Sexually Transmitted Diseases Quiz! Trivia

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  • 1/29 Questions

    There was a slight decline in syphilis infections in 2010, the first decline in 10 years, but a dramatic increase in which population?

    • Young black men
    • Young white men
    • Young black women
    • Rabbits
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About This Quiz

Explore key insights into sexually transmitted diseases with this trivia quiz! Topics include infection rates, vaccine availability, and long-term effects of diseases like HPV and syphilis. Perfect for learners interested in public health and epidemiology.

Sexually Transmitted Diseases Quiz! Trivia - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following STDs is NOT a disease that hospitals are required to report to the CDC?

    • Syphilis

    • Gonorrhea

    • Chlamydia

    • HPV

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is not a disease that hospitals are required to report to the CDC. While syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia are all sexually transmitted diseases that hospitals are required to report, HPV is not included in the list. This may be because HPV is extremely common and often resolves on its own without causing any symptoms or health problems. Additionally, there is no specific treatment for HPV, so reporting it may not be considered necessary for public health surveillance purposes.

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  • 3. 

    A vaccine is available for which of the following STDs?

    • HIV

    • Gonorrhea

    • HPV

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    HPV stands for human papillomavirus, which is a sexually transmitted infection. Unlike HIV, gonorrhea, and chlamydia, there is a vaccine available for HPV. The HPV vaccine helps protect against the most common types of HPV that can cause various types of cancers, including cervical, vaginal, vulvar, anal, penile, and throat cancers. It is recommended for both males and females, ideally before becoming sexually active, to provide the best protection against HPV-related diseases.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following diseases, when left untreated, can cause chronic and deadly neurologic, CV, and other organ system effects, as well as stillbirth in pregnant women or permanent disability in those children that survive?

    • Gonorrhea

    • Syphilis

    • Chlamydia

    • HPV

    Correct Answer
    A. Syphilis
    Explanation
    Syphilis, when left untreated, can cause chronic and deadly neurologic, cardiovascular, and other organ system effects. It can also lead to stillbirth in pregnant women or permanent disability in children who survive.

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  • 5. 

    The most common STD is __________.

    Correct Answer
    HPV
    human papillomavirus
    human papilloma virus
    Explanation
    The most common sexually transmitted disease (STD) is HPV, which stands for human papillomavirus. HPV is a viral infection that is transmitted through sexual contact. It is highly prevalent and can cause various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancer. The term "human papilloma virus" is another way of referring to the same infection.

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  • 6. 

    According to the CDC, 80% of women are infected with which disease by age 50?

    • HPV

    • HSV

    • Gonorrhea

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HPV. According to the CDC, 80% of women are infected with the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) by the age of 50. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital warts and has been linked to certain types of cancer, including cervical cancer. It is important for women to get regular screenings and vaccinations to prevent and detect HPV infections.

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  • 7. 

    Of the 3800 deaths due to cervical cancer, what percent were linked to HPV?

    • 25%

    • 50%

    • 75%

    • 100%

    Correct Answer
    A. 100%
    Explanation
    The given answer states that 100% of the deaths due to cervical cancer were linked to HPV. This means that every single death from cervical cancer was caused by the human papillomavirus.

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  • 8. 

    Transplacental transmission of HPV can cause what type of cancer in fetus?

    • Cervical

    • Oropharyngeal

    • Hepatocellular

    • Ovarian

    Correct Answer
    A. Oropharyngeal
    Explanation
    Transplacental transmission of HPV refers to the transmission of the human papillomavirus from the mother to the fetus through the placenta during pregnancy. This can result in the development of oropharyngeal cancer in the fetus. Oropharyngeal cancer is a type of cancer that affects the back of the throat, including the base of the tongue and tonsils.

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  • 9. 

    Which type of cervical cancer is most common?

    • Adenocarcinoma

    • Squamous cell

    • Basal cell

    • A & b are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. A & b are correct
    Explanation
    Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell are the two most common types of cervical cancer. Adenocarcinoma arises from the glandular cells lining the cervix, while squamous cell carcinoma develops from the flat, thin cells on the surface of the cervix. Both types account for the majority of cervical cancer cases, with squamous cell carcinoma being slightly more prevalent. Basal cell carcinoma is not a type of cervical cancer, therefore it is not correct.

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  • 10. 

    Which HPV types are linked to genital warts (low risk types)?

    • 6 & 11

    • 6 & 16

    • 11 & 18

    • 16 & 18

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 & 11
    Explanation
    HPV types 6 and 11 are linked to genital warts. These types of HPV are considered low risk because they typically do not cause cancer. Genital warts are a common symptom of an HPV infection and can appear on the genitals or around the anus. HPV types 16 and 18, on the other hand, are considered high risk types as they are known to cause cervical cancer and other types of cancer.

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  • 11. 

    HPV types 16 & 18 are high-risk types that are associated with cervical cancers.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HPV types 16 and 18 are considered high-risk types because they have been found to be strongly associated with the development of cervical cancers. These specific types of HPV are known to have a higher likelihood of causing abnormal cell changes in the cervix, which can eventually lead to the development of cancer. Therefore, it is true that HPV types 16 and 18 are high-risk types that are associated with cervical cancers.

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  • 12. 

    Which layer of the epidermis is targeted by HPV?

    • Stratum corneum

    • Stratum granulosum

    • Stratum lucidum

    • Stratum basale

    Correct Answer
    A. Stratum basale
    Explanation
    HPV (Human Papillomavirus) targets the stratum basale layer of the epidermis. The stratum basale is the deepest layer of the epidermis and is responsible for producing new skin cells. HPV infects the cells in this layer, causing various types of skin warts and lesions.

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  • 13. 

    What percent of CIN 2 infections regress in 2 years?

    • 25%

    • 50%

    • 75%

    • 100%

    Correct Answer
    A. 50%
    Explanation
    CIN 2 refers to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2, which is a precancerous condition of the cervix. The question asks about the percentage of CIN 2 infections that regress in 2 years. The correct answer is 50% because studies have shown that approximately half of the CIN 2 infections can regress spontaneously without any treatment within a 2-year period.

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  • 14. 

    Although most HPV infections are asymptomatic and result in no clinical signs/symptoms, a _________ (which may be planar or cauliflower-like) may develop within weeks or months of infection.

    Correct Answer
    condyloma
    Explanation
    A condyloma is a type of growth that can develop as a result of an HPV infection. It can appear as a flat or cauliflower-like growth and typically develops within a few weeks or months after the infection.

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  • 15. 

    Pleomorphic (various sizes) and hyperchromatic (abundant, dark-stained DNA) nuclei can be seen in a Pap smear who is positive for which disease?

    • HSV

    • Chlamydia

    • Gonorrhea

    • HPV

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    Pap smears are commonly used to detect cervical abnormalities, including those caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. Pleomorphic and hyperchromatic nuclei, which refer to cells with varying sizes and dark-stained DNA, are characteristic of abnormal cells seen in Pap smears of individuals positive for HPV. Therefore, the correct answer is HPV.

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  • 16. 

    The next step after an abnormal Pap smear is a _________ to directly visualize the affected area of the cervix.

    Correct Answer
    colposcopy
    Explanation
    After an abnormal Pap smear, the next step is to perform a colposcopy. This procedure allows for direct visualization of the affected area of the cervix. During a colposcopy, a special magnifying instrument called a colposcope is used to examine the cervix more closely. This helps to identify any abnormal areas or lesions that may require further evaluation or treatment. A colposcopy is an important diagnostic tool in the management of abnormal Pap smears and can provide valuable information for the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.

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  • 17. 

    Which HPV vaccine provides protection from HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18 and is approved for both males and females?

    • Cervarix

    • Gardisil

    Correct Answer
    A. Gardisil
    Explanation
    Gardisil is the correct answer because it provides protection against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18, which are known to cause the majority of cervical cancers, as well as other HPV-related diseases. It is approved for both males and females, making it a suitable option for comprehensive HPV vaccination. Cervarix, on the other hand, only protects against HPV types 16 and 18, and is primarily used in females for the prevention of cervical cancer.

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  • 18. 

    Which organism is a gram-negative obligate intracellular organism that uniquely has no peptidoglycan layer?

    • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    • Escherchia coli

    • Neisseria meningitidis

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlamydia trachomatis
    Explanation
    Chlamydia trachomatis is a gram-negative obligate intracellular organism that uniquely lacks a peptidoglycan layer. Peptidoglycan is a key component of the cell wall in most bacteria, providing structural support and protection. However, Chlamydia trachomatis has evolved to have a modified cell wall structure, lacking peptidoglycan. This unique feature allows it to evade the host immune system and survive within host cells, making it an obligate intracellular pathogen.

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  • 19. 

    Which serotypes of chlamydia is prevalent in Africa, cause eye infections (trachoma), and are the most common cause of infectious blindness worldwide?

    • A, B, Ba and C

    • A, A1 and A2

    • D-K

    • L1, L2 and L3

    Correct Answer
    A. A, B, Ba and C
    Explanation
    Serotypes A, B, Ba, and C of chlamydia are prevalent in Africa and are known to cause eye infections, specifically trachoma. These serotypes are also the most common cause of infectious blindness worldwide.

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  • 20. 

    The most common bacterial STD is ________________.

    • Chlamydia

    • Gonorrhea

    • T. vaginalis

    • Syphilis

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlamydia
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD). It is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis and can be transmitted through sexual contact. Chlamydia often does not show any symptoms, especially in women, which makes it easy to go undetected and untreated. If left untreated, it can lead to serious health complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly and practice safe sex to prevent the spread of chlamydia.

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  • 21. 

    Which lifestyle stage of chlamydia is the infectious form?

    • Inclusion body

    • Reticulate body

    • Elementary body

    Correct Answer
    A. Elementary body
    Explanation
    The correct answer is elementary body. The elementary body is the infectious form of chlamydia. It is a small, non-motile, and metabolically inactive form that is resistant to harsh environmental conditions. It is responsible for the transmission of chlamydia from person to person. Once inside a host cell, the elementary body transforms into the reticulate body, which is the replicative form of chlamydia. The reticulate body then divides and multiplies within the host cell, leading to the formation of inclusion bodies.

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  • 22. 

    During endocytosis, endosomes fuse with each other forming large, characteristic _________ bodies.

    Correct Answer
    inclusion
    Explanation
    During endocytosis, endosomes can fuse with each other, resulting in the formation of large, characteristic inclusion bodies. These inclusion bodies are aggregates of substances that have been taken up by the cell through endocytosis. They can contain a variety of materials, such as proteins, lipids, or even pathogens. The fusion of endosomes allows for the consolidation of these materials into larger structures, which can then be processed and sorted within the cell.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is/are true of chlamydia species?

    • Endosomes do not fuse with lysosomes

    • Can infect conjunctiva in a healthy individual

    • Can cause parasite-directed endocytosis

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The statement "endosomes do not fuse with lysosomes" is true because chlamydia species have evolved mechanisms to prevent fusion of their endosomes with lysosomes, allowing them to avoid degradation and survive within host cells. The statement "can infect conjunctiva in a healthy individual" is also true as chlamydia species can cause conjunctivitis in individuals who have not previously been infected. Lastly, the statement "can cause parasite-directed endocytosis" is true as chlamydia species can manipulate host cells to internalize them through a process called parasite-directed endocytosis.

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  • 24. 

    Chlamydia is typically a dual infection with _____________ .

    • Syphilis

    • Gonorrhea

    • HPV

    • Herpes

    Correct Answer
    A. Gonorrhea
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is typically a dual infection with gonorrhea because both are sexually transmitted infections that often occur together. They have similar risk factors and modes of transmission, and individuals who are infected with one are more likely to also be infected with the other. Additionally, the symptoms of chlamydia and gonorrhea can be similar, making it important to test for both infections if one is suspected. Treatment for chlamydia often includes treatment for gonorrhea as well, to ensure both infections are effectively treated.

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  • 25. 

    ___________________ is the most common pathogenic protozoan in industrialized countries.

    • T. vaginalis

    • N. gonorrhoeae

    • C. trachomatis

    • T. pallidum

    Correct Answer
    A. T. vaginalis
    Explanation
    T. vaginalis is the most common pathogenic protozoan in industrialized countries. This protozoan is responsible for causing trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. It is more prevalent in industrialized countries due to factors such as increased access to healthcare, better diagnostic methods, and higher levels of sexual activity. Trichomoniasis can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort during urination or sexual intercourse. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are important to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.

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  • 26. 

    T. vaginalis testing is typically done by _____________.

    • Wet mount

    • Cultures

    • Antibody testing

    • PCR

    Correct Answer
    A. Wet mount
    Explanation
    T. vaginalis testing is typically done by wet mount. This method involves placing a sample of vaginal discharge on a slide and examining it under a microscope. The wet mount allows the healthcare provider to directly observe the presence of T. vaginalis, which is a parasite that causes trichomoniasis. Cultures, antibody testing, and PCR are alternative methods for T. vaginalis testing, but wet mount is the most common and widely used approach.

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  • 27. 

    75% of symptomatic women infected with Trichomonas vaginalis experience which symptom?

    • Vaginal discharge

    • Dysuria

    • Vulvar itching

    • "disagreeable odor"

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaginal discharge
    Explanation
    Symptomatic women infected with Trichomonas vaginalis often experience vaginal discharge. This is a common symptom of trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. The discharge is usually frothy, yellowish-green in color, and may have a strong odor. Other symptoms of trichomoniasis may include itching, irritation, and discomfort in the vaginal area, as well as pain or burning during urination (dysuria). However, the most prevalent symptom is vaginal discharge.

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  • 28. 

    T. vaginalis is one of the most resilient protozoan trophozoites.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    T. vaginalis is considered one of the most resilient protozoan trophozoites because it is able to survive in a variety of environments and conditions. This protozoan is known to tolerate changes in temperature, pH levels, and oxygen availability. It can also withstand desiccation and remain viable for extended periods. Additionally, T. vaginalis has developed mechanisms to evade the host immune system, further contributing to its resilience. Therefore, the statement that T. vaginalis is one of the most resilient protozoan trophozoites is true.

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  • 29. 

    T. vaginalis is a type of bacterial vaginitis, but is not considered an STD.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Gardnerella vaginalis is a type of bacterial vaginitis, but is not considered an STD.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Krystalnevans

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