory
    Explanation
    After installing Active Directory, the built-in user accounts are no longer local user accounts. Active Directory is a directory service that centralizes the management of network resources, including user accounts, in a domain environment. When Active Directory is installed, it replaces the local user accounts with domain user accounts, which are managed by the Active Directory domain controller. Therefore, the built-in user accounts become domain user accounts rather than local user accounts.

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  • 23. 

    After receiving several support calls, you have decided to prevent users of the DomA-Group from being able to access the Control Panel regardless of what machine they log into. Where would you configure this setting?

    • A.

      The User Configuration node, Windows Settings folder

    • B.

      The Computer Configuration node, Administrative templates folder

    • C.

      The Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder

    • D.

      The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder

    Correct Answer
    D. The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder
    Explanation
    In order to prevent users of the DomA-Group from accessing the Control Panel regardless of the machine they log into, you would need to configure this setting in the User Configuration node, specifically in the Administrative Templates folder. This folder contains various policy settings that can be applied to user accounts. By configuring the appropriate policy setting within this folder, you can restrict access to the Control Panel for users belonging to the DomA-Group.

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  • 24. 

    An Active Directory container used to organize a network’s users and resources into logical administrative units

    • A.

      Organizational Units

    • B.

      Users Units

    • C.

      Container object

    • D.

      Leaf object

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational Units
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Organizational Units. Organizational Units are a type of Active Directory container that are used to organize a network's users and resources into logical administrative units. They provide a way to manage and delegate administrative tasks within a network by grouping related objects together. Organizational Units help to simplify the management of users, groups, computers, and other network resources, allowing administrators to apply policies, permissions, and other settings at a more granular level.

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  • 25. 

    The main purpose of Active Directory is to ________.

    • A.

      Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers

    • B.

      Provide File and Print services

    • C.

      Give administrators the ability to control access to restricted hardware

    • D.

      Allow users to organize their file systems into a cohesive and high performance directory

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers
    Explanation
    Active Directory is a directory service developed by Microsoft that provides authentication and authorization to users and computers in a network. It allows administrators to manage and control access to resources, such as files, folders, and printers, by assigning permissions and policies. Active Directory ensures that only authorized users can access specific resources and helps maintain the security and integrity of the network. Therefore, its main purpose is to provide authentication and authorization to users and computers.

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  • 26. 

    What is the address given to a computer connected to a network called?

    • A.

      System Address

    • B.

      SYSID

    • C.

      Process ID

    • D.

      Structure

    Correct Answer
    D. Structure
    Explanation
    The address given to a computer connected to a network is called a structure. This term refers to the organization and arrangement of components within a computer system. In the context of networking, a structure is used to define the format and layout of data packets sent over the network. It helps in organizing and managing the various components and protocols involved in network communication.

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  • 27. 

    The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called:

    • A.

      Assembly language programs

    • B.

      Firmware

    • C.

      BASIC interpreter instructions

    • D.

      Flowchart instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Assembly language programs
    Explanation
    Assembly language programs are the software used to drive microprocessor-based systems. Assembly language is a low-level programming language that uses mnemonic codes to represent machine instructions. It is specific to a particular processor architecture and provides a way to directly control the hardware of a microprocessor. Assembly language programs are closer to the machine code and allow for efficient and precise control over the system's operations. Firmware refers to software that is embedded in a device's hardware and is responsible for controlling its functions. BASIC interpreter instructions and flowchart instructions are not specific to microprocessor-based systems and are not commonly used for driving them.

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  • 28. 

    A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a:

    • A.

      CPU

    • B.

      Compiler

    • C.

      Microcomputer

    • D.

      ALU

    Correct Answer
    C. Microcomputer
    Explanation
    A microcomputer is formed by the combination of a microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit. The microprocessor unit is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations, the memory unit stores data and instructions, and the input/output unit allows the microcomputer to interact with external devices. Therefore, a microcomputer is the correct answer as it encompasses all three components mentioned.

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  • 29. 

    Index hole is related to?

    • A.

      Hard disk

    • B.

      Floppy disk

    • C.

      Printer

    • D.

      CPU

    Correct Answer
    D. CPU
    Explanation
    The index hole is related to the CPU. In older computer systems, the index hole was a physical hole or notch on the edge of a punched card or paper tape that was used to mark the beginning of a new line or record. When the hole passed through a sensor, it triggered the CPU to start processing the next line or record of data. This indexing mechanism was commonly used in early computer systems to read and process data from punched cards or paper tapes.

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  • 30. 

    Secondry memory is also know as?

    • A.

      Auxiliary memory

    • B.

      Primery memory

    • C.

      Virtual memory

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Auxiliary memory
    Explanation
    Secondary memory is also known as auxiliary memory because it is used to store data and programs that are not currently being used by the computer's processor. It provides additional storage capacity and is typically slower than primary memory (such as RAM). Auxiliary memory devices include hard disk drives, solid-state drives, optical drives, and magnetic tape drives. These devices allow for long-term storage of data and programs, even when the computer is turned off. Therefore, the correct answer is "Auxiliary memory".

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  • 31. 

    It holds the address of the active memory?

    • A.

      MAR

    • B.

      MBR

    • C.

      PC

    • D.

      AR

    Correct Answer
    A. MAR
    Explanation
    MAR stands for Memory Address Register. It is a hardware component in a computer that holds the address of the memory location that is currently being accessed or written to. The MAR is responsible for sending the memory address to the memory unit, allowing the CPU to read or write data from or to that specific memory location. Therefore, the statement "It holds the address of the active memory" accurately describes the function of the MAR.

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  • 32. 

    In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed

    • A.

      Parallel only

    • B.

      Sequentially only

    • C.

      Both sequentially and parallel

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both sequentially and parallel
    Explanation
    In the latest generation computers, instructions are executed both sequentially and in parallel. This means that some instructions are executed one after the other in a sequential manner, while other instructions are executed simultaneously in parallel. This allows for faster processing and improved performance, as multiple tasks can be performed at the same time. Sequential execution ensures that instructions are executed in the correct order, while parallel execution allows for efficient utilization of resources and faster completion of tasks.

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  • 33. 

    Which printer is very commonly used for desktop publishing?

    • A.

      Laser printer

    • B.

      Inkjet printer

    • C.

      Daisywheel printer

    • D.

      Dot matrix printer

    Correct Answer
    A. Laser printer
    Explanation
    A laser printer is commonly used for desktop publishing because it offers high-quality printing with sharp and precise text and graphics. It uses a laser beam to create an electrostatic image on a drum, which is then transferred onto paper using toner. Laser printers are known for their fast printing speed, high resolution, and ability to handle complex documents. They are widely used in offices and professional settings where high-quality printing is required for desktop publishing tasks.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location?

    • A.

      It will add to the content of the location

    • B.

      It will change the address of the memory location

    • C.

      It will erase the previous content

    • D.

      It will not be fruitful if there is already some data at the location

    Correct Answer
    C. It will erase the previous content
    Explanation
    When data is entered into a memory location, it will erase the previous content. This means that the new data will replace whatever was previously stored in that memory location. The previous content will be overwritten and no longer accessible.

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  • 35. 

    ____ is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network.

    • A.

      NNTP

    • B.

      NTP

    • C.

      PING

    • D.

      ARP

    Correct Answer
    B. NTP
    Explanation
    NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. It allows computers to accurately maintain the same time by exchanging time information with NTP servers. This synchronization is important for various network applications that rely on accurate timekeeping, such as transaction processing, logging, and authentication. NTP uses a hierarchical structure of time servers to ensure accuracy and reliability in time synchronization across the network.

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  • 36. 

    A ____ is a repeater with more than one output port

    • A.

      Bridge

    • B.

      Switch

    • C.

      hub

    • D.

      Router

    Correct Answer
    C. hub
    Explanation
    A hub is a repeater with more than one output port. A hub is a networking device that is used to connect multiple devices in a local area network (LAN). It receives data packets from one port and broadcasts them to all other ports, allowing all connected devices to receive the data. Therefore, a hub is the correct answer because it acts as a repeater with multiple output ports.

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  • 37. 

    ____ are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks.

    • A.

      Routers

    • B.

      Switches

    • C.

      Gateways

    • D.

      Broadcast domains

    Correct Answer
    C. Gateways
    Explanation
    Gateways are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks. Unlike routers and switches, which primarily connect networks of the same kind, gateways are specifically designed to bridge the gap between different types of networks. They can translate protocols, perform data format conversions, and enable communication between networks that use different technologies or standards. Gateways are essential for connecting networks with different architectures, such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the internet.

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  • 38. 

    A physical topology ____.

    • A.

      Specifies device types

    • B.

      Depicts a network in broad scope

    • C.

      Specifies connectivity methods

    • D.

      Specifies addressing schemes

    Correct Answer
    B. Depicts a network in broad scope
    Explanation
    A physical topology refers to the layout or arrangement of devices in a network, such as how they are connected and the physical paths that data takes. It does not specify device types, connectivity methods, or addressing schemes. Instead, it focuses on providing a high-level overview of the network structure, showing how devices are physically connected and organized. Therefore, the correct answer is "depicts a network in broad scope."

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  • 39. 

    The most common logical topologies are ____ and ring.

    • A.

      Bus

    • B.

      Star

    • C.

      Wired

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus
    Explanation
    The most common logical topologies are bus and ring. A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a central cable called a bus. Data is transmitted along the bus to all connected devices, and each device receives the data and checks if it is intended for them. This topology is simple and cost-effective, but if the bus cable fails, the entire network can go down. A ring topology, on the other hand, connects devices in a circular manner, where each device is connected to two neighboring devices. Data travels around the ring in one direction, and each device receives and passes on the data until it reaches its destination.

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  • 40. 

    NICs contain a(n) ____ which transmits and receives data signals.

    • A.

      Keyboard port

    • B.

      Mouse port

    • C.

      Data transceiver

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    C. Data transceiver
    Explanation
    NICs (Network Interface Cards) are hardware devices that allow computers to connect to a network. They contain a data transceiver, which is responsible for transmitting and receiving data signals between the computer and the network. This transceiver enables the computer to send and receive data packets over the network, allowing for communication and data transfer. Therefore, the correct answer is "data transceiver".

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  • 41. 

    TCP is a(n)___ sub protocol.

    • A.

      Open-ended

    • B.

      indiscriminating

    • C.

      Connection-oriented

    • D.

      Connectionless

    Correct Answer
    C. Connection-oriented
    Explanation
    TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a connection-oriented sub protocol. This means that it establishes a reliable and ordered connection between two devices before data transmission occurs. TCP ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and handles retransmission of lost or corrupted packets. This connection-oriented approach guarantees a reliable and error-free data transfer, making TCP suitable for applications that require data integrity, such as web browsing, email, and file transfers.

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  • 42. 

    Traditional switches operate at the ____ layer of the OSI model.

    • A.

      Physical

    • B.

      Data link

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Session

    Correct Answer
    B. Data link
    Explanation
    Traditional switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model. The data link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two directly connected nodes over a physical link. Switches use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN) by examining the destination MAC address in the data link layer header. Therefore, the data link layer is the correct layer at which traditional switches operate.

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  • 43. 

    The sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork - that is, to traverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network throughout a router is ____

    • A.

      TCP

    • B.

      ICMP

    • C.

      UDP

    • D.

      IP

    Correct Answer
    D. IP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IP. IP (Internet Protocol) is the sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork. It allows data packets to be sent across multiple LAN segments and different types of networks through routers. IP provides the necessary addressing and routing functions to ensure that data reaches its intended destination across the internet. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is responsible for establishing reliable connections between devices, ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network diagnostics and error reporting, and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol used for faster data transmission without error-checking.

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  • 44. 

    By far, the most popular expansion board NIC today is one that uses a(n) ____ bus.

    • A.

      Onboard

    • B.

      PCIe

    • C.

      ExpressCard

    • D.

      ISA

    Correct Answer
    B. PCIe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PCIe. PCIe stands for Peripheral Component Interconnect Express, which is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard. It is currently the most popular expansion board NIC (Network Interface Controller) because it offers faster data transfer rates compared to other bus standards like ISA or ExpressCard. PCIe provides improved performance and scalability, making it the preferred choice for modern computer systems.

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  • 45. 

    To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the ____.

    • A.

      RIP (Routing Information Protocol)

    • B.

      STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

    • C.

      BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

    • D.

      OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) protocol

    Correct Answer
    B. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
    Explanation
    To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). STP is a network protocol that prevents loops in a network topology by creating a loop-free logical topology. It achieves this by selectively blocking redundant paths and allowing only one active path between any two network devices. By doing so, STP ensures that broadcast frames and other network traffic do not endlessly circulate in the network, thereby preventing a broadcast storm.

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  • 46. 

    In IPv4 addressing, a node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class ____ network.

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    A node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class B network. In IPv4 addressing, the first octet of the IP address determines the class of the network. Class B networks have a range of IP addresses from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, and the first octet falls within this range.

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  • 47. 

    The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.

    • A.

      255.0.0.0

    • B.

      255.255.0.0

    • C.

      255.255.255.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    B. 255.255.0.0
    Explanation
    The default subnet mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. Class B networks have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 because they have a network portion of 16 bits and a host portion of 16 bits. This allows for a maximum of 65,534 hosts on each network.

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  • 48. 

    On an Ethenet network, a(n) ____ is the portion of a network in which collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time.

    • A.

      Collision domain

    • B.

      Crash domain

    • C.

      Interference domain

    • D.

      Duplicate domain

    Correct Answer
    A. Collision domain
    Explanation
    A collision domain is the portion of a network where collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time. In other words, it is the area where packets from different devices can collide and cause data loss or corruption. This can happen in Ethernet networks when multiple devices are connected to a shared medium, such as a hub or a half-duplex switch. In a collision domain, devices must follow the CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) protocol to avoid collisions by checking for activity on the network before transmitting data.

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  • 49. 

    A ____ is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network

    • A.

      Switch

    • B.

      Bridge

    • C.

      Router

    • D.

      Gateway

    Correct Answer
    C. Router
    Explanation
    A router is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network. Unlike switches and bridges, routers are designed to connect multiple networks together and determine the best path for data to travel. Routers use routing tables to make decisions about where to send data packets based on their destination IP addresses. Gateways, on the other hand, are devices that connect different types of networks together, such as a local area network (LAN) to the internet. Therefore, a router is the correct answer as it specifically directs data between nodes on a network.

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  • 50. 

    In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique ____ number

    • A.

      12-bit

    • B.

      32-bit

    • C.

      64-bit

    • D.

      128-bit

    Correct Answer
    B. 32-bit
    Explanation
    In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique 32-bit number. This means that IPv4 addresses are composed of 32 binary digits or bits, which are divided into four groups of eight bits each, known as octets. Each octet is represented in decimal form, ranging from 0 to 255, and is separated by periods. This addressing scheme allows for approximately 4.3 billion unique IP addresses to be assigned.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 31, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 15, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Kathul.anand
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