SEC+ Study Guide C

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1. QUESTION NO: 205
A developer added code to a financial system designed to transfer money to a foreign bank account on a specific time and date. The code would activate only if human resources processed the developers termination papers. The developer implemented which of the following security threats?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Logic bomb." In this scenario, the developer added code to the financial system that would activate and transfer money to a foreign bank account only if the developer's termination papers were processed by human resources. This is a classic example of a logic bomb, which is a malicious code that is intentionally inserted into a system to execute a harmful action at a specific time or under specific conditions.

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About This Quiz
SEC+ Study Guide C - Quiz

Sec+ study guide C assesses knowledge in IT security, focusing on password policies, server utilization, SQL injections, DDoS threats, and logic bombs. It prepares users for real-world cybersecurity... see morechallenges and aligns with CompTIA Security+ standards. see less

2. QUESTION NO: 228
Which of the following BEST applies in the secure disposal of computers?

Explanation

In the secure disposal of computers, the best practice is to sanitize the computer media. This means securely wiping or destroying the data stored on the computer's hard drive or other storage devices. This is important to prevent any sensitive information from being accessed by unauthorized individuals. Configuring computers for automated patch management, changing default passwords, and testing against known vulnerabilities are all important security measures, but they do not specifically address the secure disposal of computers.

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3. QUESTION NO: 256
Which of the following is a risk associated with a virtual server?

Explanation

If the physical server crashes, all of the local virtual servers go offline immediately. This is a risk associated with a virtual server because virtual servers rely on the physical server for resources and infrastructure. If the physical server fails, it can cause all the virtual servers hosted on it to become unavailable or offline. This can result in downtime and loss of access to critical services or applications running on the virtual servers.

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4. QUESTION NO: 257
Which of the following exploits is only triggered by a specific date or time key?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is designed to execute a specific action when a certain condition is met, such as a specific date or time. It remains dormant until the trigger condition is met, at which point it activates and performs its malicious actions. Unlike trojans, worms, and botnets, which can be triggered by various events or actions, a logic bomb is specifically programmed to be triggered by a specific date or time key.

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5. QUESTION NO: 204
Which of the following security threats is MOST commonly associated with a targeted distributed denial of service (DDoS)?

Explanation

A targeted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack involves flooding a target system with an overwhelming amount of traffic, rendering it unable to function properly. Botnets, which are networks of compromised computers controlled by a central attacker, are commonly used to launch DDoS attacks. The attacker can direct the botnet to send a massive amount of traffic to the target system, causing it to become overwhelmed and unavailable to legitimate users. Therefore, botnets are the most commonly associated security threat with a targeted DDoS attack.

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6. QUESTION NO: 274 When using discretionary access control (DAC), who determines access and what privileges they have?

Explanation

In discretionary access control (DAC), the owner of the resource or data determines access and the privileges that individuals or groups have. The owner has the authority to grant or deny access to others based on their own discretion and judgment. This means that the owner has control over who can access the resource and what actions they can perform on it. The owner can also modify or revoke access privileges as needed.

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7. QUESTION NO: 290 A manufacturing corporation has decided to send a highly sensitive message to one of their suppliers. The message is concealed inside a JPEG image of a beach resort. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of steganography, which is the practice of concealing information within other non-secret data. In this case, the sensitive message is hidden inside a JPEG image of a beach resort. Cryptography involves encrypting data to protect its confidentiality, while digital signature is used to verify the authenticity and integrity of a message. Hashing is a process of generating a fixed-size string of data from a variable-size input.

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8. QUESTION NO: 236 Which of the following would a password cracker help an administrator to find?

Explanation

A password cracker would help an administrator to find weak passwords. A password cracker is a tool or software that is designed to guess or crack passwords by using various methods such as brute force attacks, dictionary attacks, or rainbow table attacks. By using a password cracker, an administrator can identify passwords that are easily guessable or vulnerable to being cracked, allowing them to take necessary actions to strengthen the security of the system.

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9. QUESTION NO: 272 A user wants to implement very tight security controls for technicians that seek to enter the users data center. Which of the following solutions offers the BEST security controls?

Explanation

Biometric reader and smartcard offer the best security controls for technicians entering the user's data center. A biometric reader ensures that only authorized individuals with unique physiological characteristics can gain access. This adds an extra layer of security as biometric features are difficult to duplicate. Additionally, a smartcard provides another level of authentication, requiring technicians to possess a physical card to gain entry. Combining these two technologies ensures that only authorized personnel can access the data center, providing very tight security controls.

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10. QUESTION NO: 273 Which of the following concepts, requires users and system processes to be assigned minimum levels of permission to carry out the assigned task?

Explanation

The concept of least privilege requires users and system processes to be assigned minimum levels of permission to carry out the assigned task. This means that individuals should only have access to the resources and information necessary to perform their specific job functions and nothing more. By implementing least privilege, organizations can reduce the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security incidents. It helps to limit the potential damage that can be caused by a compromised user account or system process.

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11. QUESTION NO: 213
A number of unauthorized staff has been entering the data center by piggybacking authorized staff. The CIO has mandated that this behavior stops. Which of the following is the BEST technology to install at the data center to prevent piggybacking?

Explanation

A mantrap is the best technology to install at the data center to prevent piggybacking. A mantrap is a physical access control system that consists of two or more interlocking doors. Only one door can be open at a time, ensuring that only one person can enter or exit the data center at a time. This prevents unauthorized staff from piggybacking on authorized staff and gaining access to the data center. Security badges, hardware locks, and token access may provide some level of security, but they do not specifically address the issue of piggybacking like a mantrap does.

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12. QUESTION NO: 235
An administrator notices that a PC is sending an unusual amount of email at odd times of the day. Which of the following should the administrator check for FIRST?

Explanation

The administrator should check for an SMTP open relay first because an open relay allows anyone to use the email server to send emails, potentially leading to an unusual amount of email being sent from the PC. This could explain the unusual activity and odd timing of the emails.

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13. QUESTION NO: 263 The service provided by message authentication code (MAC) hash is:

Explanation

The service provided by message authentication code (MAC) hash is integrity. A MAC hash is a cryptographic technique used to verify the integrity of a message. It ensures that the message has not been altered or tampered with during transmission. By generating a unique hash value for the message and comparing it with the received hash value, the receiver can determine if the message has been modified. This helps to ensure the authenticity and reliability of the message.

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14. QUESTION NO: 271 A user is going to dispose of some old hard drives. Which of the following should the user do to the drives before disposing of them?

Explanation

The user should use a certified wipe program to erase data from the old hard drives before disposing of them. This ensures that all sensitive information stored on the drives is permanently deleted and cannot be recovered. Simply reformatting the drives may not completely erase the data, leaving it vulnerable to potential data breaches. Installing antivirus or running anti-spyware on the drives is not necessary for disposing of them and does not address the issue of data security.

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15. QUESTION NO: 239
When is the correct time to discuss the appropriate use of electronic devices with a new employee?

Explanation

The correct time to discuss the appropriate use of electronic devices with a new employee is at the time of hire. This is because it is important to establish expectations and guidelines regarding the use of electronic devices from the beginning of the employment relationship. By discussing this topic at the time of hire, the employer can ensure that the new employee understands the company's policies and can use electronic devices in a responsible and appropriate manner. This helps to create a productive and professional work environment.

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16. QUESTION NO: 253
Which of the following is a collection of fixes for an application or operating system that has been tested by the vendor?

Explanation

A service pack is a collection of fixes for an application or operating system that has been tested by the vendor. It typically includes updates, enhancements, and patches to address known issues and vulnerabilities. Service packs are released periodically to provide users with a comprehensive and tested set of updates, ensuring the stability, security, and functionality of the software. Unlike patches or hotfixes, which are typically released to address specific issues, service packs offer a more comprehensive solution for improving the overall performance and reliability of the software.

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17. QUESTION NO: 254
Which of the following usually applies specifically to a web browser?

Explanation

A pop-up blocker is a feature that is usually found in web browsers. It is designed to prevent unwanted pop-up windows from opening automatically while browsing the internet. Pop-up windows can be annoying and can also be used to display advertisements or potentially harmful content. Therefore, web browsers often include a pop-up blocker as a built-in feature to enhance the browsing experience and protect users from potential threats.

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18. QUESTION NO: 292 An administrator is assigned to monitor servers in a data center. A web server connected to the Internet s suddenly experiences a large spike in CPU activity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

Explanation

A sudden spike in CPU activity on a web server connected to the Internet is most likely caused by a DoS (Denial of Service) attack. A DoS attack overwhelms a server with a flood of requests, causing it to become unresponsive or slow down significantly. This spike in CPU activity occurs as the server tries to process and respond to the large number of requests. Spyware, Trojan, and privilege escalation are not typically associated with causing a sudden spike in CPU activity.

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19. QUESTION NO: 207
After a system risk assessment was performed it was found that the cost to mitigate the risk was higher than the expected loss if the risk was actualized. In this instance, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Explanation

In this scenario, accepting the risk is the best course of action because the cost to mitigate the risk is higher than the expected loss. This means that it would be more cost-effective to accept the risk and deal with any potential consequences if the risk is actualized, rather than spending more money to try and mitigate the risk. Rejecting the risk or running a new risk assessment would not be necessary or beneficial in this case.

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20. QUESTION NO: 224
Which of the following is a mechanism that prevents electromagnetic emanations from being captured?

Explanation

A Faraday cage is a mechanism that prevents electromagnetic emanations from being captured. It is an enclosure made of conductive materials that creates a shield against electromagnetic radiation. The conductive material absorbs and redirects the electromagnetic waves, preventing them from escaping or entering the cage. This helps to protect sensitive electronic equipment or information from being intercepted or affected by external electromagnetic signals.

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21. QUESTION NO: 234
An administrator notices on the monthly firewall log that many of the internal PCs are sending packets on a routine basis to a single external PC. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the remote PC has a zombie master application running and the local PCs have a zombie slave application running. This means that the remote PC is controlling the local PCs and using them to send packets to a specific external PC. This is a form of a botnet attack, where the remote PC is the master and the local PCs are the slaves, being used to carry out malicious activities without the knowledge or consent of their owners.

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22. QUESTION NO: 252
Which of the following is the quickest method to create a secure test server for a programmer?

Explanation

Creating a virtual server on existing equipment is the quickest method to create a secure test server for a programmer. This option allows for the creation of a separate and isolated environment within the existing equipment, which can be used for testing purposes. It eliminates the need to install a network operating system on new equipment or existing equipment, which can be time-consuming and may require additional resources. By using a virtual server, the programmer can have a secure testing environment without the need for physical hardware or extensive setup processes.

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23. QUESTION NO: 226
Which of the following physical threats is prevented with mantraps?

Explanation

Mantraps are physical security devices that are used to prevent unauthorized access to a secure area. They typically consist of two or more doors or gates that can only be opened one at a time, ensuring that only one person can enter or exit at a time. This effectively prevents piggybacking, which is the act of an unauthorized person following closely behind an authorized person to gain access to a secure area. Therefore, the correct answer is piggybacking.

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24. QUESTION NO: 282 Which of the following BEST describes risk analysis?

Explanation

Risk analysis refers to the process of evaluating and assessing potential risks in order to determine their likelihood and impact on a project or organization. It involves identifying and analyzing potential risks, determining their probability and potential consequences, and then assessing their overall significance. This helps in making informed decisions about how to manage and mitigate these risks effectively. Therefore, the answer "Evaluation and assessment" best describes risk analysis as it encompasses the key steps involved in analyzing and evaluating risks.

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25. QUESTION NO: 300 Which of the following is a cryptographic representation of non-repudiation?

Explanation

A digital signature is a cryptographic representation of non-repudiation because it provides a way to verify the authenticity and integrity of a digital document or message. It is created using the private key of the sender and can be verified using the corresponding public key. This ensures that the sender cannot deny sending the message or tampering with its contents, providing non-repudiation.

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26. QUESTION NO: 218
Three generally accepted activities of patch management are: determining which patches are needed, applying the patches and which of the following?

Explanation

After determining which patches are needed and applying them, it is important to audit for the successful application of the patches. This ensures that the patches have been properly installed and are functioning as intended. Auditing helps to verify that the patches have been applied to all relevant systems and that any vulnerabilities have been addressed. It also provides a record of the patching process, which can be useful for compliance and reporting purposes.

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27. QUESTION NO: 242
Which of the following allows for a secure connection to be made through a web browser?

Explanation

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) allows for a secure connection to be made through a web browser. SSL is a protocol that encrypts the data transmitted between a web server and a web browser, ensuring that the information remains confidential and cannot be intercepted by unauthorized parties. It is commonly used for secure online transactions, such as e-commerce websites, online banking, and sensitive data transfers.

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28. QUESTION NO: 251
All of the following require periodic updates to stay accurate EXCEPT:

Explanation

Pop-up blocker applications do not require periodic updates to stay accurate because their main function is to block unwanted pop-up windows, which does not require frequent updates. On the other hand, signature-based HIDS, antivirus applications, and rootkit detection applications rely on constantly updated databases of known threats and vulnerabilities in order to accurately detect and protect against them. These databases need to be regularly updated to stay current and effective.

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29. QUESTION NO: 247
An administrator is backing up all server data nightly to a local NAS devicE. Which of the following additional steps should the administrator take for protection from disaster in the case the primary site is permanently lost?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that in order to protect the data from permanent loss in case of a disaster at the primary site, the administrator should backup all data at a preset interval to tape and store those tapes at a sister site in another city. Storing the tapes at a sister site in another city ensures that the backup data is kept in a separate geographical location, reducing the risk of loss due to a local disaster. This provides an additional layer of protection and increases the chances of recovering the data in case of a catastrophic event at the primary site.

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30. QUESTION NO: 248
Which of the following is the MOST intrusive on a network?

Explanation

Penetration testing is the most intrusive on a network compared to the other options. Penetration testing involves actively simulating attacks on a network to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses. It goes beyond just analyzing protocols or scanning ports by attempting to exploit vulnerabilities and gain unauthorized access. This can potentially disrupt network operations and compromise sensitive data. Protocol analyzers analyze network traffic, port scanners scan for open ports, and vulnerability testing identifies weaknesses, but they are less invasive compared to penetration testing.

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31. QUESTION NO: 259
An antivirus server keeps flagging an approved application that the marketing department has installed on their local computers as a threat. This is an example of:

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a false positive. A false positive occurs when a system or tool incorrectly identifies something as a threat or error when it is actually safe or correct. In this case, the antivirus server is flagging the approved application as a threat, even though it is not. This can happen due to various reasons such as outdated virus definitions or software bugs.

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32. QUESTION NO: 202
A company needs to have multiple servers running low CPU utilization applications. Which of the following is the MOST cost efficient method for accomplishing this?

Explanation

Installing a single high-end server and running multiple virtual servers is the most cost-efficient method because it eliminates the need for purchasing and maintaining multiple physical servers. Virtualization allows for the efficient utilization of hardware resources, reducing costs associated with power consumption, cooling, and hardware maintenance. Additionally, it provides flexibility and scalability, allowing for easy deployment and management of additional virtual servers as needed.

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33. QUESTION NO: 219
In which of the following situations would it be appropriate to install a hotfix?

Explanation

When a patch is not available and workarounds do not correct the problem, it would be appropriate to install a hotfix. A hotfix is a small, targeted software update that addresses a specific issue or problem. In this situation, since there is no patch available and the workarounds are not effective in resolving the problem, installing a hotfix can provide a temporary solution until a patch is released. Hotfixes are designed to quickly address critical issues and are typically tested and validated by the software vendor before being made available to users.

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34. QUESTION NO: 223
Which of the following practices should be implemented to harden workstations and servers?

Explanation

Installing only needed software is a practice that should be implemented to harden workstations and servers. This is because unnecessary software increases the attack surface and potential vulnerabilities of the system. By installing only the software that is necessary for the system's functionality, the risk of exploitation and unauthorized access is minimized.

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35. QUESTION NO: 230
Which of the following BEST describes the differences between RADIUS and TACACS?

Explanation

TACACS is a remote access authentication service that encrypts the client-server negotiation dialog. This means that when a client and server are communicating, TACACS ensures that their conversation is encrypted, providing a higher level of security. On the other hand, RADIUS is also a remote access authentication service, but it does not encrypt the client-server negotiation dialog. Therefore, the main difference between RADIUS and TACACS lies in their encryption capabilities during the negotiation process.

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36. QUESTION NO: 261
A technician is working on an end users desktop which has been having performance issues. The technician notices there seems to be a lot of activity on the NIC. A good tool to quickly check the current network connections of the desktop would be:

Explanation

Netstat is a command-line tool used to display active network connections and listening ports on a computer. It provides information about the protocol, local and remote addresses, state, and process ID of each connection. By using netstat, the technician can quickly check the current network connections of the desktop and identify any suspicious or unnecessary connections that may be causing the performance issues.

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37. QUESTION NO: 299 Which of the following describes the process of comparing cryptographic hash functions of system executables, configuration files, and log files?

Explanation

File integrity auditing is the process of comparing cryptographic hash functions of system executables, configuration files, and log files. This is done to ensure that these files have not been tampered with or modified in any way. By comparing the hash values of the files with their original hash values, any changes or alterations can be detected, indicating a potential security breach or unauthorized access. This helps in maintaining the integrity and security of the system by identifying any unauthorized changes and taking appropriate actions to mitigate the risk.

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38. QUESTION NO: 233
Which of the following is a problem MOST often associated with UTP cable?

Explanation

Crosstalk is a problem that is most often associated with UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable. Crosstalk occurs when there is interference between adjacent pairs of wires within the cable, causing signal degradation and data errors. This interference can be caused by electromagnetic fields from other cables or devices, resulting in a loss of signal quality. Proper cable shielding and separation can help minimize crosstalk and maintain the integrity of the transmitted data.

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39. QUESTION NO: 265 Some examples of hardening techniques include all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

The correct answer is "running weekly spyware applications." This is because running weekly spyware applications is not a hardening technique. Hardening techniques typically involve measures such as applying security templates, network-based patch management, and disabling non-required services to strengthen the security of a system or network. Running spyware applications, on the other hand, is a practice aimed at detecting and removing malicious software rather than hardening the system itself.

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40. QUESTION NO: 210
Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to benefit from using a personal software firewall on a laptop?

Explanation

Using a personal software firewall on an office laptop connected to a home user's network is most likely to benefit from this security measure. When connecting to a home user's network, the office laptop is exposed to potential security risks from other devices on the network. By using a personal software firewall, the laptop can protect against unauthorized access and potential attacks from other devices on the network, ensuring the security of the data and the device itself.

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41. QUESTION NO: 281 The primary function of risk management in an organization is to reduce risk to a level:

Explanation

The primary function of risk management in an organization is to reduce risk to a level that the organization will accept. This means that instead of trying to completely eliminate all risks, the organization determines the acceptable level of risk and implements measures to mitigate risks up to that level. The organization understands that it is not possible or practical to eliminate all risks, so it focuses on identifying, assessing, and managing risks to a level that is within its risk appetite and tolerance.

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42. QUESTION NO: 285 An organization has recently implemented a work from home program. Employees need to connect securely from home to the corporate network. Which of the following encryption technologies might BEST accomplish this?

Explanation

IPSec is the best encryption technology to accomplish secure connection from home to the corporate network. IPSec provides secure communication by encrypting the data packets and authenticating the parties involved in the communication. It operates at the network layer, ensuring end-to-end security and can be used with various protocols like Internet Protocol (IP). It is widely used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) to establish secure connections over the internet, making it the most suitable option for employees to connect securely to the corporate network while working from home.

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43. QUESTION NO: 245
Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to quickly find a rogue server on the network?

Explanation

A network mapper would be the best tool for an administrator to quickly find a rogue server on the network. A network mapper scans the network and identifies all connected devices, allowing the administrator to easily identify any unauthorized or unknown servers. This tool provides a comprehensive view of the network and can quickly pinpoint any rogue servers that may be present.

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44. QUESTION NO: 250
All of the following are where backup tapes should be kept EXCEPT:

Explanation

Backup tapes should be kept in secure and controlled environments to ensure their safety and integrity. Keeping them near a fiber optic cable entrance, shared LCD screen, or high-end server could expose them to potential risks such as physical damage, unauthorized access, or electromagnetic interference. However, keeping them near a power line poses the risk of electrical hazards and potential damage due to power surges or fluctuations. Hence, near a power line is not an appropriate location for storing backup tapes.

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45. QUESTION NO: 284 Which of the following hashing techniques is commonly disabled to make password cracking more difficult?

Explanation

NTLM (NT LAN Manager) is commonly disabled to make password cracking more difficult. NTLM is an outdated hashing technique that is vulnerable to various attacks, including brute force and dictionary attacks. Disabling NTLM forces the use of more secure hashing techniques, making it harder for attackers to crack passwords. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language), and Kerberos are not hashing techniques, so they are not commonly disabled for this purpose.

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46. QUESTION NO: 291 Which of the following encryption methods is often used along with L2TP?

Explanation

IPSec is often used along with L2TP for encryption. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) is a protocol that allows the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) over the internet. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a suite of protocols that provides secure communication over IP networks. By combining L2TP with IPSec, data can be encrypted and protected from unauthorized access, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted information. S/MIME, SSH, and 3DES are not typically used in conjunction with L2TP for encryption.

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47. QUESTION NO: 295 All of the following are steps in the incident response process EXCEPT:

Explanation

The incident response process involves several steps to effectively handle and mitigate security incidents. These steps typically include containment, eradication, recovery, and reporting. Repudiation, however, is not a step in the incident response process. Repudiation refers to the act of denying or disowning responsibility for a particular action or event. While it may be relevant in legal or contractual contexts, it is not directly related to incident response.

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48. QUESTION NO: 206   A CEO is concerned about staff browsing inappropriate material on the Internet via HTTPS. It has been suggested that the company purchase a product which could decrypt the SSL session, scan the content and then repackage the SSL session without staff knowing. Which of the following type of attacks is similar to this product?

Explanation

The correct answer is Man-in-the-middle. Man-in-the-middle attack is similar to the suggested product because it involves intercepting and manipulating communication between two parties without their knowledge. In this case, the product would intercept the SSL session, decrypt it, scan the content for inappropriate material, and then repackage the session without the staff knowing. This allows the company to monitor and control the content accessed by the staff, similar to how a man-in-the-middle attack allows an attacker to eavesdrop on and manipulate communication between two parties.

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49. QUESTION NO: 222
Configuration baselines should be taken at which of the following stages in the deployment of a new system?

Explanation

Configuration baselines should be taken after the initial configuration of a new system. This is because the initial configuration involves setting up the system according to the desired specifications and requirements. Once the initial configuration is completed, it is important to take a baseline to capture the current state of the system. This baseline can then be used as a reference point for future comparisons and to ensure that any changes made to the system are in line with the desired configuration.

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50. QUESTION NO: 232
To evaluate the security compliance of a group of servers against best practices, which of the following BEST applies?

Explanation

Running a vulnerability assessment tool is the best option to evaluate the security compliance of a group of servers against best practices. This tool scans the servers and identifies any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system. It helps in identifying potential security risks and allows for timely remediation. A vulnerability assessment is a proactive approach that helps in ensuring the servers are secure and compliant with industry best practices.

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51. QUESTION NO: 264 An administrator is running a network monitoring application that looks for behaviors on the network outside the standard baseline that has been established. This is typical of a(n):

Explanation

An anomaly-based tool is a network monitoring application that detects behaviors on the network that deviate from the established baseline. Unlike signature-based tools that rely on known patterns or signatures of attacks, anomaly-based tools identify abnormal or unusual activities that may indicate a potential security breach. These tools analyze network traffic and compare it to normal behavior to detect any anomalies or deviations that could be indicative of malicious activity. Therefore, an anomaly-based tool is the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.

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52. QUESTION NO: 266 An administrator wants to block users from accessing a few inappropriate websites as soon as possible. The existing firewall allows blocking by IP address. To achieve this goal the administrator will need to:

Explanation

The administrator will need to upgrade to a URL based filter to achieve the desired result because blocking by IP address is not sufficient to block specific websites. A URL based filter allows the administrator to block access to specific websites by filtering based on the website's URL. This will effectively block the inappropriate websites that the administrator wants to restrict access to.

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53. QUESTION NO: 296 Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication for an information system?

Explanation

An example of two-factor authentication for an information system is the combination of an ATM card and a PIN. This requires the user to possess something (the ATM card) and know something (the PIN) in order to access the system. This adds an extra layer of security compared to just using a single factor such as a username and password.

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54. QUESTION NO: 214
Which of the following is a security threat that hides its processes and files from being easily detected?

Explanation

A rootkit is a type of security threat that hides its processes and files from being easily detected. It is designed to gain unauthorized access to a computer system and remain undetected by traditional security measures. Rootkits can modify system files, disable security software, and create backdoors for remote access. This allows attackers to maintain control over the compromised system and carry out malicious activities without being detected.

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55. QUESTION NO: 217
When choosing an antivirus product, which of the following are the MOST important security considerations? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The frequency of signature updates is important because it ensures that the antivirus software is up to date with the latest known threats. This is crucial as new viruses and malware are constantly being developed. The number of viruses the software can detect is also important as it determines the software's effectiveness in identifying and removing threats. The more viruses the software can detect, the better protected the system will be.

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56. QUESTION NO: 221
If an administrator does not have a NIDS examining network traffic, which of the following could be used to identify an active attack?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It allows administrators to monitor and inspect the packets being transmitted over the network. By analyzing the network traffic, an administrator can identify any suspicious or malicious activity that may indicate an active attack. Therefore, in the absence of a NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System), a protocol analyzer can be used as an alternative to identify an active attack.

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57. QUESTION NO: 225
Which of the following describes the difference between a secure cipher and a secure hash?

Explanation

A secure cipher is a cryptographic algorithm that can be reversed or decrypted, meaning that the original message can be recovered from the encrypted form. On the other hand, a secure hash function is a one-way function that cannot be reversed or decrypted. It takes an input of any size and produces a fixed-size output, making it impossible to retrieve the original input from the hash value. Therefore, the statement "A cipher can be reversed, a hash cannot" accurately describes the difference between a secure cipher and a secure hash.

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58. QUESTION NO: 269 An administrator wants to ensure that when an employee leaves the company permanently, that the company will have access to their private keys. Which of the following will accomplish this?

Explanation

Storing the keys in escrow means keeping a copy of the private keys in a secure location, typically with a trusted third party. This ensures that if an employee leaves the company permanently, the company will still have access to their private keys. This can be useful in situations where the private keys are necessary for accessing encrypted data or systems. By storing the keys in escrow, the company can maintain control over the encrypted data even if the employee is no longer with the company.

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59. QUESTION NO: 275 Which of the following is a security benefit of mandatory vacations?

Explanation

Mandatory vacations can help in detecting fraud because when an employee is required to take time off, it gives an opportunity for someone else to step in and perform their duties. This temporary replacement can uncover any discrepancies or irregularities in the employee's work, which may indicate fraudulent activities. By having mandatory vacations, organizations can ensure that no single individual has complete control over a specific task or process, reducing the risk of fraud going undetected.

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60. QUESTION NO: 201
A user does not understand why the domain password policy is so stringent. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the security basis for the password policy?

Explanation

The correct answer is to explain how easy it is for a hacker to crack weak passwords. By explaining the vulnerabilities of weak passwords, the user can understand the importance of having a stringent password policy. This approach helps to educate the user about the potential risks and consequences of using weak passwords, which ultimately promotes a stronger security mindset among users.

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61. QUESTION NO: 240
Which of the following could BEST assist in the recovery of a crashed hard drive?

Explanation

Forensics software could best assist in the recovery of a crashed hard drive. This type of software is specifically designed to analyze and recover data from damaged or corrupted storage devices. It can help to identify and repair any issues that caused the crash, and retrieve as much data as possible from the hard drive. Forensics software is commonly used in computer forensics investigations, where data recovery is a crucial aspect of the process.

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62. QUESTION NO: 268 A user logs into their network with a smart carD. Which of the following keys is used?

Explanation

When a user logs into their network with a smart card, the private key is used. A smart card is a small device that contains a microprocessor and memory, and it is used for authentication purposes. The private key is securely stored on the smart card and is used to decrypt information and verify the user's identity. This ensures that only the authorized user can access the network and protects against unauthorized access.

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63. QUESTION NO: 215
Security templates are used for which of the following purposes? (Select TWO)

Explanation

Security templates are used to ensure that all servers start from a common security configuration and to ensure that servers are in compliance with the corporate security policy. By applying security templates, organizations can establish a baseline security configuration for all servers, ensuring consistency and reducing the risk of misconfigurations. Additionally, security templates help organizations enforce their security policies, ensuring that servers meet the required security standards and are in compliance with the organization's overall security objectives.

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64. QUESTION NO: 244
Which of the following would require a pre-sharing of information before a home user could attach to a neighbors wireless adapter?

Explanation

SSID broadcasting refers to the practice of a wireless network broadcasting its name (SSID) so that devices can easily detect and connect to it. When SSID broadcasting is disabled, the network's name is not visible to nearby devices. Therefore, in order for a home user to attach to a neighbor's wireless adapter, they would need to know the neighbor's network name (SSID) in advance. This requires a pre-sharing of information between the neighbor and the home user.

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65. QUESTION NO: 211
Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, are capable of protecting the underlying operating system from which of the following?

Explanation

Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, are capable of protecting the underlying operating system from malware installation from suspicious internet sites. This is because virtualization creates a separate environment or sandbox for the application, isolating it from the underlying OS. This prevents any malicious code or malware from infecting the operating system, as it is contained within the virtualized environment. Therefore, even if the virtualized browser encounters malware while browsing suspicious internet sites, it cannot affect the underlying operating system.

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66. QUESTION NO: 280 Which of the following are MOST likely to be analyzed by Internet filter appliances/servers? (Select THREE).

Explanation

Internet filter appliances/servers are designed to analyze and filter internet traffic. Certificates are likely to be analyzed to ensure the authenticity and security of websites. URLs are analyzed to determine the destination of internet traffic and to enforce any filtering policies based on the website being accessed. Content is analyzed to identify and block any inappropriate or unauthorized content. Keys, TLSs, and CRLs are not typically analyzed by internet filter appliances/servers as they are more related to encryption and security protocols rather than content filtering.

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67. QUESTION NO: 258
Threats to a network could include: (Select TWO)

Explanation

The correct answer is disgruntled employees and dial-up access. Disgruntled employees can pose a threat to a network by intentionally causing damage or stealing sensitive information. Dial-up access can also be a threat as it is less secure compared to other forms of network access, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the network.

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68. QUESTION NO: 277 Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?

Explanation

Procedures are a type of organizational documentation that describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted. They provide step-by-step instructions and guidelines for employees to follow in order to carry out their responsibilities effectively and efficiently. Procedures outline the specific actions, methods, and processes that need to be followed in order to achieve desired outcomes. They help ensure consistency and standardization in the organization's operations by providing clear instructions on how tasks should be performed.

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69. QUESTION NO: 294 Ensuring administrators have both a regular user account and a privileged user account is an example of applying which security principle?

Explanation

Ensuring administrators have both a regular user account and a privileged user account is an example of applying the principle of least privilege. This principle states that users should only be given the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job functions. By separating regular user accounts from privileged user accounts, administrators are able to limit their access rights and reduce the potential for unauthorized actions or accidental damage. This helps to minimize the risk of security breaches and maintain the integrity of the system.

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70. QUESTION NO: 262 A company has an issue with field users logging into VPN to connect to the mail server, and leaving their computers connected while in public places. The administrator needs to prevent both unauthorized access to the company email and data, and limit the impact on the VPN server. Which of the following BEST achieves this goal?

Explanation

The best option to achieve the goal of preventing unauthorized access to the company email and data, while limiting the impact on the VPN server, is to use group policy to lock computers after five minutes of inactivity and limit VPN connections to one hour. This ensures that field users' computers are automatically locked when inactive, reducing the risk of unauthorized access. Additionally, limiting VPN connections to one hour helps to minimize the amount of time that the VPN server is being utilized, reducing the impact on its resources.

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71. QUESTION NO: 229
Which of the following BEST describes the differences between RADIUS and TACACS?

Explanation

TACACS is a protocol that separates authentication, authorization, and auditing capabilities, while RADIUS is a protocol that only provides remote access authentication. TACACS allows for more granular control and flexibility in managing user access and permissions by separating these three functions. RADIUS, on the other hand, combines authentication and authorization into a single process.

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72. QUESTION NO: 238
Which of the following would BEST allow for fast, highly secure encryption of a USB flash drive?

Explanation

AES256 would be the best option for fast, highly secure encryption of a USB flash drive. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that has been widely adopted as a standard for secure data encryption. AES256 refers to the key size of 256 bits, which provides a high level of security. It is considered more secure than SHA-1, MD5, and 3DES, which are either outdated or have weaker encryption capabilities.

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73. QUESTION NO: 212
A flat or simple role-based access control (RBAC) embodies which of the following principles?

Explanation

A flat or simple role-based access control (RBAC) system follows the principle of assigning users to roles, assigning permissions to roles, and allowing users to acquire permissions by being a member of the role. This means that instead of assigning permissions directly to individual users, permissions are assigned to roles, and users are assigned to roles. By being a member of a specific role, users automatically acquire the permissions associated with that role. This approach simplifies access control management by allowing for easier assignment and revocation of permissions based on roles rather than individual users.

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74. QUESTION NO: 286 The use of a physical token, PIN and a password during authentication is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

The use of a physical token, PIN, and a password during authentication is an example of two-factor authentication. Two-factor authentication requires the user to provide two different types of credentials to verify their identity, making it more secure than single-factor authentication. In this case, the physical token serves as one factor, while the PIN and password serve as the second factor. This combination adds an extra layer of security by requiring the user to possess something physical and know something secret to gain access.

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75. QUESTION NO: 231
Which of the following authentication mechanisms performs better in a secure environment?

Explanation

TACACS performs better in a secure environment because it encrypts client-server negotiation dialogs. This encryption adds an extra layer of security to the authentication process, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to intercept and access sensitive information. RADIUS, on the other hand, does not provide this level of encryption for the negotiation dialogs, making it potentially less secure in comparison.

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76. QUESTION NO: 249
A single sign-on requires which of the following?

Explanation

A unified trust model is required for a single sign-on system. This means that all workstations and systems within the network must trust each other and share a common authentication mechanism. This allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple resources without having to provide credentials again. With a unified trust model, the authentication process is streamlined and users can easily navigate between different systems and applications without the need for multiple logins.

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77. QUESTION NO: 289 A security manager believes that too many services are running on a mission critical database server. Which of the following tools might a security analyst use to determine services that are running on the server, without logging into the machine?

Explanation

A security analyst might use a port scanner to determine services that are running on the server without logging into the machine. A port scanner is a tool that can scan a range of ports on a networked device to identify which ports are open and which services are running on those ports. By scanning the ports on the mission critical database server, the security analyst can identify any unnecessary or potentially vulnerable services that are running and take appropriate action to mitigate any risks.

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78. QUESTION NO: 293 Which of the following methods will help to identify when unauthorized access has occurred?

Explanation

Implementing previous logon notification helps to identify when unauthorized access has occurred by notifying the user whenever there is a new login from a different location or device. This allows the user to take immediate action and investigate if the login was unauthorized. It provides an extra layer of security and helps in detecting any suspicious activity or unauthorized access to the system.

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79. QUESTION NO: 216
Frequent signature updates are required by which of the following security applications? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Antivirus and IDS (Intrusion Detection System) are security applications that require frequent signature updates. Antivirus software needs regular updates to stay up-to-date with the latest virus definitions and protect against new threats. IDS also requires frequent updates to detect and respond to new types of network attacks and anomalies. PGP (Pretty Good Privacy), Firewall, and PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) do not typically require frequent signature updates, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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80. QUESTION NO: 243
Which of the following is the BEST order in which crucial equipment should draw power?

Explanation

The best order in which crucial equipment should draw power is UPS line conditioner, UPS battery, and backup generator. This order ensures that the power is first conditioned by the UPS line conditioner, which helps to stabilize voltage and filter out any electrical noise. The UPS battery is then used to provide immediate power in case of a power outage or fluctuation. Finally, the backup generator is used to provide long-term power supply in case of extended outages. This order ensures that the equipment receives clean and stable power, with backup options available when needed.

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81. QUESTION NO: 278
Which of the following organizational documentation provides high level objectives that change infrequently?

Explanation

Policy documentation provides high level objectives that change infrequently. Policies are broad statements that guide decision-making and provide a framework for the organization. They establish the overall direction and goals of the organization and are typically set by top management. Unlike procedures or guidelines, policies are not meant to be detailed instructions or specific steps to follow. Instead, they provide a general framework for decision-making and establish the organization's principles and values. As high-level objectives do not change frequently, policy documentation is the appropriate choice for providing them.

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82. QUESTION NO: 220
Social engineering, password cracking and vulnerability exploitation are examples of which of the following?

Explanation

Social engineering, password cracking, and vulnerability exploitation are all techniques commonly used in penetration testing. Penetration testing involves simulating real-world attacks on a system or network to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses. By using these techniques, penetration testers can assess the security of a system and determine if unauthorized access or data breaches are possible. This helps organizations identify and address potential security risks before they can be exploited by malicious actors.

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83. QUESTION NO: 255
Pre-shared keys apply to which of the following?

Explanation

Pre-shared keys apply to PGP (Pretty Good Privacy). PGP is a data encryption and decryption program that uses a combination of symmetric-key cryptography and public-key cryptography. Pre-shared keys, also known as symmetric keys, are used in symmetric-key cryptography to encrypt and decrypt data. These keys are shared in advance between the sender and receiver of the encrypted data, ensuring secure communication. Therefore, pre-shared keys are specifically applicable to PGP.

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84. QUESTION NO: 267 A CRL contains a list of which of the following type of keys?

Explanation

A CRL (Certificate Revocation List) contains a list of both public and private keys. This list is used to verify the validity of digital certificates issued by a certificate authority. The CRL includes the public keys that have been revoked or are no longer trusted, as well as the corresponding private keys. By checking the CRL, a user can determine if a certificate has been revoked or is no longer valid, ensuring the security and integrity of digital communications.

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85. QUESTION NO: 270 When a server and workstation communicate via SSL, which of the following keys are being used? (Select TWO).

Explanation

When a server and workstation communicate via SSL, two types of keys are being used: public key and session key. The public key is used for encryption and decryption of data during the SSL handshake process, ensuring secure communication between the server and the workstation. The session key is a symmetric key that is generated for each SSL session and used for encrypting and decrypting the actual data being transmitted between the server and the workstation. The session key is unique to each session and provides faster encryption and decryption compared to the public key.

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86. QUESTION NO: 276 The data custodian in an organization is responsible for:

Explanation

The data custodian in an organization is responsible for ensuring the recoverability of the data. This means that they are in charge of implementing and maintaining backup and recovery systems and procedures to ensure that data can be restored in the event of a disaster or data loss. The data custodian is not responsible for the classification, completeness, or accuracy of the data, as those responsibilities typically fall under the domain of data owners or data stewards.

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87. QUESTION NO: 227
Which of the following BEST describes the differences between SHA-1 and MD5?

Explanation

SHA-1 produces fewer collisions than MD5. This means that SHA-1 is less likely to produce the same message digest for different input messages compared to MD5. In other words, SHA-1 has a lower probability of two different inputs producing the same output, making it more secure in terms of collision resistance.

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88. QUESTION NO: 208
A small call center business decided to install an email system to facilitate communications in the office. As part of the upgrade the vendor offered to supply anti-malware software for a cost of $5,000 per year. The IT manager read there was a 90% chance each year that workstations would be compromised if not adequately protecteD. If workstations are compromised it will take three hours to restore services for the 30 staff. Staff members in the call center are paid $90 per hour. If determining the risk, which of the following is the annual loss expectancy (ALE)?

Explanation

The annual loss expectancy (ALE) can be calculated by multiplying the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) with the single loss expectancy (SLE). In this case, the ARO is 90% or 0.9, and the SLE can be calculated by multiplying the cost of restoring services ($90 per hour * 3 hours * 30 staff) which equals $8,100. Therefore, the ALE is $0.9 * $8,100 = $7,290.

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89. QUESTION NO: 260
A vendor releases an application update to a recent service pack that addresses problems being experienced by some end users. This update would be considered a:

Explanation

A hotfix is a small, targeted update that is released to address specific issues or bugs in a software application. In this scenario, the vendor released an application update to address problems experienced by some end users. Since the update is targeted and specific to addressing these problems, it would be considered a hotfix. A patch, on the other hand, is a broader update that may include multiple fixes and improvements. A service pack rollup is a cumulative update that includes all previously released updates, while a service pack is a larger update that includes new features, enhancements, and bug fixes.

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90. QUESTION NO: 237
Which of the following is setup within a router?

Explanation

A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is a setup within a router that creates a separate network segment to host publicly accessible servers or services. It acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and the external network, providing an additional layer of security. By placing servers in the DMZ, organizations can allow external access to specific services while keeping their internal network protected from potential threats.

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91. QUESTION NO: 246
Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to quickly find a PC with a blank database administrator password?

Explanation

A vulnerability scanner would be the best tool for an administrator to quickly find a PC with a blank database administrator password. Vulnerability scanners are designed to detect weaknesses and vulnerabilities in a system, including weak or blank passwords. By scanning the network and identifying systems with blank database administrator passwords, the administrator can quickly address this security issue and take appropriate actions to secure the system.

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92. QUESTION NO: 298
A technician is performing an assessment on a router and discovers packet filtering is employed. Which of the following describes a security concern with stateless packet filtering?

Explanation

Stateless packet filtering refers to a type of firewall that examines each packet individually, without considering the context or state of previous packets. The security concern with stateless packet filtering is that it does not inspect the packet payload, which means that malicious content or threats within the payload may go undetected. This can leave the network vulnerable to attacks or unauthorized access.

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93. QUESTION NO: 241
Which of the following facilitates the creation of an unencrypted tunnel between two devices?

Explanation

L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) facilitates the creation of an unencrypted tunnel between two devices. This protocol allows the transfer of data packets between the devices over the internet in a secure and private manner. It is commonly used for establishing virtual private networks (VPNs) and can be used in combination with other encryption protocols to provide additional security. L2TP does not provide encryption on its own, but it creates a tunnel that can be encrypted using other protocols such as IPsec.

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94. QUESTION NO: 288 Which of the following describes software that is often written solely for a specific customer's application?

Explanation

Hotfixes are software updates that are specifically developed to address a particular issue or bug in an existing software application. They are typically created and released by the software vendor in response to a customer's specific problem. Unlike service packs or patches, which are more general updates that address multiple issues or provide new features, hotfixes are often tailored to meet the specific needs of a particular customer or a small group of customers. Therefore, hotfixes can be considered as software that is often written solely for a specific customer's application.

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95. QUESTION NO: 279 Which of the following sites can be online the QUICKEST and does not require data restoration from backup media to ensure the production data is as current as possible?

Explanation

A mirrored site can be online the quickest and does not require data restoration from backup media to ensure the production data is as current as possible. This is because a mirrored site is an exact replica of the primary site, constantly updated in real-time. Therefore, there is no need to restore data from backups, resulting in minimal downtime and the most up-to-date data availability.

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96. QUESTION NO: 203
A programmer creates an application to accept data from a websitE. A user places more information than the program expects in the input field resulting in the back end database placing the extra information into the databasE. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of SQL injection. SQL injection is a code injection technique that attackers use to exploit vulnerabilities in a web application's database layer. In this scenario, the user input is not properly validated or sanitized, allowing the user to insert additional SQL statements into the input field. This can lead to unauthorized access, data manipulation, or even complete control of the database.

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97. QUESTION NO: 287 Port 3535 is typically blocked for outbound traffic on a companys LAN. An end-user has recently purchased a legitimate business program that needs to make outbound calls using this port. Which of the following steps should a technician take to allow this? (Select TWO).

Explanation

To allow outbound traffic on port 3535, the technician should open the port on the company's firewall and on the user's personal software firewall. Opening the port on the company's firewall will allow the program to access the port on the LAN. Opening the port on the user's personal software firewall will allow the program to access the port on the user's device. By taking these two steps, the program will be able to make outbound calls using port 3535.

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98. QUESTION NO: 209
A technician is deciding between implementing a HIDS on the database server or implementing a NIDS. Which of the following are reasons why a NIDS may be better to implement? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A NIDS may be better to implement because many HIDS are not able to detect network attacks, meaning they would not be effective in identifying and preventing attacks that originate from the network. Additionally, many HIDS have a negative impact on system performance, which could slow down the database server and affect its overall functionality.

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99. QUESTION NO: 297 Which of the following describes a spanned switch port in the context of IDS traffic analysis?

Explanation

A spanned switch port refers to an association of a set of source ports with a single destination port. This means that the traffic from multiple source ports is being sent to a single destination port for analysis by an IDS sensor.

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100. QUESTION NO: 283 A financial institution performed a risk assessment on the DLT backup system used to store customer account details. The main risk highlighted was the long-term retention of electronically stored datA. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the risk being raised?

Explanation

The risk of long-term retention of electronically stored data being raised is most likely due to the compatibility of media and application systems. This means that there may be issues with the storage media used for backup and the application systems used to access and retrieve the data. If the media and application systems are not compatible, it can lead to difficulties in retaining and accessing the data over a long period of time.

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