JCAHO Regulations Questions! Trivia Quiz

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Questions: 16 | Attempts: 3,029

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JCAHO Regulations Questions! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Physicians can remove Isolation Precautions as long as you have a written order on the chart.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Isolation precautions are typically implemented to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Physicians cannot simply remove isolation precautions based on a written order alone. The decision to remove isolation precautions should be based on clinical judgment, assessment of the patient's condition, and consultation with infection control experts. A written order may be part of the process, but it is not the sole determining factor for removing isolation precautions. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 2. 

    An admission Medication Reconciliation must be completed within what time frame?

    • A.

      30 minutes

    • B.

      12 hours

    • C.

      24 hours

    • D.

      Prior to being admitted to the floor from ED

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 hours
    Explanation
    An admission Medication Reconciliation must be completed within 24 hours. This process involves comparing the medications a patient was taking before admission with the medications they will be receiving in the hospital. It helps to ensure that there are no discrepancies or errors in the medication list, which could lead to adverse effects or drug interactions. Completing this reconciliation within 24 hours allows healthcare providers to promptly address any issues and provide safe and appropriate medication management for the patient.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is the correct patient identification process?

    • A.

      Compare name & DOB on armband with MAR, labslip or diet slip on food tray and ask the patient their name & DOB

    • B.

      Ask the patient their name & DOB

    • C.

      Compare name & DOB on armband with MAR, labslip or diet slip on food tray

    Correct Answer
    A. Compare name & DOB on armband with MAR, labslip or diet slip on food tray and ask the patient their name & DOB
    Explanation
    The correct patient identification process is to compare the name and date of birth (DOB) on the armband with the medication administration record (MAR), labslip, or diet slip on the food tray. Additionally, it is important to ask the patient their name and DOB to confirm their identity. This process ensures that the correct patient is receiving the correct medication or treatment and helps prevent any potential errors or mix-ups.

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  • 4. 

    When must you label your medications? (i.e. syringes, IVPB)

    • A.

      If you have more than one medication

    • B.

      Anytime you transfer a medication from its original container

    • C.

      Only if it is an IV or IM medication

    Correct Answer
    B. Anytime you transfer a medication from its original container
    Explanation
    You must label your medications anytime you transfer a medication from its original container. This is important to ensure that the medication is properly identified and to avoid any confusion or mistakes in administration. Labeling the medication also helps to provide important information such as the name of the medication, dosage, and expiration date. By labeling the medication, you can maintain proper medication management and ensure patient safety.

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  • 5. 

    How are patient's advised of their rights and how to report any concerns?

    Correct Answer
    Patient Rights and Responsibilities Brochure
    Admission paperwork
    Explanation
    The patient's rights and how to report concerns are typically communicated through the Patient Rights and Responsibilities Brochure and the admission paperwork. The brochure provides detailed information about the patient's rights, including their right to quality care, privacy, and the right to voice concerns or complaints. The admission paperwork may also include a section that outlines the patient's rights and provides instructions on how to report any concerns or grievances. These documents ensure that patients are informed about their rights and know how to address any issues that may arise during their healthcare experience.

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  • 6. 

    If you receive a telephone order and repeat it back as you write it down, is that acceptable?

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes
    Explanation
    Repeating back a telephone order as you write it down is acceptable because it ensures accuracy and minimizes the chances of miscommunication or errors in the order. By repeating the order, you can confirm with the customer that you have correctly understood their request, providing them with reassurance that their order will be accurate. Additionally, it allows for any necessary clarifications or corrections to be made before finalizing the order. Overall, this practice helps to maintain customer satisfaction and avoid any potential misunderstandings.

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  • 7. 

    When must you verify a patient's identity?

    • A.

      Prior to giving medications

    • B.

      Prior to providing a meal or snack

    • C.

      Prior to emptying a foley collection bag

    • D.

      Prior to collecting a blood sample

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Prior to giving medications
    B. Prior to providing a meal or snack
    D. Prior to collecting a blood sample
    Explanation
    A patient's identity must be verified prior to giving medications, providing a meal or snack, and collecting a blood sample to ensure that the correct patient receives the correct treatment or procedure. This helps prevent medication errors, food allergies or dietary restrictions from being overlooked, and blood samples from being mislabeled or mixed up. Verification of identity is a crucial step in maintaining patient safety and ensuring accurate and effective healthcare delivery.

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  • 8. 

    PASS stands for....

    • A.

      Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

    • B.

      Point, Aim, Squeeze, Stand

    • C.

      Point, Alarm, Stand, Sweep

    • D.

      Pull, Alarm, Squeeze, Sweep

    Correct Answer
    A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep." This is the correct sequence of actions to follow when using a fire extinguisher. "Pull" refers to pulling the pin to activate the extinguisher, "Aim" means aiming the nozzle at the base of the fire, "Squeeze" indicates squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and "Sweep" means sweeping the nozzle from side to side to extinguish the fire.

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  • 9. 

    The "R" in RACE stands for

    Correct Answer
    Rescue
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Rescue" because in the acronym RACE, each letter represents a step in the fire safety protocol. R stands for "Rescue" which means to prioritize the safety of individuals by rescuing them from the danger zone. This step emphasizes the importance of promptly evacuating people who are in immediate danger during a fire emergency.

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  • 10. 

    Contact Precautions is implemented for

    • A.

      MRSA

    • B.

      C-Diff

    • C.

      Positive Blood Cultures

    • D.

      TB

    Correct Answer
    A. MRSA
    Explanation
    Contact Precautions are implemented for MRSA because it is a highly contagious infection caused by the bacteria Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. These precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection to other individuals. MRSA can be transmitted through direct contact with an infected person or through contact with contaminated objects or surfaces. Implementing Contact Precautions involves using personal protective equipment such as gloves and gowns, practicing proper hand hygiene, and isolating the infected individual to minimize the risk of transmission.

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  • 11. 

    Advanced Directives should be addressed.

    Correct Answer
    at admission
    upon admission
    admission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "at admission, upon admission, admission". This means that advanced directives should be discussed and addressed when a person is admitted to a facility or healthcare setting. It is important to have these conversations early on to ensure that the person's wishes and preferences regarding their medical care and treatment are known and respected. By addressing advanced directives at admission, healthcare providers can provide the appropriate care that aligns with the individual's wishes.

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  • 12. 

    The number one step health care professionals can take to prevent infection is

    Correct Answer
    handwashing
    hand-washing
    washing hands
    wash your hands
    wash their hands
    Explanation
    The most effective measure that health care professionals can take to prevent infection is to wash their hands regularly. By washing their hands, they can remove any potential pathogens that may be present on their hands, reducing the risk of transmitting infections to themselves or others. Handwashing is a simple yet crucial practice in maintaining proper hygiene and preventing the spread of diseases in healthcare settings.

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  • 13. 

    Code Brown means

    Correct Answer
    Severe weather
    bad weather
    Explanation
    "Code Brown" is a term commonly used in emergency management and healthcare facilities to indicate a hazardous situation involving severe weather or bad weather conditions. It is a code that alerts staff and personnel to take necessary precautions and actions to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals within the facility. This can include measures such as sheltering in place, evacuation, or implementing emergency protocols to mitigate the impact of the severe or bad weather.

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  • 14. 

    Who can turn off medical gas?

    • A.

      Charge nurse

    • B.

      AOD

    • C.

      Respiratory Therapist

    • D.

      Primary Nurse

    • E.

      Physician

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Charge nurse
    C. Respiratory Therapist
    Explanation
    The charge nurse and the respiratory therapist are both qualified individuals who can turn off medical gas. The charge nurse is responsible for overseeing the nursing staff and coordinating patient care, so they have the authority to make decisions regarding medical equipment and procedures. The respiratory therapist specializes in respiratory care and is trained to handle medical gases. The primary nurse and physician may have knowledge about medical gases, but they may not have the specific training or authority to turn them off.

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  • 15. 

    Where would you find information about chemicals used within the hospital?

    Correct Answer(s)
    MSDS sheets
    Material Safety Data Sheets
    Explanation
    MSDS sheets, also known as Material Safety Data Sheets, provide detailed information about the chemicals used within the hospital. These sheets contain information about the chemical's properties, hazards, handling, storage, and emergency procedures. They are essential for ensuring the safety of staff and patients and for complying with regulations regarding the use and handling of hazardous substances.

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  • 16. 

    What is the expected turn-around time to report critical test results to the physician/ARNP/PA?

    • A.

      30 minutes

    • B.

      60 minutes

    • C.

      90 minutes

    • D.

      12 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 minutes
    Explanation
    The expected turn-around time to report critical test results to the physician/ARNP/PA is 60 minutes. This means that once the critical test results are available, they should be reported to the healthcare provider within an hour. This quick turnaround time is crucial in order to ensure prompt and appropriate medical intervention for patients with critical results.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 11, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Laurahendrix

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