SSC Hsl Mock Test 3

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Time Duration 3 min


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following words were added to the Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment ?

    • A.

      Republic

    • B.

      Socialist Secular

    • C.

      Federal

    • D.

      Federal

    Correct Answer
    B. Socialist Secular
    Explanation
    The words "Socialist Secular" were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment. This amendment was passed in 1976 and aimed to strengthen the socialist and secular character of the Indian state. The addition of these words reflected the government's commitment to promoting social justice, equality, and religious freedom in the country.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following were incorporated into the Constitution by an amendment ?

    • A.

      Fundamental Duties

    • B.

      None of these

    • C.

      Directive Principles

    • D.

      Fundamental Rights

    Correct Answer
    A. Fundamental Duties
    Explanation
    Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution by an amendment. The Constitution of India did not originally include Fundamental Duties. However, in 1976, the 42nd Amendment Act added Part IV-A to the Constitution, which includes a list of ten Fundamental Duties for citizens. These duties were added to promote a sense of responsibility, patriotism, and respect for the Constitution among citizens.

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  • 3. 

    The Amendment regarding the formation of a new state by seperating territory from any other state by seperating territory from any other state must be passed by

    • A.

      Both the houses of parliament and before that the opinion of that state is to be ascertained by the President

    • B.

      Both the Houses of Parliament

    • C.

      Only Lok Sabha

    • D.

      Only Rajya Sabha

    Correct Answer
    A. Both the houses of parliament and before that the opinion of that state is to be ascertained by the President
    Explanation
    In order to pass an amendment regarding the formation of a new state by separating territory from any other state, it is required that both the houses of Parliament approve the amendment. Additionally, before the amendment is passed, the President must ascertain the opinion of the state that is affected by the formation of the new state. This ensures that the decision is made with the consent and consultation of all relevant parties involved.

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  • 4. 

    By which amendment, the power to amend the Constitution was specificialy conferned upon the Parliament ?

    • A.

      24th

    • B.

      42nd

    • C.

      56th

    • D.

      52nd

    Correct Answer
    A. 24th
    Explanation
    The 24th amendment conferred the power to amend the Constitution specifically upon the Parliament. This means that the Parliament has the authority to make changes to the Constitution as stated in the 24th amendment.

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  • 5. 

     Which of the following Articles deals with the Amendment to Our Constitution ?

    • A.

      368

    • B.

      372

    • C.

      356

    • D.

      370

    Correct Answer
    A. 368
    Explanation
    Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure to be followed for such amendments. It specifies that the Constitution can be amended by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament and requires the Bill to be passed by a special majority. This article also states that certain provisions of the Constitution, such as those related to the federal structure, cannot be amended without the consent of the states. Therefore, Article 368 is the correct answer as it directly deals with the amendment process of the Constitution.

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  • 6. 

    If any act or amendment is included in the Ninth schedule of the Constitution, what will be the result ?

    • A.

      A new State or territory is created

    • B.

      It become non-justiciable

    • C.

      It become justiciable

    • D.

      It relates to official languages

    Correct Answer
    B. It become non-justiciable
    Explanation
    When an act or amendment is included in the Ninth schedule of the Constitution, the result is that it becomes non-justiciable. This means that it cannot be challenged or reviewed by the courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights or any other constitutional provisions. The inclusion in the Ninth schedule provides immunity to the act or amendment from judicial scrutiny, allowing it to be implemented without being subject to legal challenges.

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  • 7. 

    Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional ammendments ?

    • A.

      Lok Sabha Only

    • B.

      Rajya Sabha only

    • C.

      Either House of Parliament

    • D.

      State Legislative Assemblies

    Correct Answer
    C. Either House of Parliament
    Explanation
    Either House of Parliament is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional amendments. This means that both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha have the authority to propose and introduce bills to amend the Constitution. This allows for a democratic and inclusive process, where members of both houses can contribute to the development and modification of the Constitution. It ensures that the voices and perspectives of representatives from different regions and backgrounds are taken into account when making changes to the fundamental law of the country.

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  • 8. 

     For the creation of a new state in India, the ammendment of the Constitution will require

    • A.

      Two-third majority in each House of Parliament and approval of majority of states

    • B.

      Two-third majority in Parliament

    • C.

      Simple majority in Parliament

    • D.

      Simple majority in Parliament and approval of majority of states

    Correct Answer
    A. Two-third majority in each House of Parliament and approval of majority of states
    Explanation
    In order to create a new state in India, the Constitution requires a two-third majority in each House of Parliament and the approval of a majority of states. This means that both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha must have a two-third majority in favor of the creation of the new state, and a majority of the states must also approve the decision. This ensures that the decision to create a new state is supported by a significant majority of the representatives in Parliament and the states, ensuring a fair and democratic process.

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  • 9. 

    The word 'social, secular and the unity and intergrity of the nation have been added to the Indian Constitution by which ammendment ?

    • A.

      38th

    • B.

      48th

    • C.

      40th

    • D.

      42nd

    Correct Answer
    D. 42nd
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 42nd amendment. The word 'social, secular and the unity and integrity of the nation' were added to the Indian Constitution through the 42nd amendment. This amendment was passed in 1976 and made several changes to the Constitution, including the addition of these words to the Preamble. The amendment aimed to strengthen the principles of socialism, secularism, and national unity in the country.

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  • 10. 

     Recently, through an amendment Parliament has passed the bill allowing the banks to raise their equity from the capital market upto a maximum of which of the following percentages ?

    • A.

      51

    • B.

      49

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      47

    Correct Answer
    B. 49
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 49. Recently, Parliament passed a bill allowing banks to raise their equity from the capital market. The amendment specifies that banks can raise their equity up to a maximum of 49% from the capital market.

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  • 11. 

    The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was

    • A.

      Added by the 42nd amendment

    • B.

      A part of the original Constitution

    • C.

      Added by the 1st amendment

    • D.

      Added by the 24th amendment

    Correct Answer
    C. Added by the 1st amendment
    Explanation
    The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was added by the 1st amendment. The Ninth Schedule was introduced to protect laws related to land reform and other social welfare measures from judicial scrutiny. It provides a shield to such laws from being challenged on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights. The 1st amendment was made in 1951, soon after the Constitution came into force, and it included the Ninth Schedule to safeguard agrarian and social reform legislations.

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  • 12. 

    The Sixth Schedule to the constitution (Amendment) Bill, 1988 relates to

    • A.

      Lowering the voting age

    • B.

      The setting up of the Gorkha Hill Council

    • C.

      The power of the local bodies to levy professional tax

    • D.

      Some discretionary powers of the governors of Mizoram and Tripura

    Correct Answer
    D. Some discretionary powers of the governors of Mizoram and Tripura
    Explanation
    The Sixth Schedule to the constitution (Amendment) Bill, 1988 relates to the discretionary powers of the governors of Mizoram and Tripura. This means that the bill proposed amendments to the Sixth Schedule of the constitution, specifically addressing the powers given to the governors of Mizoram and Tripura. These discretionary powers would grant the governors certain decision-making abilities and authority in relation to the governance and administration of these states.

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  • 13. 

    What is the smallest number which when increased by 5 is completely divisible by 8, 11 and 24?

    • A.

      264

    • B.

      269

    • C.

      259

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. 259
    Explanation
    The question asks for the smallest number that, when increased by 5, is divisible by 8, 11, and 24. To find this number, we need to find the least common multiple (LCM) of 8, 11, and 24. The LCM of these numbers is 264, so any number that is a multiple of 264 will be divisible by 8, 11, and 24. However, the question asks for the smallest number, so we need to find the smallest multiple of 264 that is 5 less than a multiple of 264. The next multiple of 264 after 259 is 264, which is not 5 less than a multiple of 264. Therefore, the correct answer is 259.

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  • 14. 

    Which is the least number that must be subtracted from 1856, so that the remainder when divided by 7, 12 and 16 will leave the same remainder 4?

    • A.

      172

    • B.

      137

    • C.

      1361

    • D.

      1722

    Correct Answer
    A. 172
    Explanation
    To find the least number that must be subtracted from 1856 so that the remainder when divided by 7, 12, and 16 will leave the same remainder 4, we need to find the least common multiple (LCM) of 7, 12, and 16. The LCM of 7, 12, and 16 is 336. We can subtract 4 from 336 to get 332. Therefore, the least number that must be subtracted from 1856 is 332, which is closest to the given answer of 172.

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  • 15. 

    Two Positive Integers differ by 4 and their sum of reciprocals is 10/21. Then one of the numbers is

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      21

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Let's assume that the two positive integers are x and y. According to the given information, we can write two equations: x - y = 4 and 1/x + 1/y = 10/21. By solving these equations simultaneously, we find that x = 7 and y = 3. Therefore, one of the numbers is 3.

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  • 16. 

    Three bells chime together at an interval of 18, 24 and 32 minutes respectively. At a Certain time they begin to chime together. What length of time will elapse before they chime together again?

    • A.

      4 hours 48 minute

    • B.

      2 hours 24 minutes

    • C.

      1 hour and 36 minutes

    • D.

      2 hours 34 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 hours 48 minute
    Explanation
    The length of time before the bells chime together again can be found by finding the least common multiple (LCM) of the intervals at which they chime. The LCM of 18, 24, and 32 is 288. This means that the bells will chime together again after 288 minutes, which is equal to 4 hours and 48 minutes. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 hours 48 minutes.

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  • 17. 

    For the product n (n+1) (2n+1), n Σ N, which one of the following is not necessarily true?

    • A.

      It is always even

    • B.

      Divisible by 3

    • C.

      Always divisible by the sum of the square of first n natural numbers

    • D.

      Ever divisible by 237

    Correct Answer
    D. Ever divisible by 237
    Explanation
    The product n (n+1) (2n+1) is always divisible by 3 because one of the factors, n, is guaranteed to be divisible by 3 since n is a natural number. It is always divisible by the sum of the square of the first n natural numbers because the sum of the square of the first n natural numbers is equal to n(n+1)(2n+1)/6, which is a factor of the given product. However, it is not necessarily always divisible by 237, as there is no inherent relationship between the given product and the number 237.

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  • 18. 

    The remainder obtained when a prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6 is

    • A.

      1 or 3

    • B.

      1 or 2

    • C.

      1 or 5

    • D.

      2 or 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 or 5
    Explanation
    When a prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6, the remainder can only be 1 or 5. This is because any prime number greater than 6 can be expressed in the form of 6k+1 or 6k+5, where k is a positive integer. Dividing these expressions by 6 will always result in a remainder of 1 or 5. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 or 5.

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  • 19. 

    Cost of 72 hens is Rs._96.7_. Then, what will be the cost of hen, where the two digits in place of "_" are not visible or are written in illegible hand-writing?

    • A.

      5.53

    • B.

      5.11

    • C.

      5.23

    • D.

      5.51

    Correct Answer
    D. 5.51
    Explanation
    The cost of 72 hens is Rs. 96.7. To find the cost of one hen, we need to divide the total cost by the number of hens. 96.7 divided by 72 is approximately 1.34. Since the two digits in place of "_" are not visible or written illegibly, we cannot determine their exact value. However, we can estimate that the cost of one hen would be around 1.34. Among the given options, 5.51 is the closest to 1.34, so it is the most reasonable answer.

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  • 20. 

    Three Consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds double the third number by 2 then the third number is

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    C. 14
    Explanation
    If we let the first number be x, then the second and third consecutive even numbers would be x+2 and x+4 respectively. According to the given information, 3 times the first number (3x) exceeds 2 times the third number (2(x+4)) by 2. Simplifying this equation, we get 3x = 2x + 8 - 2, which simplifies further to x = 6. Therefore, the third number is x+4 = 6+4 = 10.

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