# Structural Design Exam Part 4: Quiz!

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Questions: 40 | Attempts: 275

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• 1.

### Zone 1 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph.

• A.

A. 150

• B.

B. 250

• C.

C. 125

• D.

D. 200

B. B. 250
Explanation
Zone 1 of the Philippine map has a wind load of 250 Kph. This suggests that in Zone 1, the average wind speed is 250 kilometers per hour. This information is important for various purposes, such as construction and design, as it helps determine the necessary measures to withstand the wind load in that specific area.

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• 2.

### Zone 2 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph.

• A.

A. 150

• B.

B. 250

• C.

C. 125

• D.

D. 200

D. D. 200
Explanation
Zone 2 of the Philippine map has a wind load of 200 Kph. This means that in this particular zone, the average wind speed is 200 kilometers per hour. This information is important for various purposes such as construction, infrastructure planning, and disaster preparedness. The wind load helps determine the design requirements for buildings and structures in order to ensure their stability and safety in high wind conditions.

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• 3.

### Zone 3 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph.

• A.

A. 150

• B.

B. 250

• C.

C. 125

• D.

D. 200

C. C. 125
Explanation
Zone 3 of the Philippine map has a wind load of 125 Kph. This means that in this particular zone, the average wind speed is 125 kilometers per hour. This information is important for various purposes, such as designing buildings and structures that can withstand the wind loads in this area.

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• 4.

### A tensile or compressive force acting along the longitudinal axis of a structural member and at the centroid of the cross-section, producing axial stress without bending, torsion or shear.

• A.

A. axial force

• B.

B. compressive force

• C.

C. axial stress

• D.

D. eccentric stress

A. A. axial force
Explanation
The given statement describes a force that is applied along the longitudinal axis of a structural member, at the centroid of the cross-section, and causes axial stress without any bending, torsion, or shear. This type of force is known as an axial force, which is the correct answer.

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• 5.

### The ratio between the effective length and the unbraced length of the member measured between the centers of gravity of the bracing members. (NSCP Def. of Terms)

• A.

A. Effective length

• B.

B. Effective length Factor

• C.

C. Eccentric Braced Frame (EBF)

• D.

D. Effective Stiffness

B. B. Effective length Factor
Explanation
The effective length factor is the ratio between the effective length and the unbraced length of a member. It is measured between the centers of gravity of the bracing members. This factor is used to determine the effective length of a member in structural analysis and design. It takes into account the bracing provided to the member and the stiffness of the bracing members. By considering the effective length factor, engineers can accurately assess the behavior and stability of the member under different loading conditions.

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• 6.

### A fracture Phenomenon resulting from a fluctuating stress cycle. (NSCP Def. of Terms)

• A.

A. stress

• B.

B. strain

• C.

C. deflection

• D.

D. fatigue

D. D. fatigue
Explanation
Fatigue is the correct answer because it refers to a fracture phenomenon caused by a fluctuating stress cycle. When a material is subjected to repeated stress cycles, it can weaken and eventually fail, resulting in a fracture. This phenomenon is known as fatigue. Stress, strain, and deflection are all related to the behavior of materials under load, but they do not specifically refer to the fracture phenomenon caused by a fluctuating stress cycle.

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• 7.

### The stress that remains in an unloaded member after it has been formed into a finished product. (NSCP Def. of Terms)

• A.

A. stress concentration

• B.

B. residual stress

• C.

C. shear factor

• D.

D. instability

B. B. residual stress
Explanation
Residual stress refers to the stress that remains in a member even after it has been formed into a finished product and is unloaded. This stress can be caused by various factors such as manufacturing processes, thermal gradients, or material properties. Residual stress can have significant effects on the performance and behavior of a component, as it can contribute to deformation, cracking, or failure under certain loading conditions. Therefore, it is important to consider and manage residual stress in order to ensure the structural integrity and reliability of the finished product.

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• 8.

### The resulting moment of a fully yielded cross-section. (NSCP Def. of Terms)

• A.

A. Plastic zone

• B.

B. plastic modulus

• C.

C. plastic moment

• D.

D. plastic strain

C. C. plastic moment
Explanation
The correct answer is c. plastic moment. The plastic moment refers to the maximum moment that a fully yielded cross-section can resist before undergoing significant deformation. Once the plastic moment is reached, the material will continue to deform without any increase in resistance. This concept is important in structural engineering, as it helps determine the maximum load that a structure can withstand before it fails.

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• 9.

### The magnitudes of the loads specified by the applicable codes. (NSCP Def. of Terms)

• A.

• B.

B. Resistance

• C.

C. Nominal Strength

• D.

Explanation
The correct answer is a. Nominal loads. According to the NSCP definition of terms, the magnitudes of the loads specified by the applicable codes are referred to as nominal loads. This means that the loads mentioned in the codes are considered to be nominal loads.

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• 10.

### A method proportioning structural components such that no applicable limit state is exceeded when the structure is subjected to all appropriate load combinations. (NSCP Def. of Terms)

• A.

A. Building Frame System

• B.

B. Mechanism Method

• C.

C. Strength Design

• D.

D. Load & Resistance Factor Design

D. D. Load & Resistance Factor Design
Explanation
Load & Resistance Factor Design (LRFD) is a method of proportioning structural components in a way that ensures no applicable limit state is exceeded when the structure is subjected to all appropriate load combinations. In LRFD, the loads are multiplied by load factors and the resistances are divided by resistance factors to account for uncertainties in the loads and material strengths. This method provides a more reliable and consistent design approach compared to other methods like strength design or mechanism method. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Load & Resistance Factor Design.

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• 11.

### What type of concrete when air-dried weights 1900 kg per cubic meter? (NSCP 5.2.1)

• A.

A. Reinforced Concrete

• B.

B. Air-entrained concrete

• C.

C. Lightweight concrete

• D.

D. Concrete

C. C. Lightweight concrete
Explanation
The correct answer is c. Lightweight concrete. Lightweight concrete is a type of concrete that has a lower density compared to regular concrete. This is achieved by using lightweight aggregates or by incorporating air voids into the mixture. As a result, lightweight concrete has a lower weight per cubic meter, in this case, 1900 kg. Reinforced concrete refers to concrete that is strengthened with steel reinforcement, air-entrained concrete is concrete that has air bubbles incorporated to improve freeze-thaw resistance, and concrete is a general term for the mixture of cement, aggregates, and water.

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• 12.

### Granular material, such as crushed stone, iron blast-furnace slag, sand, or gravel used with cementing medium to form a hydraulic cement concrete or mortar. (NSCP Sec. 5.2.1)

• A.

• B.

B. Aggregate

• C.

C. Sleeve Particles

• D.

D. Filters

B. B. Aggregate
Explanation
Aggregate refers to granular materials, such as crushed stone, sand, or gravel, that are used in combination with a cementing medium to create hydraulic cement concrete or mortar. This explanation aligns with the definition provided in the NSCP Sec. 5.2.1, which states that aggregate is a granular material used in the formation of concrete or mortar. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Aggregate.

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• 13.

### Aggregates should conform to PNS or ASTM standards and must be well-graded; easy workability and method of consolidation are such that concrete can be poured without honeycomb or void. What is the nominal maximum size of a course aggregate when working with depth of slabs for concreting? (NSCP Sec 5.3.3.2)

• A.

A. Course aggregate shall be no longer than 1/3 the depth of the slab under consideration

• B.

B. Course aggregate shall be no longer than 1/4 the depth of the slab under consideration

• C.

C. Course aggregate shall be no longer than 1/6 the depth of the slab under consideration

• D.

D. Course aggregate shall be no longer than 1/5 the depth of the slab under consideration

A. A. Course aggregate shall be no longer than 1/3 the depth of the slab under consideration
Explanation
The correct answer is a. Course aggregate shall be no longer than 1/3 the depth of the slab under consideration. This means that when working with depth of slabs for concreting, the size of the course aggregate should not exceed one-third of the depth of the slab. This ensures that the aggregate is well-graded and allows for easy workability and consolidation of the concrete, preventing the formation of honeycomb or voids. Following this standard helps to ensure the quality and durability of the concrete slab.

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• 14.

### This refers to the length of reinforcement or mechanical anchor or hook, or combination thereof, beyond point of zero stress in reinforcement (NSCP Sec. 5.2.1)

• A.

A. End anchorage

• B.

B. Reinforced length

• C.

C. Development length

• D.

D. Critical length

A. A. End anchorage
Explanation
The correct answer is "a. End anchorage". End anchorage refers to the length of reinforcement or mechanical anchor or hook, or combination thereof, beyond the point of zero stress in reinforcement. This means that it is the length of the reinforcement that extends beyond the point where it is no longer under any stress. This is an important concept in structural engineering as it ensures that the reinforcement is securely anchored and can effectively resist any applied loads or forces.

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• 15.

### The standard hooks for stirrups and ties shall mean: (NSCP Sec. 5.7.1)

• A.

A. 90 deg. Bend plus 6db extension at the free end of bar, for 16mm bar and smaller

• B.

B. 90 deg. Bend plus 12db extension at the free end of bar, for 20mm & 25mm bar

• C.

C. 135 deg. Bend plus 6db extension at the free end of bar, for 25mm bar and smaller

• D.

D. All of the above

• E.

E. None of the above

D. D. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is d. All of the above. This means that all the options provided in a, b, and c are correct and meet the standard hooks for stirrups and ties. For bars that are 16mm and smaller, a 90 degree bend plus 6db extension at the free end is required. For bars that are 20mm and 25mm, a 90 degree bend plus 12db extension is required. And for bars that are 25mm and smaller, a 135 degree bend plus 6db extension is required.

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• 16.

### Length of embedded reinforcement provided beyond a critical section. (NSCP Sec. 5.2.1)

• A.

A. End anchorage

• B.

B. Embedment length

• C.

C. Development length

• D.

D. Critical length

B. B. Embedment length
Explanation
The correct answer is b. Embedment length. Embedment length refers to the length of reinforcement that is embedded or extended beyond a critical section in a structural member. This is done to ensure proper transfer of forces between the reinforcement and the surrounding concrete. The embedment length is determined based on factors such as the type of reinforcement, the type of concrete, and the design requirements. It is an important consideration in the design and construction of reinforced concrete structures.

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• 17.

### Inside diameter of bend for stirrups and ties for 16mm bar and smaller shall be not less than (NSCP Sec. 5.7.2.2)

• A.

A. 4db

• B.

B. 6db

• C.

C. 8db

• D.

D. 10db

A. A. 4db
Explanation
According to NSCP Sec. 5.7.2.2, the inside diameter of the bend for stirrups and ties for 16mm bar and smaller should not be less than 4 times the bar diameter (4db). This means that the inside diameter of the bend should be at least 4 times the diameter of the bar being used.

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• 18.

### Which of the following criteria for bundled bars, do NOT apply? (NSCP Sec. 5.7.6.6)

• A.

A. Bars larger than 36 mm shall not be bundled in beams.

• B.

B. Bundled bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or ties

• C.

C. Group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as a unit shall be limited to three in any one bundle.

• D.

D. Individual bars within a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall terminate at different points with at least 40 db staggered.

• E.

E. None of the above

• F.

F. All of the above

C. C. Group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as a unit shall be limited to three in any one bundle.
Explanation
According to NSCP Sec. 5.7.6.6, the criteria for bundled bars include that bars larger than 36 mm should not be bundled in beams, bundled bars should be enclosed within stirrups or ties, and individual bars within a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members should terminate at different points with at least 40 db staggered. However, the criterion that does not apply is that a group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as a unit should be limited to three in any one bundle.

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• 19.

### Length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of reinforcement at a critical section. (NSCP Sec. 5.2.1)

• A.

A. End anchorage

• B.

B. Embedment Length

• C.

C. Development length

• D.

D. Critical length

C. C. Development length
Explanation
The correct answer is c. Development length. The development length refers to the length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of reinforcement at a critical section. It is the length of reinforcement that needs to be embedded in the concrete to ensure proper transfer of forces between the reinforcement and the surrounding concrete. This is important to ensure the structural integrity and load-carrying capacity of the reinforced concrete element.

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• 20.

### The tendency of most materials to move or deform overtime under a constant load. The amount of movement varies enormously depending upon the material. The area that is highly stressed will move the most. The movement causes stresses to be redistributed.

• A.

A. creep

• B.

B. buckling

• C.

C. Fatigue

• D.

A. A. creep
Explanation
Creep refers to the tendency of most materials to move or deform over time under a constant load. The amount of movement varies depending on the material, with the highly stressed area experiencing the most movement. This movement causes stresses to be redistributed.

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• 21.

### Is a component including its attachments having a fundamental period less than or equal to 0.06 sec. (NSCP 208.20)

• A.

A. Braced frame

• B.

B. Rigid Component

• C.

C. bearing wall system

• D.

D. Flexible component

B. B. Rigid Component
Explanation
A rigid component refers to a structural element that does not undergo significant deformation or displacement under load. In this context, if a component, along with its attachments, has a fundamental period less than or equal to 0.06 sec, it implies that it has a high stiffness and is resistant to lateral movement. Rigid components are typically used in seismic design to provide stability and resist lateral forces. Therefore, a rigid component is the correct answer because it meets the criteria specified in the question.

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• 22.

### Is a component including its attachments having a fundamental period greater than 0.60 sec. (NSCP 208.20)

• A.

A. Braced frame

• B.

B. Rigid Component

• C.

C. bearing wall system

• D.

D. Flexible component

C. C. bearing wall system
Explanation
A bearing wall system is a structural component that supports the load of the building. It is typically made of solid walls and has a high level of stiffness and rigidity. Since it is designed to provide stability and resist lateral forces, a bearing wall system would have a fundamental period greater than 0.60 seconds. This is because a longer period indicates a slower response to seismic forces, which is desirable for stability and safety. Therefore, the correct answer is c. bearing wall system.

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• 23.

### Concrete filled driven piles of uniform section shall have a nominal outside diameter of not less than (NSCP 307.7.3)

• A.

A. 200

• B.

B. 250

• C.

C. 300

• D.

D. 350

A. A. 200
Explanation
According to NSCP 307.7.3, concrete filled driven piles of uniform section should have a nominal outside diameter of not less than 200. This means that the minimum diameter for these piles should be 200.

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• 24.

### A complete record of test of materials and of concrete shall be available for inspection during the progress of work and _______ years after completion of the project and shall be preserved by the inspecting engineer or architect for that purpose, (NSCP 403.20)

• A.

A. 2 yrs.

• B.

B. 5 yrs.

• C.

C. 10 yrs.

• D.

D. 15 yrs.

A. A. 2 yrs.
Explanation
According to NSCP 403.20, a complete record of test of materials and of concrete shall be available for inspection during the progress of work and 2 years after completion of the project. The inspecting engineer or architect is responsible for preserving these records for that purpose.

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• 25.

### The minimum bend diameter for 10mm Ø through 25mm Ø bars (NSCP 407.30)

• A.

A. 12 db

• B.

B. 6 db

• C.

C. 8 db

• D.

D. 10 db

B. B. 6 db
Explanation
The correct answer is b. 6 db. According to NSCP 407.30, the minimum bend diameter for 10mm to 25mm diameter bars is 6 times the bar diameter. This means that for a 10mm diameter bar, the minimum bend diameter would be 60mm, and for a 25mm diameter bar, the minimum bend diameter would be 150mm.

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• 26.

### The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer must be db but not less than? (NSCP 407.7.3)

• A.

A. 50 mm

• B.

B. 25 mm

• C.

C. 75 mm

• D.

D. 100 mm

B. B. 25 mm
Explanation
According to NSCP 407.7.3, the minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer must be db but not less than. The correct answer is b. 25 mm, as it is the minimum spacing required by the code.

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• 27.

### In spirally reinforced or tied reinforced compression members, clear distance between longitudinal bars shall not be less than? (NSCP 407.7.3)

• A.

A. 2.0 db

• B.

B. 2.15 db

• C.

C. 1.50 mm

• D.

D. 1.75 mm

C. C. 1.50 mm
Explanation
In spirally reinforced or tied reinforced compression members, the clear distance between longitudinal bars should not be less than 1.50 mm. This requirement is stated in NSCP 407.7.3. This minimum clear distance ensures that there is enough space between the longitudinal bars to allow for proper placement and compaction of concrete, as well as to provide adequate cover for the bars. A smaller clear distance could lead to inadequate concrete consolidation and reduced structural integrity.

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• 28.

### In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, primary flexural reinforcement shall not be spaced farther apart than 3 times wall or slab thickness nor farther than? (NSCP 407.7.5)

• A.

A. 375 mm

• B.

B. 450 mm

• C.

C. 500 mm

• D.

D. 300 mm

B. B. 450 mm
Explanation
In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, the primary flexural reinforcement should not be spaced farther apart than 3 times the wall or slab thickness. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 450 mm, as it is the only option that satisfies this condition.

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• 29.

### Groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as one unit shall be united to ___ pieces in one bundle. (NSCP 407.7.6.1)

• A.

A. 4

• B.

B. 3

• C.

C. 2

• D.

D. 5

A. A. 4
Explanation
According to NSCP 407.7.6.1, groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as one unit should be united to 4 pieces in one bundle.

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• 30.

### Bars larger than ___mm shall not be bundled in beams: (NSCP 407.7.6.3)

• A.

A. 25 mm

• B.

B. 16 mm

• C.

C. 28 mm

• D.

D. 36 mm

D. D. 36 mm
Explanation
According to NSCP 407.7.6.3, bars larger than 36 mm should not be bundled in beams. This means that if the diameter of the bars is greater than 36 mm, they should not be grouped together or placed in a bundle when used in beams. This is likely because larger bars may not fit properly within the beam or may cause structural issues if bundled together.

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• 31.

### Aviation control towers fall to what type of occupancy? (CDEP IV-35)

• A.

A. Miscellaneous occupancy

• B.

B. Essential facilities

• C.

C. Hazardous facility

• D.

D. Standard occupancy

B. B. Essential facilities
Explanation
Aviation control towers fall under the category of essential facilities. Essential facilities are those that are necessary for the continued operation of a community during and after a disaster or emergency situation. Aviation control towers are critical for the safe and efficient management of air traffic, ensuring the smooth operation of airports and the safety of aircraft and passengers. Therefore, they are considered essential facilities as they play a vital role in the functioning of the aviation industry.

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• 32.

### Private garages, carports, sheds, agricultural buildings fall to what type of occupancy? (CDEP IV-35)

• A.

A. Miscellaneous occupancy

• B.

B. Essential facilities

• C.

C. Hazardous facility

• D.

D. Standard occupancy

A. A. Miscellaneous occupancy
Explanation
Private garages, carports, sheds, and agricultural buildings are categorized as miscellaneous occupancy. This classification is used for structures that do not fit into any other specific occupancy type. These types of buildings are typically used for storage or as a workspace for personal or non-commercial purposes. They do not fall under essential facilities, hazardous facilities, or standard occupancy categories, as they have their own distinct purpose and function.

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• 33.

### Buildings used for college or adult education with a capacity of 500 or more students fall to what type of occupancy? (CDEP IV-35)

• A.

A. Miscellaneous occupancy

• B.

B. Essential Facilities

• C.

C. Special occupancy

• D.

D. Standard occupancy

C. C. Special occupancy
Explanation
Buildings used for college or adult education with a capacity of 500 or more students are classified as special occupancy. This classification is given because these buildings have unique requirements and characteristics that differentiate them from other types of occupancies. Special occupancy buildings often have specific safety and security measures in place to ensure the well-being of the large number of students and staff present.

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• 34.

### Buildings or structures therein housing and supporting toxic or explosive chemicals or substances fall to what type of category? (CDEP IV-35)

• A.

A. Miscellaneous occupancy

• B.

B. Essential facilities

• C.

C. Special occupancy

• D.

D. Hazardous facility

D. D. Hazardous facility
Explanation
Buildings or structures that house and support toxic or explosive chemicals or substances are categorized as hazardous facilities. This category is specifically designated for locations that pose a significant risk due to the presence of hazardous materials. These facilities require special precautions and safety measures to prevent accidents or incidents that could lead to harm or damage.

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• 35.

### The allowable deflection for any structural member loaded with live load only. (NSCP 107.2.2)

• A.

A. L/300

• B.

B. L/360

• C.

C. L/200

• D.

D. L/240

B. B. L/360
Explanation
The correct answer is b. L/360. This is because according to NSCP 107.2.2, the allowable deflection for any structural member loaded with live load only is L/360. This means that the maximum deflection of the member under live load should not exceed the span length divided by 360.

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• 36.

### As per NSCP 2001 sect. 206.9.3 vertical impact force for crane load, if powered monorail cranes are considered, the max. wheel load of the crane shall be increased by what percent to determine the induced vertical impact? (NSCP 206.9.3)

• A.

A. 50%

• B.

B. 25%

• C.

C. 15%

• D.

D. 20%

B. B. 25%
Explanation
According to NSCP 2001 section 206.9.3, when considering powered monorail cranes, the maximum wheel load of the crane should be increased by 25% to determine the induced vertical impact.

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• 37.

### The lateral force on a crane runway beam with electrically powered trolleys shall be calculated as ______% of the sum of the rated capacity of the crane and the weight of the hoist and trolley. (NSCP 206.9.4)

• A.

A. 20%

• B.

B. 15%

• C.

C. 30%

• D.

D. 50%

A. A. 20%
Explanation
The correct answer is a. 20%. According to NSCP 206.9.4, the lateral force on a crane runway beam with electrically powered trolleys should be calculated as 20% of the sum of the rated capacity of the crane and the weight of the hoist and trolley. This means that 20% of the total weight of the crane and its components should be considered when calculating the lateral force on the crane runway beam.

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• 38.

### A structural system with essentially complete space frame support for gravity loads.  (CDEP IV-37)

• A.

A. Dual System

• B.

B. Moment Resisting Frame System

• C.

C. Building Frame System

• D.

D. Bearing Wall System

B. B. Moment Resisting Frame System
Explanation
The given correct answer for this question is "b. Moment Resisting Frame System". This type of structural system provides support for gravity loads through a space frame that is capable of resisting moments caused by lateral forces. It is designed to resist lateral forces such as wind or earthquakes by using moment connections between beams and columns. This system is commonly used in high-rise buildings where the lateral forces are significant.

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• 39.

### An open building is a structure having all walls at least _____% open. (NSCP 207)

• A.

A. 50%

• B.

B. 60%

• C.

C. 80%

• D.

D. 75%

C. C. 80%
Explanation
An open building is defined as a structure that has all walls at least 80% open. This means that 80% of the walls must be made up of openings such as doors, windows, or other types of openings. This allows for a high level of natural ventilation and light within the building, creating a more open and airy space.

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• 40.

### Is a quality which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line?

• A.

A. Moment of Inertia

• B.

B. resistance

• C.

C. shear

• D.

D. yield point

A. A. Moment of Inertia
Explanation
Moment of inertia is a physical property of an object that measures its resistance to changes in rotational motion. It quantifies the distribution of mass around an axis of rotation, determining how difficult it is to change the object's rotational speed or direction. In other words, it measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Moment of Inertia.

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• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Jun 05, 2011
Quiz Created by
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