Sexually Transmitted Diseases Quiz! Trivia
(57).jpg "Sexually Transmitted Diseases Quiz! Trivia - Quiz")
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
There was a slight decline in syphilis infections in 2010, the first decline in 10 years, but a dramatic increase in which population?
- A.
Young black men
- B.
Young white men
- C.
Young black women
- D.
Rabbits
Correct Answer
A. Young black menExplanation
In 2010, there was a slight decline in syphilis infections for the first time in 10 years. However, there was a dramatic increase in syphilis infections among young black men. This suggests that while overall syphilis infections decreased, there was a specific increase in cases among young black men, highlighting a potential disparity in healthcare access or risk factors within this population.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following STDs is NOT a disease that hospitals are required to report to the CDC?
- A.
Syphilis
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
Chlamydia
- D.
HPV
Correct Answer
D. HPVExplanation
HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is not a disease that hospitals are required to report to the CDC. While syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia are all sexually transmitted diseases that hospitals are required to report, HPV is not included in the list. This may be because HPV is extremely common and often resolves on its own without causing any symptoms or health problems. Additionally, there is no specific treatment for HPV, so reporting it may not be considered necessary for public health surveillance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A vaccine is available for which of the following STDs?
- A.
HIV
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
HPV
- D.
Chlamydia
Correct Answer
C. HPVExplanation
HPV stands for human papillomavirus, which is a sexually transmitted infection. Unlike HIV, gonorrhea, and chlamydia, there is a vaccine available for HPV. The HPV vaccine helps protect against the most common types of HPV that can cause various types of cancers, including cervical, vaginal, vulvar, anal, penile, and throat cancers. It is recommended for both males and females, ideally before becoming sexually active, to provide the best protection against HPV-related diseases.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following diseases, when left untreated, can cause chronic and deadly neurologic, CV, and other organ system effects, as well as stillbirth in pregnant women or permanent disability in those children that survive?
- A.
Gonorrhea
- B.
Syphilis
- C.
Chlamydia
- D.
HPV
Correct Answer
B. SyphilisExplanation
Syphilis, when left untreated, can cause chronic and deadly neurologic, cardiovascular, and other organ system effects. It can also lead to stillbirth in pregnant women or permanent disability in children who survive.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The most common STD is __________.
Correct Answer
HPV
human papillomavirus
human papilloma virusExplanation
The most common sexually transmitted disease (STD) is HPV, which stands for human papillomavirus. HPV is a viral infection that is transmitted through sexual contact. It is highly prevalent and can cause various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancer. The term "human papilloma virus" is another way of referring to the same infection.Rate this question:
- 6.
According to the CDC, 80% of women are infected with which disease by age 50?
- A.
HPV
- B.
HSV
- C.
Gonorrhea
- D.
Chlamydia
Correct Answer
A. HPVExplanation
The correct answer is HPV. According to the CDC, 80% of women are infected with the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) by the age of 50. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital warts and has been linked to certain types of cancer, including cervical cancer. It is important for women to get regular screenings and vaccinations to prevent and detect HPV infections.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Of the 3800 deaths due to cervical cancer, what percent were linked to HPV?
- A.
25%
- B.
50%
- C.
75%
- D.
100%
Correct Answer
D. 100%Explanation
The given answer states that 100% of the deaths due to cervical cancer were linked to HPV. This means that every single death from cervical cancer was caused by the human papillomavirus.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Transplacental transmission of HPV can cause what type of cancer in fetus?
- A.
Cervical
- B.
Oropharyngeal
- C.
Hepatocellular
- D.
Ovarian
Correct Answer
B. OropharyngealExplanation
Transplacental transmission of HPV refers to the transmission of the human papillomavirus from the mother to the fetus through the placenta during pregnancy. This can result in the development of oropharyngeal cancer in the fetus. Oropharyngeal cancer is a type of cancer that affects the back of the throat, including the base of the tongue and tonsils.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which type of cervical cancer is most common?
- A.
Adenocarcinoma
- B.
Squamous cell
- C.
Basal cell
- D.
A & b are correct
Correct Answer
D. A & b are correctExplanation
Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell are the two most common types of cervical cancer. Adenocarcinoma arises from the glandular cells lining the cervix, while squamous cell carcinoma develops from the flat, thin cells on the surface of the cervix. Both types account for the majority of cervical cancer cases, with squamous cell carcinoma being slightly more prevalent. Basal cell carcinoma is not a type of cervical cancer, therefore it is not correct.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which HPV types are linked to genital warts (low risk types)?
- A.
6 & 11
- B.
6 & 16
- C.
11 & 18
- D.
16 & 18
Correct Answer
A. 6 & 11Explanation
HPV types 6 and 11 are linked to genital warts. These types of HPV are considered low risk because they typically do not cause cancer. Genital warts are a common symptom of an HPV infection and can appear on the genitals or around the anus. HPV types 16 and 18, on the other hand, are considered high risk types as they are known to cause cervical cancer and other types of cancer.Rate this question:
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- 11.
HPV types 16 & 18 are high-risk types that are associated with cervical cancers.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
HPV types 16 and 18 are considered high-risk types because they have been found to be strongly associated with the development of cervical cancers. These specific types of HPV are known to have a higher likelihood of causing abnormal cell changes in the cervix, which can eventually lead to the development of cancer. Therefore, it is true that HPV types 16 and 18 are high-risk types that are associated with cervical cancers.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which layer of the epidermis is targeted by HPV?
- A.
Stratum corneum
- B.
Stratum granulosum
- C.
Stratum lucidum
- D.
Stratum basale
Correct Answer
D. Stratum basaleExplanation
HPV (Human Papillomavirus) targets the stratum basale layer of the epidermis. The stratum basale is the deepest layer of the epidermis and is responsible for producing new skin cells. HPV infects the cells in this layer, causing various types of skin warts and lesions.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What percent of CIN 2 infections regress in 2 years?
- A.
25%
- B.
50%
- C.
75%
- D.
100%
Correct Answer
B. 50%Explanation
CIN 2 refers to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2, which is a precancerous condition of the cervix. The question asks about the percentage of CIN 2 infections that regress in 2 years. The correct answer is 50% because studies have shown that approximately half of the CIN 2 infections can regress spontaneously without any treatment within a 2-year period.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Although most HPV infections are asymptomatic and result in no clinical signs/symptoms, a _________ (which may be planar or cauliflower-like) may develop within weeks or months of infection.
Correct Answer
condylomaExplanation
A condyloma is a type of growth that can develop as a result of an HPV infection. It can appear as a flat or cauliflower-like growth and typically develops within a few weeks or months after the infection.Rate this question:
- 15.
Pleomorphic (various sizes) and hyperchromatic (abundant, dark-stained DNA) nuclei can be seen in a Pap smear who is positive for which disease?
- A.
HSV
- B.
Chlamydia
- C.
Gonorrhea
- D.
HPV
Correct Answer
D. HPVExplanation
Pap smears are commonly used to detect cervical abnormalities, including those caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. Pleomorphic and hyperchromatic nuclei, which refer to cells with varying sizes and dark-stained DNA, are characteristic of abnormal cells seen in Pap smears of individuals positive for HPV. Therefore, the correct answer is HPV.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The next step after an abnormal Pap smear is a _________ to directly visualize the affected area of the cervix.
Correct Answer
colposcopyExplanation
After an abnormal Pap smear, the next step is to perform a colposcopy. This procedure allows for direct visualization of the affected area of the cervix. During a colposcopy, a special magnifying instrument called a colposcope is used to examine the cervix more closely. This helps to identify any abnormal areas or lesions that may require further evaluation or treatment. A colposcopy is an important diagnostic tool in the management of abnormal Pap smears and can provide valuable information for the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.Rate this question:
- 17.
Which HPV vaccine provides protection from HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18 and is approved for both males and females?
- A.
Cervarix
- B.
Gardisil
Correct Answer
B. GardisilExplanation
Gardisil is the correct answer because it provides protection against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18, which are known to cause the majority of cervical cancers, as well as other HPV-related diseases. It is approved for both males and females, making it a suitable option for comprehensive HPV vaccination. Cervarix, on the other hand, only protects against HPV types 16 and 18, and is primarily used in females for the prevention of cervical cancer.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which organism is a gram-negative obligate intracellular organism that uniquely has no peptidoglycan layer?
- A.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- B.
Chlamydia trachomatis
- C.
Escherchia coli
- D.
Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer
B. Chlamydia trachomatisExplanation
Chlamydia trachomatis is a gram-negative obligate intracellular organism that uniquely lacks a peptidoglycan layer. Peptidoglycan is a key component of the cell wall in most bacteria, providing structural support and protection. However, Chlamydia trachomatis has evolved to have a modified cell wall structure, lacking peptidoglycan. This unique feature allows it to evade the host immune system and survive within host cells, making it an obligate intracellular pathogen.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which serotypes of chlamydia is prevalent in Africa, cause eye infections (trachoma), and are the most common cause of infectious blindness worldwide?
- A.
A, B, Ba and C
- B.
A, A1 and A2
- C.
D-K
- D.
L1, L2 and L3
Correct Answer
A. A, B, Ba and CExplanation
Serotypes A, B, Ba, and C of chlamydia are prevalent in Africa and are known to cause eye infections, specifically trachoma. These serotypes are also the most common cause of infectious blindness worldwide.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The most common bacterial STD is ________________.
- A.
Chlamydia
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
T. vaginalis
- D.
Syphilis
Correct Answer
A. ChlamydiaExplanation
Chlamydia is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD). It is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis and can be transmitted through sexual contact. Chlamydia often does not show any symptoms, especially in women, which makes it easy to go undetected and untreated. If left untreated, it can lead to serious health complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly and practice safe sex to prevent the spread of chlamydia.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which lifestyle stage of chlamydia is the infectious form?
- A.
Inclusion body
- B.
Reticulate body
- C.
Elementary body
Correct Answer
C. Elementary bodyExplanation
The correct answer is elementary body. The elementary body is the infectious form of chlamydia. It is a small, non-motile, and metabolically inactive form that is resistant to harsh environmental conditions. It is responsible for the transmission of chlamydia from person to person. Once inside a host cell, the elementary body transforms into the reticulate body, which is the replicative form of chlamydia. The reticulate body then divides and multiplies within the host cell, leading to the formation of inclusion bodies.Rate this question:
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- 22.
During endocytosis, endosomes fuse with each other forming large, characteristic _________ bodies.
Correct Answer
inclusionExplanation
During endocytosis, endosomes can fuse with each other, resulting in the formation of large, characteristic inclusion bodies. These inclusion bodies are aggregates of substances that have been taken up by the cell through endocytosis. They can contain a variety of materials, such as proteins, lipids, or even pathogens. The fusion of endosomes allows for the consolidation of these materials into larger structures, which can then be processed and sorted within the cell.Rate this question:
- 23.
Which of the following is/are true of chlamydia species?
- A.
Endosomes do not fuse with lysosomes
- B.
Can infect conjunctiva in a healthy individual
- C.
Can cause parasite-directed endocytosis
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The statement "endosomes do not fuse with lysosomes" is true because chlamydia species have evolved mechanisms to prevent fusion of their endosomes with lysosomes, allowing them to avoid degradation and survive within host cells. The statement "can infect conjunctiva in a healthy individual" is also true as chlamydia species can cause conjunctivitis in individuals who have not previously been infected. Lastly, the statement "can cause parasite-directed endocytosis" is true as chlamydia species can manipulate host cells to internalize them through a process called parasite-directed endocytosis.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Chlamydia is typically a dual infection with _____________ .
- A.
Syphilis
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
HPV
- D.
Herpes
Correct Answer
B. GonorrheaExplanation
Chlamydia is typically a dual infection with gonorrhea because both are sexually transmitted infections that often occur together. They have similar risk factors and modes of transmission, and individuals who are infected with one are more likely to also be infected with the other. Additionally, the symptoms of chlamydia and gonorrhea can be similar, making it important to test for both infections if one is suspected. Treatment for chlamydia often includes treatment for gonorrhea as well, to ensure both infections are effectively treated.Rate this question:
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- 25.
___________________ is the most common pathogenic protozoan in industrialized countries.
- A.
T. vaginalis
- B.
N. gonorrhoeae
- C.
C. trachomatis
- D.
T. pallidum
Correct Answer
A. T. vaginalisExplanation
T. vaginalis is the most common pathogenic protozoan in industrialized countries. This protozoan is responsible for causing trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. It is more prevalent in industrialized countries due to factors such as increased access to healthcare, better diagnostic methods, and higher levels of sexual activity. Trichomoniasis can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort during urination or sexual intercourse. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are important to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.Rate this question:
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- 26.
T. vaginalis testing is typically done by _____________.
- A.
Wet mount
- B.
Cultures
- C.
Antibody testing
- D.
PCR
Correct Answer
A. Wet mountExplanation
T. vaginalis testing is typically done by wet mount. This method involves placing a sample of vaginal discharge on a slide and examining it under a microscope. The wet mount allows the healthcare provider to directly observe the presence of T. vaginalis, which is a parasite that causes trichomoniasis. Cultures, antibody testing, and PCR are alternative methods for T. vaginalis testing, but wet mount is the most common and widely used approach.Rate this question:
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- 27.
75% of symptomatic women infected with Trichomonas vaginalis experience which symptom?
- A.
Vaginal discharge
- B.
Dysuria
- C.
Vulvar itching
- D.
"disagreeable odor"
Correct Answer
A. Vaginal dischargeExplanation
Symptomatic women infected with Trichomonas vaginalis often experience vaginal discharge. This is a common symptom of trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. The discharge is usually frothy, yellowish-green in color, and may have a strong odor. Other symptoms of trichomoniasis may include itching, irritation, and discomfort in the vaginal area, as well as pain or burning during urination (dysuria). However, the most prevalent symptom is vaginal discharge.Rate this question:
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- 28.
T. vaginalis is one of the most resilient protozoan trophozoites.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
T. vaginalis is considered one of the most resilient protozoan trophozoites because it is able to survive in a variety of environments and conditions. This protozoan is known to tolerate changes in temperature, pH levels, and oxygen availability. It can also withstand desiccation and remain viable for extended periods. Additionally, T. vaginalis has developed mechanisms to evade the host immune system, further contributing to its resilience. Therefore, the statement that T. vaginalis is one of the most resilient protozoan trophozoites is true.Rate this question:
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- 29.
T. vaginalis is a type of bacterial vaginitis, but is not considered an STD.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Gardnerella vaginalis is a type of bacterial vaginitis, but is not considered an STD.Rate this question:
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