Services Vol 1

60 Questions | Attempts: 127
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Service Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Who ensures all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment where recognized standards are eliminated or controlled at acceptable levels?

    • A.

      Installation Commander

    • B.

      Force Support Sqd Commander

    • C.

      Public Health official

    • D.

      Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Commander
  • 2. 

    (001) Who provides safe and healthful workplaces, and conducts periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies?

    • A.

      Commanders, resource management flight chief, and supervisors

    • B.

      Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors

    • C.

      Commanders, public health, and supervisors

    • D.

      Commanders and supervisors only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors
  • 3. 

    3. (001) Who should promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Force support squadron commander

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      All Air Force personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. All Air Force personnel.
  • 4. 

    (002) What enables Air Force personnel to meet their Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program responsibilities?

    • A.

      Commanders.

    • B.

      Supervisors.

    • C.

      Training.

    • D.

      Instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Training.
  • 5. 

    (002) Detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions at the earliest possible time and abating hazards at the lowest possible working level are essential elements of what program ?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH

    • B.

      OSHA and AFOSH only when on a military base

    • C.

      AFOSH

    • D.

      OSHA

    Correct Answer
    C. AFOSH
  • 6. 

    How is the decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course made?

    • A.

      Subject matter experts’ inputs only.

    • B.

      A review of the occupational survey report (OSR) data only.

    • C.

      By the career field manager based on his or her experiences.

    • D.

      A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts’ inputs.

    Correct Answer
    D. A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts’ inputs.
  • 7. 

    7. (003) Training for the Services Journeyman (5) level primarily consist of

    • A.

      Fitness Specialist course.

    • B.

      On-the-job training (OJT).

    • C.

      Shift leader mobile training.

    • D.

      Journeyman Leadership course.

    Correct Answer
    B. On-the-job training (OJT).
  • 8. 

    (003) How many months do individuals in Journeyman (5-skill level) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete their entire career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      18

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
  • 9. 

    (004) The career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides all of the following except a

    • A.

      Comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education/training requirements.

    • B.

      Clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of career field training.

    • C.

      Clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training.

    • D.

      Clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job.

    Correct Answer
    D. Clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job.
  • 10. 

    (004) The career field education and training plan (CFETP) is made up of how many parts?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
  • 11. 

    (004) The specialty training standards (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • C.

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
  • 12. 

    What is not designed to let trainees train themselves?

    • A.

      Career field education and training plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Services training aids (STA).

    • C.

      Career field standard (CFS).

    • D.

      Specialty training standard (STS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Services training aids (STA).
  • 13. 

    (004) How many category lists do you prepare when prioritizing work?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
  • 14. 

    (004) Which is not a factor that affects objective assessment?

    • A.

      Odd ball effect.

    • B.

      I-did-it-better effect.

    • C.

      Leveling effect.

    • D.

      It wasn’t me effect.

    Correct Answer
    D. It wasn’t me effect.
  • 15. 

    People in what ranks are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions?

    • A.

      Airman first class (A1C) – technical sergeant (TSgt).

    • B.

      A1C – master sergeant (MSgt).

    • C.

      Senior Airman (SrA) – MSgt.

    • D.

      SrA – senior master sergeant (SMSgt).

    Correct Answer
    C. Senior Airman (SrA) – MSgt.
  • 16. 

    (005) The 2 Track rotation program is mandatory for people with ranks of airman basic (AB) to

    • A.

      Senior airman (SrA).

    • B.

      Staff sergeant (SSgt).

    • C.

      Technical sergeant (TSgt).

    • D.

      Master sergeant (MSgt).

    Correct Answer
    B. Staff sergeant (SSgt).
  • 17. 

    A person is automatically entered into Track 2 when he or she rotates into what core function?

    • A.

      Food

    • B.

      Fitness

    • C.

      Lodging

    • D.

      Readiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Food
  • 18. 

    When developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?

    • A.

      Individual

    • B.

      Supervisor

    • C.

      Flight Chief

    • D.

      Activity Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Supervisor
  • 19. 

    Which is NOT an advantage of developing a Master Training Plan (MTP)?

    • A.

      Listing all task requirements in one place.

    • B.

      The task requirements have to be memorized.

    • C.

      Promotes program continuity by allowing everyone to know what the requirements are.

    • D.

      The master task listing (MTL) can be broken down to show what tasks and skill levels are required for specific duty positions

    Correct Answer
    B. The task requirements have to be memorized.
  • 20. 

    What are the two types of manpower requirements?

    • A.

      Military and civilian

    • B.

      Funded and unfunded

    • C.

      Dept of Defense (DOD) and contractor

    • D.

      Appropriated fund (APF) and nonappropriated fund (NAF)

    Correct Answer
    B. Funded and unfunded
  • 21. 

    21. (007) What shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission?

    • A.

      Alpha roster.

    • B.

      Manpower authorization.

    • C.

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

    • D.

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit manpower document (UMD).
  • 22. 

    What do positions termed military essential on our unit manpower document (UMD) indicate?

    • A.

      Must be filled by military members.

    • B.

      Can be filled by in-service civilians.

    • C.

      Required by the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

    • D.

      A position that is vital to the success of the Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be filled by military members.
  • 23. 

    What does “double billeted” refer to?

    • A.

      A unit manpower document (UMD) term that will cause a permanent change of station (PCS) move.

    • B.

      A conditions that usually causes a shortage

    • C.

      Two people assigned to the same UMD position

    • D.

      Someone promoted to SMSgt or Chief, and their unit does not have an authorization for that grade.

    Correct Answer
    C. Two people assigned to the same UMD position
  • 24. 

    After how many days will major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational?

    • A.

      The first 30.

    • B.

      The first 60.

    • C.

      The first 90.

    • D.

      The first 120.

    Correct Answer
    A. The first 30.
  • 25. 

    Which organization is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations?

    • A.

      Unit

    • B.

      Squadron.

    • C.

      Base.

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Major command (MAJCOM)
  • 26. 

    Which agency, other than the field operating agency (FOA), determines the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements?

    • A.

      Installation command section

    • B.

      Air reserve component (ARC)

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • D.

      Unit command section.

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command (MAJCOM)
  • 27. 

    Who determines fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract?

    • A.

      Nonappropriated funds (NAF) accounting officer (AO).

    • B.

      Contracting officer.

    • C.

      Force support squadron commander.

    • D.

      Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracting officer.
  • 28. 

    What kind of contract is awarded to an individual for his or her unique skill, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?

    • A.

      Group

    • B.

      Individual

    • C.

      Performance

    • D.

      Entertainment

    Correct Answer
    B. Individual
  • 29. 

    Who is authorized to terminate orders or contracts?

    • A.

      Nonappropriated fund (NAF) accounting officer (AO).

    • B.

      Installation commander

    • C.

      Force support squadron commander

    • D.

      Contracting officer

    Correct Answer
    D. Contracting officer
  • 30. 

    010) Who approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)?

    • A.

      NAF accounting officer (AO).

    • B.

      Installation commander

    • C.

      Force support squadron commander

    • D.

      Contracting officer

    Correct Answer
    B. Installation commander
  • 31. 

    Strategic sourcing (SS) memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the

    • A.

      Loss in appropriated funds (APF) manpower

    • B.

      Loss in non-appropriated funds (NAF) manpower

    • C.

      Increase in APF manpower costs.

    • D.

      Increase in NAF manpower costs

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss in appropriated funds (APF) manpower
  • 32. 

    What is the primary purpose of a temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?

    • A.

      Sustainment

    • B.

      Dollar savings

    • C.

      Increase services

    • D.

      Increase hours of operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustainment
  • 33. 

    Which organization allocates appropriated money?

    • A.

      Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES).

    • B.

      Nonappropriated funds instrumentalities (NAFI) office.

    • C.

      Commissary.

    • D.

      Congress.

    Correct Answer
    D. Congress.
  • 34. 

    Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to

    • A.

      Renovate facilities.

    • B.

      Conduct day-to-day operations.

    • C.

      Purchase equipment costing $50,000 or more

    • D.

      Perform only essential operations as determined by Services personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct day-to-day operations.
  • 35. 

    At what organizational level are procurement funds controlled?

    • A.

      Flight

    • B.

      Squadron

    • C.

      Base

    • D.

      Major Command (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Major Command (MAJCOM)
  • 36. 

    By when must fallout funds be spent?

    • A.

      End of the fiscal year

    • B.

      End of the calendar year

    • C.

      January 31 of current fiscal year.

    • D.

      January 31 of current calendar year.

    Correct Answer
    A. End of the fiscal year
  • 37. 

    What is the first step in the budgeting process?

    • A.

      Verify funds available on hand

    • B.

      Identify and understand the unit’s mission

    • C.

      Establish and write down the activity’s goal.

    • D.

      Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.

    Correct Answer
    B. Identify and understand the unit’s mission
  • 38. 

    What is the second step in the budgeting process?

    • A.

      Verify funds available on hand.

    • B.

      Identify and understand the unit’s mission.

    • C.

      Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.

    • D.

      Establish and write down the activity's goals.

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish and write down the activity's goals.
  • 39. 

    What is the third step in the budgeting process?

    • A.

      Verify funds available on hand.

    • B.

      Identify and understand the unit’s mission.

    • C.

      Establish and write down the activity’s goal.

    • D.

      Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.
  • 40. 

    There are how many levels of budgeting responsibilities?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
  • 41. 

    Which budget do we use to obtain authorized appropriated fund (APF) to support the Force Support squadron requirements?

    • A.

      Appropriated funds (APF).

    • B.

      Cash flow.

    • C.

      Non-appropriated funds (NAF) income and expense.

    • D.

      APF and NAF funds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Appropriated funds (APF).
  • 42. 

    The nonappropriated funds (NAF) income and expense budget is also known as

    • A.

      Appropriated funds (APF).

    • B.

      APF and NAF.

    • C.

      Cash flow

    • D.

      Operating.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operating.
  • 43. 

    At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34–201?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Flight chief

    • C.

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • D.

      Force support squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
  • 44. 

    Who identifies the assessable units within their command (normally squadrons) and appoints an installation focal point to administer the internal management controls (IMC) program?

    • A.

      MAJCOM commanders

    • B.

      Group commander

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Combat support flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM commanders
  • 45. 

    For losses up to and including $50, who conducts an informal review and files the documentation in the activity?

    • A.

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • B.

      Combat support flight chief.

    • C.

      Activity manager.

    • D.

      Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Activity manager.
  • 46. 

    For losses over $50 up to and including $250, the activity manager conducts a review and provides a brief written explanation to the

    • A.

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • B.

      Combat support flight chief

    • C.

      Force support squadron commander

    • D.

      Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
  • 47. 

    For losses over $250 up to and including $1,000, and for losses of $250 or less which appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct, who appoints an individual to conduct an inquiry?

    • A.

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • B.

      Combat support flight chief

    • C.

      Force support squadron commander

    • D.

      Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Force support squadron commander
  • 48. 

    How often do activity managers make deposits to the central cashier or financial institution to keep cash on hand to a minimum?

    • A.

      Dailey

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Dailey
  • 49. 

    Who may use imprest funds for a designated purpose with special controls and limitations?

    • A.

      Activity managers.

    • B.

      Supervisors.

    • C.

      Flight chiefs

    • D.

      Commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity managers.
  • 50. 

    The resource management flight chief (RMFC) uses what Air Force form to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times?

    • A.

      1875

    • B.

      1876

    • C.

      2556

    • D.

      2557

    Correct Answer
    D. 2557

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 27, 2012
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 27, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    TK2012
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