Test #7 Good Luck

151 Questions
Luck Quizzes & Trivia

Test #7 Good luck

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    How many characters are in a VIN on all vehicles after 1981
    • A. 

      18

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      21

    • D. 

      17

  • 2. 
    Which letters are never used in a VIN after 1981
    • A. 

      I,O,Y

    • B. 

      I,Q,O

    • C. 

      F,U,K, & U

    • D. 

      R,S,Y

  • 3. 
    Bob at a local motel lets a man named Joker use his car.  Joker still has not returned the vehicle after 4 hours.  What is the correct procedure?
    • A. 

      This is considered a breach of trust, write a report and forward it on to the Auto theft detective.

    • B. 

      Put a warrant out for the Joker

    • C. 

      This is not considered a breach of trust, This is considered grand theft auto.

  • 4. 
    If the vehicle was originally reported stolen to SLCPD and is later recovered by SLCPD, you need to write an Original report for the recovery.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    If a car is impounded as a recovered stolen vehicle, the car shall be removed to the city impound lot and;
    • A. 

      Held for owner

    • B. 

      Held for Detective

    • C. 

      Held for the state

    • D. 

      Held for Hitler

  • 6. 
    Notice of impoundment and right to and impound hearing is used for state impound.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Intentionally damages, defaces or destroys the property of another is;
    • A. 

      Criminal mischief

    • B. 

      Defacing of property

    • C. 

      Criminal vandalism

    • D. 

      Vandalism

  • 8. 
    While mowing his lawn, Jose's mower throws a rock into the car window of his neighbor's car.  His neighbor wants Jose cited for criminal mischief.  Can Jose be cited?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 9. 
    When performing a ____ _______, you must issue the owner, operator notice of impoundment and notice of impoundment right to hearing form.
  • 10. 
    If the owner of a stolen recovered vehicle cannot be contacted, who performs the tow?
    • A. 

      State tow

    • B. 

      City tow

    • C. 

      Next in line tow

  • 11. 
    A stolen recovered vehicle is held for;
    • A. 

      Owner

    • B. 

      City

    • C. 

      Investigator

    • D. 

      Puddin'

  • 12. 
    If a vehicle is disabled from an accident scene, how will it be removed?
    • A. 

      City tow

    • B. 

      State tow

    • C. 

      Next in line tow

  • 13. 
    Choose all that apply:  In regards to Burglary, Enter means;
    • A. 

      Intrusion of the body

    • B. 

      To enter into a dwelling with the intent to take a nap

    • C. 

      Intrusion of any physical object in control of the actor

  • 14. 
    What is the penalty for burglary of a dwelling?
    • A. 

      3 degree felony

    • B. 

      Class A misdemeanor

    • C. 

      1st degree felony

    • D. 

      2nd degree felony

  • 15. 
    What is the penalty for burglary not in a dwelling?
    • A. 

      2nd degree felony

    • B. 

      2nd degree misdemeanor

    • C. 

      1st degree felony

    • D. 

      3rd degree felony

  • 16. 
    Aggravated burglary is a:
    • A. 

      Felony in the 1st degree

    • B. 

      Felony in the 2nd degree

    • C. 

      Felony in the 3rd degree

  • 17. 
    Puddin's ex girlfriend is mad that he broke up with her. She is so upset, she enters Puddin's Mom's house, smashes the photo of Puddin and his mom riding the wild roller coaster in Disneyland.  She then runs up to his room, throws all of his nicely folded laundry that his mom folded while he was at school and then rips up all of his Star Wars posters.  All of the damage totals $2300.  Is this considered a burglary?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 18. 
    A suspect entered Sears during normal business hours, hides in the dressing room and then when the store closes he steals a watch and sneaks out.  Is this a burglary?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 19. 
    Some retard smashes a window of a Jewelry store, reaches in and takes some jewelry.  Is this a Burglary?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 20. 
    A construction company warehouse has a fence surrounding their construction yard.  During the night, some douche bag cut the fence and stole some items in the yard.  Is this a burglary?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 21. 
    Follow up investigations is often needed to strengthen a case, but it never helps prevent future activity.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Prints are lifted during a burglary.  When the prints are run which database will be used to run the prints?
    • A. 

      AFIS

    • B. 

      UCJS

    • C. 

      NCIC

    • D. 

      FCIC

  • 23. 
    An Officer on the scene of an Aggravated assault involving a shotgun that was left in the house will need the following tests on the shotgun. choose all that apply:
    • A. 

      Semen DNA testing

    • B. 

      Fingerprints

    • C. 

      Blood test

    • D. 

      Mettallurgical test

  • 24. 
    During a search warrant, stolen items are run on the state database, where else can you look to run the stolen items.
    • A. 

      Check with other jurisdictions

    • B. 

      Local database

    • C. 

      Question the suspect

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 25. 
    Choose all that apply: An officer wants to check if property is stolen, he runs it on state and local systems, he must provide:
    • A. 

      Product name

    • B. 

      Description

    • C. 

      Serial number

    • D. 

      Size

  • 26. 
    An Officer may be able to tell the value of an item by pawn listings, Pawn shops are not required to keep a list of items pawned.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    Which case law allows the fire department to remain on scene as long as reasonable without a warrant:
    • A. 

      Michigan vs Mary Tyler Moore

    • B. 

      Hollifield vs Tyson

    • C. 

      Michigan vs Tyler

    • D. 

      Brown Vs Texas

  • 28. 
    A building on fire is a building being demolished.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    Choose all that apply: Classification of the cause of a fire:
    • A. 

      Accidental

    • B. 

      Natural

    • C. 

      Incendiary

    • D. 

      Undetermined

    • E. 

      Unintentional

  • 30. 
    Choose all that apply: The ignition processes involve what three components:
    • A. 

      Generation

    • B. 

      Air Generation

    • C. 

      Transmission

    • D. 

      Initial fire

    • E. 

      Heating

  • 31. 
    The first material ignited is the initial fuel beyond your initial source.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    When you pull over a motorcyclist, should you usually have them stay on the bike?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 33. 
    You cannot pull over a UTA bus driver.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    When approaching a stopped vehicle, you should have your flashlight in your weapon hand.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    On a traffic stop, what should you do if the violator wants to argue and dispute the ticket?
    • A. 

      Tell them that they need to respect your Authoritahhh

    • B. 

      Explain to them how to dispute the citation through the proper channels

    • C. 

      Use your taser

    • D. 

      If they refuse to sign the citation make the arrest

  • 36. 
    What color of ink should you use when writing a citation?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Black

    • D. 

      Green

    • E. 

      Mauve

  • 37. 
    Before giving the violator the citation what should you do?
    • A. 

      Ask them for some money

    • B. 

      Proof read the citation

    • C. 

      Practice dry firing toward the violators vehicle

  • 38. 
    On a traffic stop when asking for Identification a person hands you their wallet, what should you do?
    • A. 

      Take the wallet and retrieve the identification

    • B. 

      Refuse to take the wallet, have them to retrieve their own I.D.

    • C. 

      Check the wallet for Benjamins

  • 39. 
    On a traffic stop you should make sure your doors are locked.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    Choose all that apply: What are the knife defense principles?
    • A. 

      -Do not use empty hand skills if other options are available. -Respect the blade. -Expect to get cut and do not stop.

    • B. 

      -Do not use empty hand skills if other options are available. -Attack blade with blade -Expect to get cut and do not stop.

    • C. 

      -Move fast and be dynamic. -Control the delivery system. -Attack the attacker.

    • D. 

      -Move slow and be deliberate. -Control the delivery system.

    • E. 

      -Use only groin strikes -Use empty hand skills. -Control the delivery system.

  • 41. 
    Hidden hands Hands in palming position Wandering eyes Glazed stare Unsnapping velcro Clicking of a blade Subtle hand movements Sudden arm movements Stance Subject profile Are all examples of?
    • A. 

      Elevated threats

    • B. 

      Danger cues

    • C. 

      Settings of aquistion

    • D. 

      Ways to describe Peterson

  • 42. 
    You are statistically more likely to die in a gun fight than in a knife fight.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 43. 
    What are your chances of survival for a gun fight and what are your chances for survival in a knife fight?
    • A. 

      Chance of a gunshot survival 75% Chance of a knife wound survival 55%

    • B. 

      Chance of a gunshot survival 65% Chance of a knife wound survival 45%

    • C. 

      Chance of a gunshot survival 85% Chance of a knife wound survival 65%

    • D. 

      Chance of a gunshot survival 25% Chance of a knife wound survival 45%

  • 44. 
    What does A.C.T. stand for?
    • A. 

      Alice Craps Tangareens

    • B. 

      Acting Creative Traditions

    • C. 

      Active Crunchy Toots

    • D. 

      Angry Cat Titties

    • E. 

      Avoid Control Takedown

  • 45. 
    Choose all that apply: What are the three types of vehicle stops?
    • A. 

      Traffic

    • B. 

      Instructive

    • C. 

      High Risk

    • D. 

      Investigative

  • 46. 
    What areas should you try to avoid when stopping a vehicle
    • A. 

      Bridges

    • B. 

      Minnesota

    • C. 

      High pedestrian traffic

    • D. 

      Heavy traffic

    • E. 

      Blind curves

  • 47. 
    What is the proper way to call out a traffic stop?
    • A. 

      Call number, plate, Location

    • B. 

      Plate, Location, Call number

    • C. 

      Location, plate Call number

    • D. 

      Call number, Location, plate

  • 48. 
    When pulling over a vehicle, What is the ideal distance your vehicle should be away from the other vehicle?
    • A. 

      21-25 Ft

    • B. 

      17-19 Ft

    • C. 

      25-31 Ft

    • D. 

      61-85 Ft

  • 49. 
    What are the two different ways to approach a vehicle?
    • A. 

      Driver side and Passenger Side

    • B. 

      Driver side and Rear of vehicle

    • C. 

      Rear of vehicle and passenger side

    • D. 

      Passenger side and Moon roof

  • 50. 
    When going to Channel 4, should you let main channel know?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 51. 
    What are the 4 types of evidence?
    • A. 

      Real/Physical, Testimonial, Circumstantial, Demonstrative.

    • B. 

      Real/Physical, Testimonial, Circumspective, Demonstrative.

    • C. 

      Real/Physical, Testimonial, Circumstantial, Declarative.

    • D. 

      Fake/Philanthropic, Testimonial, Circumstantial, Demonstrative.

  • 52. 
    A Witness takes the stand, is placed under oath and answers questions. Is what type of evidence?
    • A. 

      Real/Physical

    • B. 

      Testimonial

    • C. 

      Circumstantial

    • D. 

      Demonstrative

  • 53. 
    It tends to prove a fact indirectly through inference, deduction, or a conclusion. Is what type of evidence?
    • A. 

      Testimonial

    • B. 

      Real/Physical

    • C. 

      Circumstantial

    • D. 

      Demonstrative

  • 54. 
    _______________ evidence consists of items that demonstrate or illustrate something to the jury such as models, charts, and graphic aids.
    • A. 

      Real/Physical

    • B. 

      Testimonial

    • C. 

      Circumstantial

    • D. 

      Demonstrative

  • 55. 
    When ______ _______ is taken of a fact, the court must declare its knowledge as a matter of law to the jury, which must then accept the fact as proven.
    • A. 

      Demonstrative Notice

    • B. 

      Judicial notice

    • C. 

      Testimonial Notice

    • D. 

      Circumstantial evidence

  • 56. 
    In a criminal proceeding, the jury has the option to disregard the judicially noticed fact.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
    Evidence must be _____________ to be admissible
    • A. 

      Real/Physical

    • B. 

      Conclusive

    • C. 

      Relevant

    • D. 

      Proven

  • 58. 
    Choose all that apply: Evidence is always relevant if it tends to:
    • A. 

      Prove or disprove an element of the criminal charges

    • B. 

      Prove or rebut a defense

    • C. 

      Disregard the judicially noticed fact

    • D. 

      Concerns the credibility (believability) of the witness

  • 59. 
    LEO's must find and collect all evidence because what might not appear relevant now may become relevant later.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 60. 
    The ____ decides whether a witness is credible and can elect to believe all, nothing or part of what a witness says.
    • A. 

      Judge

    • B. 

      Jury

    • C. 

      Witnesses

    • D. 

      Defense Attorney

  • 61. 
    A Witness must testify on ________ _________, not speculation or guessing
    • A. 

      Personal Testimony

    • B. 

      Testimonial viability

    • C. 

      Your Mom

    • D. 

      Personal knowledge

  • 62. 
    If evidence is not legally obtained, it will be subject to ___________.
    • A. 

      Expulsion

    • B. 

      Suppression

    • C. 

      Violation

    • D. 

      Lawsuits

  • 63. 
    The evidence can be obtained if constitutional rights were violated in getting the evidence.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Evidence recovered in an unconstitutional manner is subject to the:
    • A. 

      Speculation rule

    • B. 

      Expulsion rule

    • C. 

      Exclusionary rule

    • D. 

      Obama love triangle

  • 65. 
    Which best describes Robison
    • A. 

      He was a douche in the computer room

    • B. 

      He violates the rights of Homosexuals at Temple Square

    • C. 

      He violated Prettyman in an inaproppriate way

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 66. 
    What is the definition of an arrest; Choose all that apply;
    • A. 

      An actual restraint of person arrested

    • B. 

      Person shall not be subjected to anymore restraint than is necessary for arrest and detention

    • C. 

      Asking a person their name

    • D. 

      Submission to custody

  • 67. 
    Evidence seized in an unconstitutional manner can be used to discover yet more evidence, since the items seized were illegal.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    This doctrine prohibits the use of illegally seized evidence to obtain still more evidence.
    • A. 

      Evidentiary concealment

    • B. 

      Concealment of evidence

    • C. 

      Fruit of the Poisonous Tree (Exclusionary rule)

    • D. 

      Evidence obtained through spurious means

  • 69. 
    Evidence recovered in an unconstitutional or unreasonable manner is subject to the exclusionary rule.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    Choose all that apply: If serving a misdemeanor arrest warrant, when can it be served?
    • A. 

      Anytime if person is upon public highway or in public

    • B. 

      Anytime day or night

    • C. 

      Anytime if person is encountered by LEO during normal course of duty

    • D. 

      At night only if, Judge authorizes this

  • 71. 
    On a Felony arrest warrant, when can you serve the warrant.
    • A. 

      Day or night

    • B. 

      Day only

    • C. 

      Night only

    • D. 

      Between 6 a.m. to 10 p.m.

  • 72. 
    A Search Warrant Must be served within ___ days of judge’s signature.
  • 73. 
    You need a warrant if you are in hot pursuit of a fleeing felon and they run into a house and lock the door.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    Is reasonable suspicion more or less than probable cause.
    • A. 

      More

    • B. 

      Less

  • 75. 
    Information that would lead an objectively reasonable officer to suspect that a crime has possibly been committed or about to be committed or a particular suspect may have committed the crime or may be about to commit a crime.
    • A. 

      Probable cause

    • B. 

      Reasonable doubt

    • C. 

      Reasonable suspicion

  • 76. 
    Choose all that apply: Probable cause is information that would lead an objectively reasonable officer to believe that:
    • A. 

      A crime probably has been committed or is about to be committed

    • B. 

      He has erectile disfunction

    • C. 

      A particular suspect probably committed the crime

    • D. 

      You have a hunch that the suspect committed a crime

  • 77. 
    Probable cause is a lower degree of certainty than reasonable suspicion
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    Choose all that apply:Hearsay is inadmissible in court because:
    • A. 

      It is not possible to confront and cross examine the person who made the statement

    • B. 

      The jury is unable to assess the witness' demeanor and credibility

    • C. 

      The statement was probably not made under oath

    • D. 

      Because mcbride said it and he is the devil

    • E. 

      Statements stated outside of the courtroom are considered untruthful under state law

  • 79. 
    You cannot use hearsay to build your case.
    • A. 

      True, it is bad police work

    • B. 

      False, hearsay only applies to trials

  • 80. 
    (check all that apply)The HEARSAY rule is that: 
    • A. 

      A statement is made out of court

    • B. 

      The thing you heard someone say

    • C. 

      The statement is offered in court

    • D. 

      The statement is offered for the truth of the matter asserted

    • E. 

      To hear and to then say

  • 81. 
    The burden of proof in a civil trial is
    • A. 

      Preponderance of evidence

    • B. 

      Protracterance of evidence

    • C. 

      Reasonable doubt

    • D. 

      Reasonable suspicion

  • 82. 
    The burden of proof in a criminal trial is
    • A. 

      Reasonable suspicion

    • B. 

      Probable cause

    • C. 

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • D. 

      Preponderance of evidence

  • 83. 
    The burden/standard of proof in a preliminary hearing is
    • A. 

      Reasonable suspicion

    • B. 

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • C. 

      Reasonable belief

    • D. 

      Preponderance of evidence

  • 84. 
    Under search warrant, daytime is defined as;
    • A. 

      5 a.m. and ending at 9 p.m.

    • B. 

      8 a.m. and ending at 12 a.m.

    • C. 

      7 a.m. and ending at 11 p.m.

    • D. 

      6 a.m. and ending at 10 p.m

  • 85. 
    Black Homosexual Jewish Navajo Beekeeper was severely beaten by a Transvestite FLDS Biker Gang.  Witnesses in the area stated that they believe it is racially motivated because it is a well known fact that the FLDS biker gangs hate beehives.  Is this considered a Hate crime?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 86. 
    If a hate crime appears to be inappropriate for the crime, the detective Sergeant will review the case with the division administration of the officer making the report.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 87. 
    Who determines if a call out is required for a hate crime?
    • A. 

      The Sergeant

    • B. 

      The Watch Commander

    • C. 

      The Master Chief

    • D. 

      The Officer on Duty

  • 88. 
    Who maintains files on hate crimes and Bias?
    • A. 

      Records

    • B. 

      The Intelligence Unit

    • C. 

      The Hate and Bias crimes unit

    • D. 

      Your mom, cause she still makes your bed too

  • 89. 
    When a hate crime has occurred, the officer is not required to write a memo.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 90. 
    When a crime has occurred, and it involves a Hate crime, Hate crime should be listed as the primary offense.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    When should you write a report on your investigation of a hate crime?
    • A. 

      Before you leave for the day

    • B. 

      After the investigation only if there are no calls holding

    • C. 

      Immediately after your investigation

    • D. 

      The third Thursday of every month

  • 92. 
    Officers are required to write a police report on every crime brought to their attention involving hate or bias
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    What is the exclusionary rule
    • A. 

      The exclusionary rule proves a fact indirectly through an inference, deduction or a conclusion

    • B. 

      Evidence recovered illegally cannot be use against a suspect in a criminal prosecution

    • C. 

      The exclusionary rule is evidence consisting of items that demonstrate or illustrate something to the jury.

    • D. 

      The Exclusionary rule is evidence that you can actually touch or see

  • 94. 
    The three prongs of evidence are that it must be
    • A. 

      Irelevant

    • B. 

      Relevant

    • C. 

      Circumstantial

    • D. 

      Competent

    • E. 

      Legally obtained

  • 95. 
    Choose all that apply:What are the four primary levels of law enforcement problems while off duty?:
    • A. 

      Minor situations where intervention is not required

    • B. 

      Catastrophic intervention, situations required law enforcement intervention, best handled by summoning Federal Law Enforcement

    • C. 

      Emergency situations required law enforcement intervention, best handled by summoning on duty law enforcement assistance.

    • D. 

      Non-Emergency situations in the law enforcement officer's neighborhood, best handled by an on duty law enforcement officer

    • E. 

      Situations requiring immediate response, when the off duty law enforcement officer has no other choice than to take action

  • 96. 
    The officer is responsible to:
    • A. 

      Stay abreast of new methods, studies, procedures, practices, court decisions and dynamic tactics to perform their duties

    • B. 

      Law Enforcement officers must maintain code white attitude at all times

    • C. 

      Law Enforcement officers must maintain a survival attitude at all times

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 97. 
    Choose all that apply:Most off duty officers, killed by felonious assault are victims of the following:
    • A. 

      Camplacency

    • B. 

      Intervening without possessing needed equipment, firearm handcuffs, etc.

    • C. 

      Carrying police ID in one wallet along with credit cards and money

    • D. 

      Failing to temper their sense of duty with sound judgment

    • E. 

      When off duty the officer's dress identifies him as a law enforcement officer.

  • 98. 
    What do you call the start up point of a fire?
  • 99. 
    What is the safe distance to follow behind a motorcycle when performing a traffic stop?
    • A. 

      21-25 feet

    • B. 

      Far enough away so that you don't run the driver over if he tips his bike and falls off.

    • C. 

      Far enough away that you can train your vehicle mounted guns on his back

    • D. 

      25-30 feet

  • 100. 
    In regards to pedestrian stops, choose the correct three types of stops:
    • A. 

      Level 1 Consensual, Level 2 Reasonable suspicion, Level 3 Probable Cause

    • B. 

      Level 1 Probable Cause, Level 2 Reasonable suspicion, Level 3 Consensual

    • C. 

      Level 1 Reasonable suspicion, Level 2 Consexual, Level 3 Probable Cause

    • D. 

      Level 1 Consexual, Level 2 Unreasonable suspicion, Level 3 Probable Clause

    • E. 

      Level 1 Consensual, Level 2 Probable cause, Level 3 Reasonable suspicion

  • 101. 
    Generally a witness may only testify from personal knowledge
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 102. 
    A person who is not an expert witness is called a ___ _______
  • 103. 
    Choose all that apply:A lay witness may give an opinion only when:
    • A. 

      The communication must originate in a confidence that it will not be disclosed

    • B. 

      The opinion is not one that is based on scientific technical or other specialized knowledge

    • C. 

      The opinion is based on the witness's rational perception and personal knowledge.

    • D. 

      The opinion is helpful to a clear understanding of the witness's testimony or the determination of a fact in issue

    • E. 

      The relationship must be one which in the opinion of the community, ought to be fostered

  • 104. 
    A ___ _______ may testify about things that are within the perception of an ordinary person that results, as one court said, from a process of reasoning familiar in every day life.
    • A. 

      Expert witness

    • B. 

      Lay witness

    • C. 

      Personal witness

    • D. 

      General witness

  • 105. 
    Choose all that apply:Some examples of proper lay witness opinion are:
    • A. 

      Handwriting, identification of a persons' handwriting to which the are familiar

    • B. 

      Forensic evidence, involving such things as fingerprint identification and ballistics.

    • C. 

      Voice, identification of another person's voice

    • D. 

      Emotional condition

    • E. 

      Something not requiring scientific or technical knowledge

  • 106. 
    When arresting a hearing impaired person, Compliance may be a factor to be considered because:
    • A. 

      You do not have probable cause to arrest a person with disabilities

    • B. 

      The courts will not accept statements made from hearing impaired individuals unless accompanied by a court appointed interperter

    • C. 

      Nua hmcah hnaa my name is Helen Keller ,ahoia ncnakjh lkskd

    • D. 

      The court may evaluate statements that were made to see if they were made knowingly, voluntarily and intelligently

  • 107. 
    Officers do not have to asses the communicative abilities of hearing impaired persons.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 108. 
    _____ _______ is when a LEO from another state enters this state in ____ _______ of a person in order to arrest him on grounds that he reasonably believes that the person committed a felony in another state.
    • A. 

      Hot pursuit

    • B. 

      Fresh pursuit

  • 109. 
    When in fresh pursuit, the LEO has the same authority to arrest and hold a person in custody as a LEO of his state.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 110. 
    A Terry stop is not considered a seizure.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 111. 
    Officers may conduct a Terry type area search of the passenger compartment
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 112. 
    Reasonable suspicion that a person is armed allows you to conduct a Terry frisk
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 113. 
    Terry frisk is not Extended to traffic stops.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 114. 
    For a Terry Frisk, Subjective belief of officer is not enough, cannot be based on a hunch
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 115. 
    While conduction a Terry frisk, if an object in a pocket is immediately apparent the officer may not retrieve the object.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 116. 
    At trial, hearsay for which there is no exception is inadmissible
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 117. 
    Hearsay is just not considered sufficiently trustworthy to let a jury consider it
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 118. 
    If the jury is asked to believe that a statement is true, the statement is hearsay
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    If a statement is being offered for a legitimate reason other than to prove that the statement is tru, then the statement is not hearsay
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 120. 
    During an investigation, bill says "joe shot me."  During the trial you get on the stand and tell the jury that "joe shot bill" to prove that joe shot bill.  Is this hearsay?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 121. 
    Prior statements by a witness
    • A. 

      Hearsay

    • B. 

      Not hearsay

  • 122. 
    Admission by the party-opponent
    • A. 

      Hearsay

    • B. 

      Not hearsay

  • 123. 
    Foundational
    • A. 

      Hearsay

    • B. 

      Not hearsay

  • 124. 
    Present sense impression is an exception to the hearsay rule
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 125. 
    Excited utterance is an exception to the hearsay rule
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 126. 
    The existing mental, emotional, or physical condition is an exception to the hearsay rule
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 127. 
    Statements for purposes of medical diagnosis of treatment are an exception to the hearsay rule
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 128. 
    Recorded recollection is an exception to the hearsay rule
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 129. 
    Records of regularly conducted activity are exceptions to the hearsay rule
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 130. 
    Public records and reports are exceptions to the hearsay rule
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 131. 
    Reputation as to character is an exception to hearsay
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 132. 
    Unavailability of a witness includes situations in which the declarant
    • A. 

      Is exempted by the court

    • B. 

      Refuses to testify despite an order from the court

    • C. 

      Testifies to a lack of memory of the subject matter of their statement

    • D. 

      Because of death or physical or mental illness or infirmity

    • E. 

      Summons or subpoena did not get a response

  • 133. 
    Which of the following are not excluded by the hearsay rule if the declarant is unavailable as a witness
    • A. 

      Former testimony

    • B. 

      Dying declarations

    • C. 

      Statements against interest

    • D. 

      Lighting up a stage and waxing a chump like a candle

  • 134. 
    Neither wife nor husband may either during the marriage or afterwords be, without the consent of the other, examined as to any communication made by one to the other during the marriage
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 135. 
    A spousal communication is confidential if it is made privately by any person to his/her spouse and is not intended for disclosure to any other person
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 136. 
    An attorney cannot, without the consent of his client, be examined as to any communication made by the client to him.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 137. 
    A clergyman or priest cannot, without the consent of the person making the confession, be examined as to any confession made to him in his professional character in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to which he belongs
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 138. 
    The government has the privilege to refuse to disclose the identity of an informer
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 139. 
    A physician or mental health therapist cannot, without the consent of the patient, be examined in a civil action as to any information acquired in attending the patient which was necessary to enable him to prescribe or act for the patient
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 140. 
    UCA 78-3c-3 provides that a sexual assault counselor cannot, without the consent of the victim, be examined in a civil or criminal proceeding as to any confidential communication made by the victim
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 141. 
    The four fundamental conditions must be met before communications between persons are considered privileged are
    • A. 

      The communication must originate in a confidence that it will not be disclosed

    • B. 

      This element of confidentiality must be essential to the full and satisfactory maintenance of the relationship of the parties

    • C. 

      The relationship must be one which in the opinion of the community, ought to be fostered

    • D. 

      The injury that would ensue to the relationship by the disclosure of the communication

    • E. 

      The person who made the statement must be the fastest, smartest, best looking, tallest, most european, and best spanish speaking person in the history of the universe

  • 142. 
    To be an expert one must must be qualified by his/her knowledge, skill, expertise, training, or education
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 143. 
    The US Supreme Court held that if police were in _______________ of a fleeing suspect, they were entitled o make a warrantless entry to effectuate the arrest if they had probable cause to believe that the suspect committed a felony, and they believed he entered a specific dwelling
  • 144. 
    To justify hot pursuit, the officer must generally demonstrate that
    • A. 

      The pursuit was undertaken immediately after the crime

    • B. 

      There was a continuity of pursuit from the crime to the place of arrest

    • C. 

      Overman is a douche

    • D. 

      That downes is a cracka'

    • E. 

      That puddin' head wilson's head is actually made of pudding

  • 145. 
    Which of the the following terms are actual terms for this test
    • A. 

      Probable cause

    • B. 

      Reasonable suspicion

    • C. 

      Reasonable probability

    • D. 

      Probably reasonabililty

    • E. 

      Probabilitishousnesabiltornisionity reasonabliltournynitmilitous

  • 146. 
    Domestic violence - in determining who the primary aggressor was, the officer shall consider
    • A. 

      Any prior complaints of domestic violence

    • B. 

      The relative severity if injuries inflicted on each person

    • C. 

      The likelihood of future injury to each of the parties

    • D. 

      Whether one of the parties acted in self defense

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 147. 
    When a police officer responds to a DV call AND has probable cause to belive that an act of DV has been committed he SHALL arrest without a warrant or issue a cite to any person that he has PC to believe has committed an act of DV
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 148. 
    If an officer does not make an arrest or arrests two parties for DV, he shall submit a detailed, written report specifying the grounds for not arresting any party or arresting both parties
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 149. 
    An officer who does not make an arrest for DV, shall notify the victim of the right to initiate a criminal proceeding and the importance of preserving evidence
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 150. 
    Between 1-1-09 thru 12-31-13 officers of the SLCPD (first class city) responding to a DV shall also report, either as part of an initial report or on a separate form, the following information
    • A. 

      Marital status of each of the parties involved

    • B. 

      Social, familial, or legal relationship of the suspect to the victim

    • C. 

      Whether or not an arrest was made

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 151. 
    ________________ allows LEO's with probable cause to search an entire vehicle because of the mobility of the vehicle and the difficulty of obtaining a warrant in a timely manner.