Sexually Transmitted Diseases Quiz: Trivia

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  • 1/51 Questions

    Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhea can be ordered together as CT/GC, when STD is suspected.

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz


What do you know about sexually transmitted diseases? Sexually transmitted diseases are generally procured by having sexual contact with a partner who puts you at risk. It can pass on from individual to individual in blood, semen, vaginal, or other body fluids. Some examples of STDs include Chlamydia, HIV, Herpes, and Hepatitis. Taking this quiz can help you see how much you know about sexually transmitted diseases.

Sexually Transmitted Diseases Quiz: Trivia - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Untreated STD can lead to infertility.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Untreated STDs, such as chlamydia or gonorrhea, can lead to various complications, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women. PID can cause damage to the reproductive organs, such as the fallopian tubes, leading to infertility. In men, untreated STDs can cause epididymitis, which can also result in infertility. Therefore, it is true that untreated STDs can lead to infertility.

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  • 3. 

    At-risk healthcare workers must be immunized against HBV or must sign a refusal statement waiving employer liability.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Healthcare workers are at a higher risk of exposure to hepatitis B virus (HBV) due to their occupation. To protect themselves and prevent the spread of the virus, it is important for at-risk healthcare workers to be immunized against HBV. This immunization not only safeguards the healthcare workers but also reduces the risk of transmission to patients. Alternatively, if a healthcare worker refuses to be immunized, they may sign a refusal statement waiving employer liability. This ensures that the healthcare worker is aware of the risks involved and takes responsibility for their decision. Therefore, the statement "At-risk healthcare workers must be immunized against HBV or must sign a refusal statement waiving employer liability" is true.

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  • 4. 

    The late stage of Syphilis can affect the cardiovascular and central nervous system

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Late stage syphilis, also known as tertiary syphilis, can indeed affect the cardiovascular and central nervous system. This stage typically occurs years after the initial infection and can cause serious complications. Syphilis can lead to inflammation of the blood vessels, known as syphilitic arteritis, which can result in heart problems such as aneurysms or valve damage. Additionally, neurosyphilis can occur, affecting the central nervous system and causing symptoms such as dementia, paralysis, or sensory deficits. Therefore, it is true that the late stage of syphilis can impact both the cardiovascular and central nervous system.

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  • 5. 

    Employees at risk of getting infected with HBV like phlebotomists must either be vaccinated with HBV or fill out a waiver form.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Employees who are at risk of getting infected with HBV, such as phlebotomists, must either be vaccinated with HBV or fill out a waiver form. This means that it is mandatory for these employees to take preventive measures to protect themselves from the virus. Vaccination is the recommended option as it provides the best protection against HBV. However, if an employee chooses not to get vaccinated, they can fill out a waiver form indicating their decision and assuming responsibility for any potential risks. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately reflects the requirement for employees at risk of HBV infection.

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  • 6. 

    Complex STD tests that are time-consuming and require advanced technology should be sent to the reference laboratory.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Complex STD tests that are time-consuming and require advanced technology should be sent to the reference laboratory. This means that these tests cannot be effectively conducted in a regular laboratory setting and need to be sent to a specialized facility with the necessary resources and expertise. Therefore, the statement "True" indicates that sending these tests to a reference laboratory is the appropriate course of action.

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  • 7. 

    In men, some of the symptoms of STD are similar to those of UTI.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In men, some symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can be similar to those of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Both conditions can cause symptoms such as pain or discomfort during urination, frequent urination, and an urgent need to urinate. Additionally, STDs can sometimes lead to urinary tract infections as a secondary infection. Therefore, it is important for men experiencing these symptoms to seek medical attention to determine the cause and receive appropriate treatment.

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  • 8. 

    HBV can be transmitted sexually or through contact with blood or other body fluids.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HBV, or Hepatitis B virus, can indeed be transmitted sexually or through contact with blood or other body fluids. This means that engaging in unprotected sexual activities with an infected person or coming into contact with their blood, saliva, semen, vaginal fluids, or breast milk can put individuals at risk of contracting the virus. It is important to practice safe sex and avoid sharing needles or other personal items that may come into contact with blood or bodily fluids to prevent the spread of HBV.

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  • 9. 

    Tests for HIV have been developed to detect HIV antibodies in saliva, urine, and blood.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Tests for HIV have been developed to detect HIV antibodies in saliva, urine, and blood. This means that there are testing methods available that can identify the presence of HIV antibodies in these bodily fluids. These tests are important for diagnosing HIV infection and monitoring the progression of the disease. By detecting HIV antibodies, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate medical care and support to individuals living with HIV. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 10. 

    The disease Gonorrhea is caused by

    • Trichomonas gonorrhea

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Chlamydia gonorrhea

    • Candida gonorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Neisseria gonorrhea
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhea. This bacterium is responsible for infecting the genital tract, rectum, and throat. It is primarily transmitted through sexual contact with an infected person. Neisseria gonorrhea can cause symptoms such as painful urination, discharge from the genitals, and in some cases, it may lead to serious complications if left untreated. Therefore, Neisseria gonorrhea is the correct answer as it is the specific bacteria responsible for causing the disease.

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  • 11. 

    High serum titers for HSV-1 or HSV-2  IgM antibodies indicate that the patient has active herpes.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    High serum titers for HSV-1 or HSV-2 IgM antibodies indicate that the patient has active herpes because IgM antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to a recent infection. Therefore, the presence of high levels of these antibodies suggests that the patient's immune system is actively fighting the herpes virus, indicating an ongoing infection.

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  • 12. 

    Neisseria gonorrhea is a fastidious organism.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Neisseria gonorrhea is classified as a fastidious organism because it has specific nutritional requirements for growth and survival. It cannot grow on standard laboratory media and requires enriched media with specific nutrients. This characteristic makes it difficult to isolate and study in the laboratory. Therefore, the statement that Neisseria gonorrhea is a fastidious organism is true.

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  • 13. 

    HPV CAN CAUSE ANAL CANCER, VULVAR CANCER, AND PENILE CANCER.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known cause of anal cancer, vulvar cancer, and penile cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to the development of various types of cancer, including those affecting the anus, vulva, and penis. It is important to be aware of the risks associated with HPV and to take preventive measures such as vaccination and regular screenings to detect any potential cancerous changes early.

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  • 14. 

    Neisseria gonorrhea is also known as gonococcus.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Neisseria gonorrhea is indeed also known as gonococcus. Neisseria gonorrhea is a type of bacteria that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhea. The bacteria are commonly referred to as gonococcus due to their characteristic appearance under a microscope. This name is derived from the genus Neisseria, which includes several species of bacteria. Therefore, the statement "Neisseria gonorrhea is also known as gonococcus" is true.

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  • 15. 

    Untreated STD can lead to sterility.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Untreated STDs can lead to sterility because certain sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia and gonorrhea, can cause damage to the reproductive organs if left untreated. In women, these infections can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can result in scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, making it difficult or impossible to conceive. In men, untreated STDs can cause inflammation and scarring of the testicles and epididymis, leading to reduced sperm count and motility. Therefore, it is important to seek prompt medical treatment for STDs to prevent potential long-term complications like sterility.

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  • 16. 

    What is the causative organism for Syphilis?

    • Candida albicans

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    • Treponema Pallidum

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    Correct Answer
    A. Treponema Pallidum
    Explanation
    Treponema Pallidum is the causative organism for Syphilis. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by this bacterium. It is a spirochete bacterium that enters the body through mucous membranes or breaks in the skin during sexual contact. Treponema Pallidum can cause a wide range of symptoms and complications if left untreated, including skin rashes, fever, sore throat, and neurological problems. It is important to diagnose and treat Syphilis early to prevent further complications and transmission.

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  • 17. 

    Neisseria gonorrhea requires a 5% - 10% CO2 environment to grow.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Neisseria gonorrhea is a bacteria that requires a specific environment to grow, and one of the key requirements is a 5% - 10% CO2 environment. This means that the bacteria thrives in an atmosphere with a higher concentration of carbon dioxide. Therefore, the statement "Neisseria gonorrhea requires a 5% - 10% CO2 environment to grow" is true.

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  • 18. 

    RPR STANDS FOR

    • RUPTURE PRESSURE RATIO

    • RAPID PLASMA REAGIN

    • RAPID PENIS REPUGNANT

    Correct Answer
    A. RAPID PLASMA REAGIN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "RAPID PLASMA REAGIN." RPR is an abbreviation used in medical testing, specifically for the Rapid Plasma Reagin test. This test is used to screen for syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The RPR test detects antibodies produced by the body in response to the infection. By measuring the ratio of these antibodies in the plasma, the test can help diagnose syphilis. Therefore, RPR stands for Rapid Plasma Reagin in the context of medical testing.

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  • 19. 

    When testing for the cause of urethritis in men, urethral swabs and urine specimens for STD should be collected first before, urinalysis urine specimen.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Collecting urethral swabs and urine specimens for STD testing before conducting a urinalysis urine specimen is the correct approach when testing for the cause of urethritis in men. This is because STDs are a common cause of urethritis, and collecting samples specifically for STD testing allows for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Urinalysis may not always detect the specific pathogens responsible for urethritis, so it is important to prioritize STD testing to ensure accurate results and effective management of the condition.

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  • 20. 

    The gram stained smear from the endocervical swab of a healthy woman should contain

    • Moderate Lactobacillus

    • Lots of Candida albicans

    • Some Neisseria gonorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Moderate Lactobacillus
    Explanation
    The gram stained smear from the endocervical swab of a healthy woman should contain moderate Lactobacillus. Lactobacillus is a normal part of the vaginal microbiota and helps maintain a healthy vaginal environment by producing lactic acid, which helps to prevent the overgrowth of harmful bacteria. Moderate levels of Lactobacillus indicate a balanced vaginal microbiota and suggest good vaginal health. The presence of lots of Candida albicans (a fungus that can cause vaginal yeast infections) or Neisseria gonorrhea (a sexually transmitted infection) would be abnormal and indicate an imbalance or infection.

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  • 21. 
    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SOURCES COULD THIS TRANSPORT MEDIA BE USED FOR - ProProfs

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SOURCES COULD THIS TRANSPORT MEDIA BE USED FOR

    • MALE URETHRA

    • NOSE

    • SKIN

    • WOUND

    Correct Answer
    A. MALE URETHRA
    Explanation
    The transport media could be used for the male urethra because it is a specific anatomical location that requires a specialized medium for transporting samples. The other options, such as the nose, skin, and wound, do not necessarily require a transport media for sample collection and transportation.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following causes cervical cancer?

    • HIV

    • HPV

    • HSV

    • HBV

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is the correct answer because it is a well-known and established cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to the development of abnormal cells in the cervix, which can eventually progress to cervical cancer if left untreated. Other options like HIV, HSV, and HBV are not directly linked to cervical cancer. HIV weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections including HPV, but it is not a direct cause. HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus) causes genital herpes, and HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) causes liver inflammation, but neither are known to cause cervical cancer.

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  • 23. 

    What is the causative organism for vaginal yeast infection?

    • Candida albicans

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    • Treponema Pallidum

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    Correct Answer
    A. Candida albicans
    Explanation
    Candida albicans is the causative organism for vaginal yeast infection. This fungus is commonly found in the vaginal flora and can overgrow under certain conditions, such as hormonal changes, weakened immune system, or antibiotic use. It causes symptoms like itching, burning, and abnormal discharge. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, not yeast infections. Treponema pallidum is the bacterium responsible for syphilis, and Chlamydia trachomatis is the bacterium responsible for chlamydia, neither of which are associated with yeast infections.

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  • 24. 

    Choose all the common symptoms of urethritis caused by STDs.

    • Laughing while urinating

    • Burning sensation on urination

    • Penile discharge

    • Sleeping while urinating

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Burning sensation on urination
    A. Penile discharge
    Explanation
    The common symptoms of urethritis caused by STDs include a burning sensation during urination and penile discharge. These symptoms are typically experienced by individuals with STD-related urethritis and can indicate an infection or inflammation in the urethra. The presence of these symptoms should prompt individuals to seek medical attention for diagnosis and treatment.

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  • 25. 

    Saliva and urine from HIV-infected patients contain HIV antibodies

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Saliva and urine from HIV-infected patients contain HIV antibodies. This is because HIV antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to the presence of HIV in the body. These antibodies can be found in various bodily fluids, including saliva and urine. Therefore, it is true that saliva and urine from HIV-infected patients contain HIV antibodies.

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  • 26. 

    Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular bacteria, and can not be culture on agar.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular bacteria, meaning it can only survive and reproduce inside host cells. This characteristic makes it impossible to culture Chlamydia on agar, a solid medium commonly used to grow bacteria in a laboratory setting. Therefore, the statement that Chlamydia cannot be cultured on agar is true.

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  • 27. 

    The results obtained from rapid EIA tests for HIV infection are confirmed through a more specific test like

    • Strep test

    • Latex test

    • Optical tests

    • Western blot

    Correct Answer
    A. Western blot
    Explanation
    The results obtained from rapid EIA tests for HIV infection are confirmed through a more specific test like western blot. Western blot is a highly accurate and reliable test that detects specific HIV antibodies in the blood. It is used to confirm the results of the rapid EIA test and to rule out any false positives or negatives. This test helps to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for individuals with HIV infection.

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  • 28. 
    - ProProfs

    • UNIVERSAL TRANSPORT MEDIA

    • VIROCCULT

    • PLASMA PREPARATION TUBE

    • Gen probe APTIMA unisex collection kit

    Correct Answer
    A. Gen probe APTIMA unisex collection kit
  • 29. 

    The chronic infection to ____________ can lead to liver cancer.(hepatocarcinoma)

    • HBV

    • HSV

    • HPV

    • HIV

    Correct Answer
    A. HBV
    Explanation
    Chronic infection with HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) can lead to liver cancer, specifically hepatocarcinoma. HBV is a virus that primarily affects the liver and can cause both acute and chronic infections. Chronic HBV infection can lead to inflammation of the liver, which over time can progress to liver cirrhosis and ultimately increase the risk of developing liver cancer. Therefore, HBV is the correct answer as it is directly associated with the development of hepatocarcinoma.

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  • 30. 
    - ProProfs

    • THIS IS UTM

    • THIS IS A GEN PROBE

    • THIS IS AVCM

    • THIS IS BRONCH TANSPORT

    Correct Answer
    A. THIS IS A GEN PROBE
  • 31. 

    One of the following is a slide test ordered by doctors to check for the presence of fungi microscopically in a specimen is

    • Gram stain

    • Saline prep

    • KOH prep

    Correct Answer
    A. KOH prep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is KOH prep. A KOH prep is a slide test ordered by doctors to check for the presence of fungi microscopically in a specimen. KOH stands for potassium hydroxide, which is used to dissolve the non-fungal elements in the specimen, leaving behind the fungal elements. This allows for easier visualization of the fungi under a microscope. Gram stain is a different type of slide test used to identify bacteria, while saline prep is used to examine cells for abnormalities.

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  • 32. 

    The __________antigen can be detected early after the HIV infection, then disappears and cannot be detected again until later stages.

    • P24

    • P25

    • P26

    • P27

    Correct Answer
    A. P24
    Explanation
    The p24 antigen is a protein that is produced by the HIV virus during the early stages of infection. It can be detected in the blood shortly after infection, but then disappears as the immune system starts to produce antibodies against the virus. During later stages of HIV infection, the p24 antigen may reappear, indicating a progression of the disease.

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  • 33. 

    Vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria are called

    • Clue cells

    • Hint cells

    • Evidence cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Clue cells
    Explanation
    Clue cells refer to vaginal epithelial cells that are covered with bacteria. The presence of these cells is an indicator of bacterial vaginosis, a common vaginal infection. The bacteria adhere to the surface of the epithelial cells, giving them a characteristic "clue" appearance under a microscope. Identifying clue cells is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial vaginosis.

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  • 34. 

    Physician office laboratory has to at least have a ____________ in order to run the three slide tests of vaginitis.

    • CLIA waived

    • PPMP

    • COA

    Correct Answer
    A. PPMP
    Explanation
    A physician office laboratory needs to have a PPMP (Provider-Performed Microscopy Procedures) in order to run the three slide tests of vaginitis. PPMP refers to a set of regulations and guidelines established by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) that allow certain microscopy procedures to be performed by healthcare providers in their own offices. This ensures that the laboratory meets the necessary quality standards and can accurately perform the required tests for vaginitis.

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  • 35. 
     WHAT IS THIS? - ProProfs

     WHAT IS THIS?

    • GEN PROBE

    • UTM

    • VCM

    Correct Answer
    A. GEN PROBE
  • 36. 

    The chemical used to destroy epithelial cells and white blood cells in specimen allowing any fungi present to be seen microscopically is

    • Oxidase reagent

    • Gram stain

    • Saline

    • KOH

    Correct Answer
    A. KOH
    Explanation
    KOH, or potassium hydroxide, is used to destroy epithelial cells and white blood cells in a specimen. This process allows any fungi present to be seen microscopically. KOH works by breaking down the cells, making them easier to visualize under a microscope. It is commonly used in the laboratory to aid in the diagnosis of fungal infections.

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  • 37. 

    Neisseria gonorrhea is cultured on which agar?

    • TSA W 5% SHEEP BLOOD

    • VANCOMYCIN

    • MACCONKEY

    • MODIFIED THAYER MARTIN

    Correct Answer
    A. MODIFIED THAYER MARTIN
    Explanation
    Modified Thayer Martin agar is the correct agar for culturing Neisseria gonorrhea. This agar contains antibiotics such as vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, and trimethoprim, which inhibit the growth of other bacteria and fungi, allowing for the selective growth of Neisseria gonorrhea. The agar also contains chocolate agar, which provides the necessary nutrients for the growth of the bacteria. Therefore, Modified Thayer Martin agar is specifically designed to support the growth of Neisseria gonorrhea and is the ideal medium for its culture.

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  • 38. 
    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SITES CAN THIS TRANSPORT MEDIA  BE USED FOR - ProProfs

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SITES CAN THIS TRANSPORT MEDIA  BE USED FOR

    • TEARS

    • HAIR

    • ENDOCERVIX

    • VAGINA

    Correct Answer
    A. ENDOCERVIX
    Explanation
    This transport media can be used for the endocervix because it is a site where samples can be collected and preserved for further testing or analysis. The transport media helps maintain the integrity of the sample and ensures that any microorganisms present are not affected during transportation. It is specifically designed for use with samples from the endocervix, which is the inner lining of the cervix.

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  • 39. 

    FOR DNA PROBE URINE SPECIMEN FOR CHLAMYDIA/GONORRHEA TESTS.

    • USE THE FIRST CATCH

    • USE THE MID STREAM

    • USE THE LAST CATCH

    Correct Answer
    A. USE THE FIRST CATCH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "USE THE FIRST CATCH." When collecting a urine specimen for Chlamydia/Gonorrhea tests, it is recommended to use the first catch of urine. This refers to the initial portion of urine that is voided, as it is more likely to contain any potential pathogens present in the urinary tract. Using the first catch helps to ensure a more accurate and reliable test result.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is used to check for immunity after receiving the HBV vaccine?

    • HBsAg

    • Anti-HBsAg

    • HBcAG

    • Anti-HbsAg

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-HBsAg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is anti-HBsAg. After receiving the HBV vaccine, the body produces antibodies against the hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg). These antibodies are called anti-HBsAg. Testing for the presence of anti-HBsAg in the blood can determine if a person has developed immunity to the hepatitis B virus after vaccination.

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  • 41. 

    Choose all of the tests included in the three slides tests ordered when a patient presents with symptoms of vaginitis.

    • Saline wet prep (wet mount)

    • KOH prep

    • Gram stain

    • Right stain

    • Sputum culture

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Saline wet prep (wet mount)
    A. KOH prep
    A. Gram stain
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the tests that are commonly performed when a patient presents with symptoms of vaginitis. A saline wet prep (wet mount) is used to examine vaginal discharge for the presence of yeast cells, bacterial vaginosis, or Trichomonas. A KOH prep is used to detect the presence of fungal infections. A gram stain is performed to identify the type of bacteria causing the infection. The other options, such as right stain and sputum culture, are not relevant to diagnosing vaginitis.

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  • 42. 

    PATIENTS INFECTED WITH SYpHILIS PRODUCE ANTIBODY-LIKE SUBSTANCE CALLED

    • HETEROPHILE ANTIBODIES

    • REAGIN

    • RPR

    Correct Answer
    A. REAGIN
    Explanation
    Patients infected with syphilis produce an antibody-like substance called reagin. Reagin is a type of antibody that is not specific to the syphilis bacteria but is instead produced in response to the infection. It is commonly used in diagnostic tests for syphilis, such as the Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test. The presence of reagin in a patient's blood indicates that they have been infected with syphilis.

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  • 43. 
    - ProProfs

    • ONLY THE BLUE SWAB SHOULD BE PLACED IN THE TRANSPORT MEDIA

    • ONLY THE WHITE SWAB SHOULD BE PLACED IN THE TRANSPORT MEDIA

    • BOTH SWABS SHOULD BE PLACED IN THE TRANSPORT MEDIA

    • Answer option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. ONLY THE BLUE SWAB SHOULD BE PLACED IN THE TRANSPORT MEDIA
  • 44. 

    Lesions of HSV can be broken and content collected with a swab for HSV test through viral cultures. The swab should not be placed into any transport media.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false. When collecting a swab for HSV test through viral cultures, it is necessary to place the swab into a transport media. This is done to preserve the sample and prevent contamination. Without the transport media, the swab may not be suitable for testing, as the viral particles may degrade or become contaminated.

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  • 45. 
     WHAT IS THIS - ProProfs

     WHAT IS THIS

    • UTM

    • VCM

    • GEN PROBE

    Correct Answer
    A. UTM
    Explanation
    UTM stands for Universal Transport Medium, which is a type of transport medium used in medical laboratories for the collection, transport, and preservation of clinical specimens, such as swabs, for the detection of infectious diseases. UTM ensures the viability of the microorganisms in the specimen during transportation to the laboratory, allowing for accurate and reliable testing. It contains a buffer solution that maintains the pH level and prevents the growth of bacteria, fungi, and viruses. UTM is commonly used for various diagnostic tests, including molecular testing methods like PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

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  • 46. 

    What agar plate is chlamydia inoculated on

    • TSA w/ 5% sheep blood

    • MTM

    • Chocolate

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. None
    Explanation
    Chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that cannot grow on agar plates alone. It requires living cells to grow and replicate. Therefore, it cannot be inoculated on any of the agar plates mentioned (TSA w/ 5% sheep blood, MTM, or chocolate). The correct answer is "none" because Chlamydia requires specialized cell culture techniques for its growth and detection.

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  • 47. 
     SPECIMEN USED IS - ProProfs

     SPECIMEN USED IS

    • VAGINA

    • ENDOCERVIX

    • URINE

    • URETHRA

    Correct Answer
    A. VAGINA
    Explanation
    The answer is VAGINA because it is the only option that is mentioned in the given specimen list. The other options, such as endocervix, urine, and urethra, are not mentioned in the list.

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  • 48. 

    When testing for the cause of urethritis in men, a urinalysis urine specimens should be collected first before urethral swabs and urine specimens for STD.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The correct answer is False. When testing for the cause of urethritis in men, urethral swabs and urine specimens for STD should be collected first before a urinalysis. This is because the urinalysis may not provide accurate results for detecting the specific pathogens causing the infection, while the swabs and urine specimens for STD can directly identify the presence of sexually transmitted diseases that commonly cause urethritis. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the collection of these samples before conducting a urinalysis.

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  • 49. 

    Chlamydia is tested in the following ways.

    • DNA probe

    • Cell culture

    • In agar plates

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. DNA probe
    A. Cell culture
    Explanation
    Chlamydia can be tested using a DNA probe or through cell culture. A DNA probe is a molecular technique that detects the presence of chlamydia DNA in a patient's sample. This method is highly sensitive and specific, allowing for accurate diagnosis. On the other hand, cell culture involves growing chlamydia bacteria in a laboratory setting. This method allows for the identification and isolation of the bacteria, confirming the presence of chlamydia. Both DNA probe and cell culture are commonly used methods for testing chlamydia due to their reliability and accuracy.

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