CompTIA Security+ Exam MCQ!

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1. 168# DRAG DROP - A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed. 1. Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives. 2. Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/O, storage requirements. Instructions: ✑ All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary ✑ Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes checkboxes ✑ If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity ✑ Server profiles may be dragged only once If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue. Select and Place:

Explanation

RAID-0 is known as striping. It is not a fault tolerant solution but does improve disk performance for read/write operations. Striping requires a minimum of two disks and does not use parity.
RAID-0 can be used where performance is required over fault tolerance, such as a media streaming server.
RAID-1 is known as mirroring because the same data is written to two disks so that the two disks have identical data. This is a fault tolerant solution that halves the storage space. A minimum of two disks are used in mirroring and does not use parity. RAID-1 can be used where fault tolerance is required over performance, such as on an authentication server. RAID-5 is a fault tolerant solution that uses parity and striping. A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 with one disk's worth of space being used for parity information. However, the parity information is distributed across all the disks. RAID-5 can recover from a sing disk failure.
RAID-6 is a fault tolerant solution that uses dual parity and striping. A minimum of four disks are required for RAID-6. Dual parity allows RAID-6 to recover from the simultaneous failure of up to two disks. Critical data should be stored on a RAID-6 system. http://www.adaptec.com/en-us/solutions/raid_levels.html

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About This Quiz
CompTIA Security+ Exam MCQ! - Quiz

This CompTIA Security+ Exam MCQ quiz assesses knowledge in maintaining security protocols, detecting various malware types, and managing network security tools. It is designed for learners aiming to... see morevalidate their cybersecurity expertise and prepare for professional certification. see less

2. 185# Which of the following works by implanting software on systems but delays execution until a specific set of conditions is met?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of malware that is designed to lie dormant within a system until certain conditions are met. Once those conditions are met, the logic bomb will execute its malicious payload, which could be anything from deleting files to causing system crashes. Unlike other types of malware, such as trojans or ransomware, logic bombs do not immediately cause harm but instead wait for a specific trigger to activate their malicious actions. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Logic bomb.

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3. 163# A company is developing a new system that will unlock a computer automatically when an authorized user sits in front of it, and then lock the computer when the user leaves. The user does not have to perform any action for this process to occur. Which of the following technologies provides this capability?

Explanation

Facial recognition technology can provide the capability to unlock a computer automatically when an authorized user sits in front of it. This technology uses algorithms to analyze and identify unique facial features, allowing the computer to recognize the user without any manual action required. Once the user leaves, the computer can then lock itself automatically. This technology offers convenience and enhanced security by eliminating the need for passwords or physical keys.

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4. 182# Company policy requires the use if passphrases instead if passwords. Which of the following technical controls MUST be in place in order to promote the use of passphrases?

Explanation

In order to promote the use of passphrases, the technical control of complexity must be in place. Passphrases are typically longer and more secure than passwords, so complexity requirements ensure that users create strong and unique passphrases. Complexity controls can include requirements for using a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. By enforcing complexity, the company policy can ensure that passphrases are robust and less susceptible to being easily guessed or cracked.

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5. 167# A security analyst is investigating a suspected security breach and discovers the following in the logs of the potentially compromised server: Which of the following would be the BEST method for preventing this type of suspected attack in the future?

Explanation

Implementing account lockout settings would be the best method for preventing this type of suspected attack in the future. Account lockout settings can help protect against brute force attacks, where an attacker repeatedly tries different passwords until they gain access. By implementing account lockout settings, such as locking an account after a certain number of failed login attempts, the server can automatically prevent further login attempts from that account, making it more difficult for an attacker to gain unauthorized access. This can help enhance the security of the server and prevent similar attacks in the future.

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6. 171# A new mobile application is being developed in-house. Security reviews did not pick up any major flaws, however vulnerability scanning results show fundamental issues at the very end of the project cycle. Which of the following security activities should also have been performed to discover vulnerabilities earlier in the lifecycle?

Explanation

A code review should have been performed to discover vulnerabilities earlier in the lifecycle. Code review involves examining the code for errors, bugs, and security vulnerabilities. By conducting a code review, developers can identify and fix issues before the application reaches the end of the project cycle. It is an essential security activity that helps ensure the quality and security of the codebase.

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7. #101 Which of the following must be intact for evidence to be admissible in court?

Explanation

In order for evidence to be admissible in court, the chain of custody must be intact. This refers to the chronological documentation of the custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence. It ensures that the evidence has not been tampered with or altered in any way, and establishes its authenticity and reliability. The chain of custody is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and ensuring that it can be trusted as accurate and reliable in court proceedings.

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8. 108 # A Chief Information Officer (CIO) drafts an agreement between the organization and its employees. The agreement outlines ramifications for releasing information without consent and/or approvals. Which of the following BEST describes this type of agreement?

Explanation

The agreement described in the question is a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA). An NDA is a legal contract between two or more parties that outlines confidential information that the parties agree not to disclose to third parties. In this case, the agreement drafted by the CIO is specifically addressing the release of information without consent and/or approvals, which aligns with the purpose of an NDA. ISA (Information Sharing Agreement), MOU (Memorandum of Understanding), and SLA (Service Level Agreement) are not appropriate descriptions for this type of agreement.

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9. 109 # Which of the following would meet the requirements for multifactor authentication?

Explanation

The combination of a fingerprint and password meets the requirements for multifactor authentication because it combines something the user is (biometric fingerprint) with something the user knows (password). This ensures that the user's identity is verified using both a physical characteristic and a secret piece of information, making it more secure than using a single factor for authentication.

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10. 147# An organization is comparing and contrasting migration from its standard desktop configuration to the newest version of the platform. Before this can happen, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) voices the need to evaluate the functionality of the newer desktop platform to ensure interoperability with existing software in use by the organization. In which of the following principles of architecture and design is the CISO engaging?

Explanation

The CISO is engaging in change management, which involves evaluating the functionality of the newer desktop platform to ensure interoperability with existing software in use by the organization. Change management is the process of managing and controlling changes to a system or environment to minimize disruption and ensure that changes are implemented smoothly and effectively. In this case, the CISO is concerned about the impact of migrating to the new platform on the organization's existing software and wants to assess the compatibility before proceeding with the migration.

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11. 130# Which of the following vulnerability types would the type of hacker known as a script kiddie be MOST dangerous against?

Explanation

A script kiddie is typically an inexperienced hacker who relies on pre-existing tools and scripts to carry out attacks. They do not possess advanced hacking skills or knowledge. Among the given vulnerability types, unpatched exploitable Internet-facing services would be the most vulnerable to attacks from script kiddies. These hackers can easily find and use automated tools to exploit known vulnerabilities in such services without requiring much technical expertise.

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12. 120# Which of the following precautions MINIMIZES the risk from network attacks directed at multifunction printers, as well as the impact on functionality at the same time?

Explanation

Isolating the systems using VLANs helps to minimize the risk from network attacks directed at multifunction printers by creating separate virtual networks for different devices or groups of devices. This prevents unauthorized access to the printers and limits the potential impact of an attack on the functionality of the printers. VLANs provide a level of network segmentation and control, allowing organizations to better protect their devices and data.

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13. 177# Although a web enabled application appears to only allow letters in the comment field of a web form, malicious user was able to carry a SQL injection attack by sending special characters through the web comment field. Which of the following has the application programmer failed to implement?

Explanation

The application programmer has failed to implement server side validation. Server side validation is an important security measure that ensures that data submitted by users through a web form is properly validated and sanitized before it is processed and stored in the database. In this case, the fact that a malicious user was able to carry out a SQL injection attack suggests that the server side validation was not properly implemented, allowing the user to send special characters that were not properly handled, leading to the attack.

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14. #141 Which of the following types of attacks precedes the installation of a rootkit on a server?

Explanation

Privilege escalation is the type of attack that occurs before the installation of a rootkit on a server. Privilege escalation involves gaining unauthorized access to higher levels of privileges or permissions than originally granted. By exploiting vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system, an attacker can elevate their privileges and gain administrative control over the server. Once they have gained higher privileges, they can proceed with the installation of a rootkit, which is a malicious software that provides unauthorized access and control over the server.

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15. 164# A security analyst accesses corporate web pages and inputs random data in the forms. The response received includes the type of database used and SQL commands that the database accepts. Which of the following should the security analyst use to prevent this vulnerability?

Explanation

The security analyst should use input validation to prevent this vulnerability. Input validation is the process of checking and validating user input to ensure that it meets the expected format and criteria. By implementing input validation, the analyst can ensure that only valid and expected data is accepted by the web forms. This can help prevent the injection of malicious SQL commands or unauthorized access to the database. It is an important security measure to protect against attacks such as SQL injection.

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16. 149# A user is presented with the following items during the new-hire on boarding process: -Laptop -Secure USB drive -Hardware OTP token -External high-capacity HDD -Password complexity policy -Acceptable use policy -HASP key -Cable lock Which of the following is one component of multifactor authentication?

Explanation

One component of multifactor authentication is a Hardware OTP token. Multifactor authentication requires the use of multiple factors to verify the identity of a user. In this case, the Hardware OTP token serves as a second factor, in addition to a password or another form of authentication. It generates a unique one-time password that is used for authentication purposes, adding an extra layer of security to the login process. The other options listed, such as the Secure USB drive, Cable lock, and HASP key, are not typically used as factors in multifactor authentication.

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17. 154# A security analyst reviews the following output: The analyst loads the hash into the SIEM to discover if this hash is seen in other parts of the network. After inspecting a large number of files, the security analyst reports the following: Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the hash being found in other areas?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the hash being found in other areas is that there are MD5 hash collisions. This means that multiple files have the same hash value, which can occur due to the limitations of the MD5 hashing algorithm. It is not necessarily indicative of any malicious activity or insider threat, nor does it suggest that the file is encrypted or that shadow copies are present.

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18. 112 # Before an infection was detected, several of the infected devices attempted to access a URL that was similar to the company name but with two letters transposed. Which of the following BEST describes the attack vector used to infect the devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Typo squatting. Typo squatting is a technique used by attackers to register domain names that are similar to legitimate domain names but with slight misspellings or transposed letters. In this case, the infected devices attempted to access a URL that was similar to the company name but with two letters transposed, indicating that the attack vector used was typo squatting.

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19. 116# As part of the SDLC, a third party is hired to perform a penetration test. The third-party will have access to the source code, integration tests, and network diagrams. Which of the following BEST describes the assessment being performed?

Explanation

The assessment being performed in this scenario is a white box assessment. This is because the third party has access to the source code, integration tests, and network diagrams, which means they have full knowledge of the internal workings of the system. In a white box assessment, the tester has complete knowledge and understanding of the system being tested, allowing them to identify vulnerabilities and potential security issues more effectively.

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20. 155# A company's AUP requires: ✑ Passwords must meet complexity requirements. ✑ Passwords are changed at least once every six months. Passwords must be at least eight characters long. An auditor is reviewing the following report: Which of the following controls should the auditor recommend to enforce the AUP?

Explanation

The auditor should recommend implementing password expiration as a control to enforce the AUP. This control ensures that passwords are changed at least once every six months, as required by the AUP. By setting a specific expiration period, the system will prompt users to change their passwords regularly, promoting security and reducing the risk of unauthorized access.

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21. 175# A technician is configuring a wireless guest network. After applying the most recent changes the technician finds the new devices can no longer find the wireless network by name but existing devices are still able to use the wireless network. Which of the following security measures did the technician MOST likely implement to cause this Scenario?

Explanation

The technician most likely deactivated the SSID broadcast, which is the act of hiding the wireless network's name from being broadcasted. This would explain why new devices cannot find the network by name, as they would need to manually enter the network's name in order to connect. Existing devices, however, would still be able to use the network since they were already connected and have the network's name saved.

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22. 157# A security analyst notices anomalous activity coming from several workstations in the organizations. Upon identifying and containing the issue, which of the following should the security analyst do NEXT?

Explanation

After identifying and containing the anomalous activity, the security analyst should document their findings and processes in an after-action and lessons learned report. This report serves as a record of the incident, including the steps taken to address it, and can be used for future reference and to improve security measures. It helps the organization understand the incident, learn from it, and make any necessary adjustments to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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23. 181# A security administrator has been tasked with improving the overall security posture related to desktop machines on the network. An auditor has recently that several machines with confidential customer information displayed in the screens are left unattended during the course of the day. Which of the following could the security administrator implement to reduce the risk associated with the finding?

Explanation

To reduce the risk associated with unattended desktop machines displaying confidential customer information, the security administrator could implement the option C, which is to enable group policy based screensaver timeouts. This would ensure that after a certain period of inactivity, the screensaver would automatically activate, preventing unauthorized individuals from viewing the information on the screen. This measure would enhance the overall security posture by minimizing the exposure of sensitive data when machines are left unattended.

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24. 158# An employee receives an email, which appears to be from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), asking for a report of security credentials for all users. Which of the following types of attack is MOST likely occurring?

Explanation

Spear phishing is the most likely type of attack occurring in this scenario. Spear phishing is a targeted form of phishing where the attacker poses as a trusted individual, such as the CEO in this case, to trick the recipient into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that could compromise security. In this scenario, the email appears to be from the CEO and requests security credentials for all users, which is a common tactic used in spear phishing attacks to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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25. 183# During a routine audit, it is discovered that someone has been using a stale administrator account to log into a seldom used server. The person has been using the server to view inappropriate websites that are prohibited to end users. Which of the following could best prevent this from occurring again?

Explanation

An account expiration policy would be the best solution to prevent this situation from occurring again. By implementing an account expiration policy, administrator accounts that are not regularly used would automatically expire after a certain period of time. This would help to prevent unauthorized access and misuse of these accounts.

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26. 198# A member of a digital forensics team, Joe arrives at a crime scene and is preparing to collect system data. Before powering the system off, Joe knows that he must collect the most volatile date first. Which of the following is the correct order in which Joe should collect the data?

Explanation

Joe should collect the data in the following order: CPU cache, RAM, paging/swap files, remote logging data. This is because CPU cache is the most volatile data and is likely to be lost first when the system is powered off. RAM contains important data that may not be saved to disk, so it should be collected next. Paging/swap files are stored on disk and may contain additional data. Remote logging data is the least volatile and can be collected last.

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27. 104 # A technician suspects that a system has been compromised. The technician reviews the following log entry: WARNING- hash mismatch: C:\Window\SysWOW64\user32.dll WARNING- hash mismatch: C:\Window\SysWOW64\kernel32.dll Based solely on the above information, which of the following types of malware is MOST likely installed on the system?

Explanation

The log entry indicates a hash mismatch for system files, specifically user32.dll and kernel32.dll. This suggests that these files have been modified, which is a common behavior of rootkits. Rootkits are a type of malware that are designed to hide their presence on a system by modifying or replacing important system files. Therefore, based on the given information, the most likely type of malware installed on the system is a rootkit.

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28. 194# An administrator has concerns regarding the traveling sales team who works primarily from smart phones. Given the sensitive nature of their work, which of the following would BEST prevent access to the data in case of loss or theft?

Explanation

Configuring the smart phones so that the stored data can be destroyed from a centralized location would be the best way to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data in case of loss or theft. This measure ensures that even if the phones are lost or stolen, the data can be remotely wiped, preventing it from falling into the wrong hands. This adds an extra layer of security and mitigates the risk of data breaches.

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29. 110 # A manager suspects that an IT employee with elevated database access may be knowingly modifying financial transactions for the benefit of a competitor. Which of the following practices should the manager implement to validate the concern?

Explanation

Implementing separation of duties would help validate the concern because it involves dividing critical tasks and responsibilities among different individuals. This ensures that no single employee has complete control over a process, reducing the risk of fraud or malicious activity. By separating the duties of accessing and modifying financial transactions, the manager can mitigate the risk of the IT employee being able to manipulate transactions for the benefit of a competitor.

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30. 123# During a monthly vulnerability scan, a server was flagged for being vulnerable to an Apache Struts exploit. Upon further investigation, the developer responsible for the server informs the security team that Apache Struts is not installed on the server. Which of the following BEST describes how the security team should reach this incident?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the developer responsible for the server states that Apache Struts is not installed on the server. This indicates that the vulnerability scan may have produced a false positive result, meaning that it incorrectly flagged the server as vulnerable to an Apache Struts exploit. Therefore, the security team should disregard the finding as it is not a legitimate vulnerability.

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31. 135# A company hires a third-party firm to conduct an assessment of vulnerabilities exposed to the Internet. The firm informs the company that an exploit exists for an FTP server that had a version installed from eight years ago. The company has decided to keep the system online anyway, as no upgrade exists from the vendor. Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the vulnerability exists?

Explanation

The vulnerability exists because the company is using an FTP server version that is eight years old and there is no upgrade available from the vendor. This indicates that the system is at the end of its life cycle and is no longer supported by the vendor, leaving it vulnerable to known exploits.

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32. 187# Technicians working with servers hosted at the company's datacenter are increasingly complaining of electric shocks when touching metal items which have been linked to hard drive failures. Which of the following should be implemented to correct this issue?

Explanation

Increasing the humidity in the room can help to reduce static electricity, which is likely causing the electric shocks. Static electricity build-up can be a common issue in low humidity environments, and it can cause damage to sensitive electronic components such as hard drives. By increasing the humidity, the static electricity will be minimized, reducing the risk of electric shocks and potential hard drive failures.

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33. 160# A group of non-profit agencies wants to implement a cloud service to share resources with each other and minimize costs. Which of the following cloud deployment models BEST describes this type of effort?

Explanation

A group of non-profit agencies coming together to implement a cloud service and share resources indicates that they are collaborating and pooling their resources for a common purpose. This aligns with the definition of a community cloud deployment model, where a specific community or group of organizations share the same cloud infrastructure to meet their common goals and requirements. This model allows for cost-sharing and resource optimization, making it the best fit for the given scenario.

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34. 103 # Which of the following cryptography algorithms will produce a fixed-length, irreversible output?

Explanation

MD5 is a cryptographic algorithm that produces a fixed-length, irreversible output. It is commonly used for verifying the integrity of files and detecting duplicate data. MD5 generates a 128-bit hash value, which is a fixed-length output that cannot be reversed to obtain the original input. This makes it suitable for tasks such as password hashing, where it is important to store passwords securely without being able to retrieve the original plaintext password. However, it is worth noting that MD5 is considered to be weak for cryptographic purposes due to its vulnerability to collision attacks.

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35. 174# The security administrator receives an email on a non-company account from a coworker stating that some reports are not exporting correctly. Attached to the email was an example report file with several customers' names and credit card numbers with the PIN. Which of the following is the BEST technical controls that will help mitigate this risk of disclosing sensitive data?

Explanation

Implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution on the email gateway is the best technical control to mitigate the risk of disclosing sensitive data. A DLP solution can scan incoming and outgoing emails, identify sensitive data such as credit card numbers, and remove or block the transmission of such data. This helps prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information and ensures compliance with data protection regulations. Configuring the mail server for TLS connections only encrypts the transport data but does not address the issue of sensitive data leakage. User training and audits, as well as data classification, are important measures but may not be as effective in preventing accidental data disclosure as a DLP solution.

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36. 159# An information security analyst needs to work with an employee who can answer questions about how data for a specific system is used in the business. The analyst should seek out an employee who has the role of:

Explanation

The information security analyst needs to work with an employee who can provide information about how data for a specific system is used in the business. This suggests that the analyst needs to collaborate with someone who has the authority and knowledge to determine how the data is used within the organization. The role of an "owner" typically involves responsibility for the data and its usage, making this the most appropriate choice. A steward may be responsible for managing and protecting the data, but may not have the authority to answer questions about its usage. A privacy officer is focused on ensuring compliance with privacy regulations, while a systems administrator is responsible for managing and maintaining the technical aspects of the system, rather than determining data usage.

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37. 186# A web application is configured to target browsers and allow access to bank accounts to siphon money to a foreign account. This is an example of which of the following attacks?

Explanation

This scenario describes a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack. In an XSS attack, the attacker injects malicious code into a web application, which is then executed by unsuspecting users who visit the affected page. In this case, the malicious code is targeting browsers and allowing access to bank accounts to siphon money to a foreign account. XSS attacks can be used to steal sensitive information, such as login credentials or financial data, and can have serious consequences for both individuals and organizations.

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38. 137# Joe, a user, wants to send Ann, another user, a confidential document electronically. Which of the following should Joe do to ensure the document is protected from eavesdropping?

Explanation

Joe should encrypt the document with Ann's public key to ensure that it is protected from eavesdropping. By encrypting it with Ann's public key, only Ann will be able to decrypt and access the document using her private key. This ensures that only the intended recipient can read the confidential information and prevents unauthorized access or eavesdropping by others.

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39. 190# A technician has installed new vulnerability scanner software on a server that is joined to the company domain. The vulnerability scanner is able to provide visibility over the patch posture of all company's clients. Which of the following is being used?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Credentialed scan. A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that requires valid credentials (such as username and password) to access the target system. In this scenario, the technician has installed vulnerability scanner software on a server joined to the company domain, which suggests that the scanner has the necessary credentials to authenticate and access the clients' systems. This allows the scanner to provide visibility over the patch posture of all company clients, indicating that it is using a credentialed scan to gather information about the clients' patch levels and vulnerabilities.

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40. 139# To reduce disk consumption, an organization's legal department has recently approved a new policy setting the data retention period for sent email at six months. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure this goal is met?

Explanation

Creating a daily encrypted backup of the relevant emails is the best way to ensure the goal of reducing disk consumption and meeting the data retention period for sent emails. By creating encrypted backups, the organization can securely store the relevant emails while minimizing disk space usage. This allows the organization to meet legal requirements and retain the necessary data without cluttering the email server or compromising security.

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41. 142# Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is irreversible?

Explanation

SHA-256 is an irreversible cryptographic algorithm. It is a widely used hash function that generates a fixed-size output (256 bits) from any input data. The output, also known as the hash value, is unique to the input data, meaning that even a small change in the input will result in a completely different hash value. This makes it computationally infeasible to reverse-engineer the original input from the hash value. Therefore, SHA-256 is considered irreversible, making it suitable for various security applications such as password storage and digital signatures.

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42. 111 # A penetration tester finds that a company's login credentials for the email client were being sent in cleartext. Which of the following should be done to provide encrypted logins to the email server?

Explanation

Enabling an SSL certificate for IMAP services would provide encrypted logins to the email server. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a protocol that encrypts data transmitted between a client and a server, ensuring that the information cannot be intercepted or read by unauthorized individuals. By enabling an SSL certificate for IMAP services, the company can secure the login credentials for the email client, preventing them from being sent in cleartext and enhancing the overall security of the system.

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43. 113# A systems administrator is reviewing the following information from a compromised server: Given the above information, which of the following processes was MOST likely exploited via a remote buffer overflow attack?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Apache. The information provided states that the server is running Apache version 2.4.7, which is a web server software. Web servers like Apache are commonly targeted by remote buffer overflow attacks, where an attacker sends more data than a buffer can handle, causing it to overflow and potentially allowing the attacker to execute malicious code on the server. Therefore, it is most likely that Apache was exploited in this scenario.

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44. 115# The availability of a system has been labeled as the highest priority. Which of the following should be focused on the MOST to ensure the objective?

Explanation

The availability of a system refers to its ability to be operational and accessible when needed. HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) is important for maintaining the proper temperature and humidity levels in a system's environment. This is crucial for preventing overheating or damage to the system's components, which can lead to downtime and affect its availability. Therefore, focusing on HVAC ensures that the system remains operational and available for use.

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45. 151# A network technician is setting up a segmented network that will utilize a separate ISP to provide wireless access to the public area for a company. Which of the following wireless security methods should the technician implement to provide basic accountability for access to the public network?

Explanation

A captive portal is a type of wireless security method that requires users to authenticate or agree to certain terms and conditions before accessing the network. This provides basic accountability as it allows the network administrator to track and monitor who is accessing the public network. It also helps in preventing unauthorized access and ensures that users are aware of the network policies and guidelines before using it.

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46. 131# An in-house penetration tester is using a packet capture device to listen in on network communications. This is an example of:

Explanation

An in-house penetration tester using a packet capture device to listen in on network communications is an example of passive reconnaissance. Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information about a target system or network without actively engaging with it. In this case, the penetration tester is simply observing and collecting data from the network communications without actively interacting or attempting to exploit any vulnerabilities.

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47. 132# A black hat hacker is enumerating a network and wants to remain covert during the process. The hacker initiates a vulnerability scan. Given the task at hand the requirement of being covert, which of the following statements BEST indicates that the vulnerability scan meets these requirements?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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48. 133# A development team has adopted a new approach to projects in which feedback is iterative and multiple iterations of deployments are provided within an application's full life cycle. Which of the following software development methodologies is the development team using?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. Agile. Agile is a software development methodology that emphasizes iterative and incremental development, allowing for multiple iterations of deployments within an application's full life cycle. This approach encourages feedback and collaboration from stakeholders throughout the development process, resulting in a more flexible and adaptable approach to project management.

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49. 178# An attacker discovers a new vulnerability in an enterprise application. The attacker takes advantage of the vulnerability by developing new malware. After installing the malware, the attacker is provided with access to the infected machine. Which of the following is being described?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Zero-day exploit. A zero-day exploit refers to a vulnerability that is discovered by an attacker before the software vendor or developer becomes aware of it. In this scenario, the attacker discovers a new vulnerability in the enterprise application and takes advantage of it by developing new malware. Since the vulnerability is unknown to the software vendor, it is considered a zero-day exploit. By installing the malware, the attacker gains access to the infected machine.

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50. 126# Which of the following AES modes of operation provide authentication? (Select two.)

Explanation

CCM and GCM are both AES modes of operation that provide authentication. CCM (Counter with CBC-MAC) is a mode that combines counter mode encryption with CBC-MAC authentication. It provides both confidentiality and authentication. GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) is another mode that combines counter mode encryption with Galois field multiplication-based authentication. It also provides both confidentiality and authentication. DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm) is a digital signature algorithm and not an AES mode of operation. CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) and CFB (Cipher Feedback) are AES modes of operation that provide confidentiality but not authentication.

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51. 140# A security administrator is configuring a new network segment, which contains devices that will be accessed by external users, such as web and FTP server. Which of the following represents the MOST secure way to configure the new network segment?

Explanation

Placing the new network segment on an extranet and configuring the firewall rules to allow both internal and external traffic is the most secure way to configure the segment. An extranet is a controlled extension of an organization's internal network that allows external users limited access. By placing the segment on an extranet, the organization can provide access to external users while still maintaining a level of security. Configuring the firewall rules to allow both internal and external traffic ensures that the necessary communication can occur while still protecting the network from unauthorized access.

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52. 172# A security administrator is creating a subnet on one of the corporate firewall interfaces to use as a DMZ which is expected to accommodate at most 14 physical hosts. Which of the following subnets would BEST meet the requirements?

Explanation

The subnet 192.168.0.16/28 would best meet the requirements because it allows for a maximum of 14 physical hosts. The /28 subnet mask provides 16 IP addresses, but 2 of them are reserved for network and broadcast addresses, leaving 14 usable IP addresses for hosts.

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53. 188# A portable data storage device has been determined to have malicious firmware. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to ensure data confidentiality?

Explanation

Performing a virus scan on the device is the best course of action to ensure data confidentiality when a portable data storage device has been determined to have malicious firmware. This will help identify and remove any malware or malicious code that may be present on the device, thereby preventing unauthorized access to the data stored on it. Formatting the device or re-imaging it may not completely remove the malicious firmware, while physically destroying the device would result in permanent data loss.

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54. 161# An administrator is configuring access to information located on a network file server named "Bowman". The files are located in a folder named "BalkFiles". The files are only for use by the "Matthews" division and should be read-only. The security policy requires permissions for shares to be managed at the file system layer and also requires those permissions to be set according to a least privilege model. Security policy for this data type also dictates that administrator-level accounts on the system have full access to the files. The administrator configures the file share according to the following table: Which of the following rows has been misconfigured?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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55. 102 # A vulnerability scanner that uses its running service's access level to better assess vulnerabilities across multiple assets within an organization is performing a:

Explanation

A vulnerability scanner that uses its running service's access level to better assess vulnerabilities across multiple assets within an organization is performing a credentialed scan. This type of scan requires the scanner to have valid credentials (such as username and password) to authenticate with the target systems. By doing so, the scanner can access more detailed information about the system's configuration and installed software, allowing for a more accurate assessment of vulnerabilities. This type of scan is often preferred for internal network assessments where the scanner has legitimate access to the systems being scanned.

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56. 117# A dumpster diver recovers several hard drives from a company and is able to obtain confidential data from one of the hard drives. The company then discovers its information is posted online. Which of the following methods would have MOST likely prevented the data from being exposed?

Explanation

Using magnetic fields to erase the data would have most likely prevented the data from being exposed. This method involves using strong magnetic fields to completely erase the data on the hard drives, making it impossible for anyone to recover the confidential information. By erasing the data in this way, the dumpster diver would not have been able to retrieve the confidential data and post it online.

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57. 119# An application developer is designing an application involving secure transports from one service to another that will pass over port 80 for a request. Which of the following secure protocols is the developer MOST likely to use?

Explanation

The developer is most likely to use SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) as the secure protocol for the application. SSL is commonly used for secure communication over the internet and can provide encryption and authentication for data transmission. Port 80 is typically used for HTTP communication, and SSL can be implemented on top of HTTP to secure the data being transmitted. FTPS and SFTP are secure protocols for file transfer, LDAPS is used for secure LDAP communication, and SSH is used for secure remote access, but SSL is the most suitable choice for secure transport over port 80 in this scenario.

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58. 150# An organization requires users to provide their fingerprints to access an application. To improve security, the application developers intend to implement multifactor authentication. Which of the following should be implemented?

Explanation

Having users sign their name naturally can be a form of biometric authentication. Each person's signature is unique, and by verifying the signature, the application can confirm the user's identity. This adds an additional layer of security to the authentication process, making it a suitable choice for implementing multifactor authentication. Facial recognition, palm geometry scan, and iris recognition are also forms of biometric authentication, but they are not mentioned in the question and therefore not the correct answer.

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59. 121# After an identified security breach, an analyst is tasked to initiate the IR process. Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take?

Explanation

After an identified security breach, the analyst should take the next step of identification. This involves gathering information and evidence to determine the scope and nature of the breach. By identifying the specific details of the breach, the analyst can then proceed with the appropriate actions in the incident response process, such as containment, eradication, and recovery.

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60. 184# Which of the following should identify critical systems and components?

Explanation

BCP stands for Business Continuity Planning, which is a process that identifies critical systems and components within an organization. It involves creating a plan to ensure that these systems and components can continue to operate or be quickly restored in the event of a disruption. BCP helps organizations minimize downtime, maintain customer trust, and protect their reputation. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding), BPA (Business Process Automation), and ITCP (Information Technology Contingency Plan) are not specifically designed to identify critical systems and components.

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61. 199# An organization has hired a penetration tester to test the security of its ten web servers. The penetration tester is able to gain root/administrative access in several servers by exploiting vulnerabilities associated with the implementation of SMTP, POP, DNS, FTP, Telnet, and IMAP. Which of the following recommendations should the penetration tester provide to the organization to better protect their web servers in the future?

Explanation

By gaining root/administrative access through exploiting vulnerabilities associated with various services, it is clear that there are unnecessary services enabled on the web servers. By disabling these unnecessary services, the organization can reduce the attack surface and minimize the potential vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers. This recommendation will help better protect the web servers in the future.

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62. 189# A security administrator must implement a system to ensure that invalid certificates are not used by a custom developed application. The system must be able to check the validity of certificates even when internet access is unavailable. Which of the following MUST be implemented to support this requirement?

Explanation

To ensure that invalid certificates are not used by a custom developed application, the security administrator must implement a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). A CRL is a list maintained by a certificate authority (CA) that contains the serial numbers of revoked certificates. The application can check the validity of certificates by referencing the CRL, even when internet access is unavailable. This allows the application to verify if a certificate has been revoked before accepting it as valid. The other options, CSR (Certificate Signing Request), OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol), and SSH (Secure Shell), do not provide the same functionality as a CRL in this context.

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63. 138# A director of IR is reviewing a report regarding several recent breaches. The director compiles the following statistic's -Initial IR engagement time frame -Length of time before an executive management notice went out -Average IR phase completion The director wants to use the data to shorten the response time. Which of the following would accomplish this?

Explanation

A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario where key stakeholders gather together to discuss and practice their response to a potential incident. By conducting tabletop exercises, the director can identify any gaps or weaknesses in the response process and make necessary improvements. This practice helps to familiarize the team with their roles and responsibilities, improves communication and coordination, and allows for the development of more efficient response strategies. Ultimately, by regularly conducting tabletop exercises, the director can enhance the team's preparedness and shorten the response time in real incidents.

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64. 195# A user of the wireless network is unable to gain access to the network. The symptoms are: 1.) Unable to connect to both internal and Internet resources 2.) The wireless icon shows connectivity but has no network access The wireless network is WPA2 Enterprise and users must be a member of the wireless security group to authenticate. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the connectivity issues?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the connectivity issues is that the user's laptop only supports WPA and WEP. Since the wireless network is WPA2 Enterprise, which requires users to be a member of the wireless security group to authenticate, the user's laptop would not be able to connect to the network if it only supports WPA and WEP. This would explain why the user is unable to connect to both internal and Internet resources, and why the wireless icon shows connectivity but has no network access.

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65. 193# A network administrator wants to ensure that users do not connect any unauthorized devices to the company network. Each desk needs to connect a VoIP phone and computer. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this?

Explanation

Enforcing authentication for network devices is the best way to ensure that users do not connect any unauthorized devices to the company network. By requiring authentication, only authorized devices and users will be able to connect to the network. This helps to prevent unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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66. 114# Joe, a security administrator, needs to extend the organization's remote access functionality to be used by staff while traveling. Joe needs to maintain separate access control functionalities for internal, external, and VOIP services. Which of the following represents the BEST access technology for Joe to use?

Explanation

TACACS+ is the best access technology for Joe to use because it provides separate access control functionalities for internal, external, and VOIP services. TACACS+ allows for granular control over user access and authentication, making it ideal for maintaining security while allowing remote access for traveling staff. RADIUS, Diameter, and Kerberos do not offer the same level of control and functionality as TACACS+.

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67. 118# Which of the following are methods to implement HA in a web application server environment? (Select two.)

Explanation

Load balancers and application layer firewalls are both methods to implement high availability (HA) in a web application server environment. Load balancers distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers to ensure efficient utilization and prevent overload. This helps to improve availability by ensuring that if one server fails, others can handle the traffic. Application layer firewalls, on the other hand, provide an additional layer of security by monitoring and filtering network traffic at the application layer. This helps to protect the web application server from various attacks and vulnerabilities, thereby enhancing its availability and reliability.

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68. 144# A workstation puts out a network request to locate another system. Joe, a hacker on the network, responds before the real system does, and he tricks the workstation into communicating with him. Which of the following BEST describes what occurred?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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69. 152# After a routine audit, a company discovers that engineering documents have been leaving the network on a particular port. The company must allow outbound traffic on this port, as it has a legitimate business use. Blocking the port would cause an outage. Which of the following technology controls should the company implement?

Explanation

The company should implement DLP (Data Loss Prevention) technology controls. DLP helps prevent sensitive data from leaving the network by monitoring and controlling data transfers. In this case, the company has discovered that engineering documents are leaving the network on a particular port. By implementing DLP, the company can set up policies and rules to detect and prevent the unauthorized transfer of these documents, ensuring that sensitive information remains within the network.

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70. 180# A bank requires tellers to get manager approval when a customer wants to open a new account. A recent audit shows that there have been four cases in the previous year where tellers opened accounts without management approval. The bank president thought separation of duties would prevent this from happening. In order to implement a true separation of duties approach the bank could:

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Requiring all new accounts to be handled by someone else other than a teller since they have different duties would implement a true separation of duties approach. This would prevent tellers from opening accounts without management approval, as another individual with different responsibilities would handle the account creation process. By assigning this task to someone else, the bank ensures that there is a check and balance system in place, reducing the risk of unauthorized account openings.

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71. 136# An organization uses SSO authentication for employee access to network resources. When an employee resigns, as per the organization's security policy, the employee's access to all network resources is terminated immediately. Two weeks later, the former employee sends an email to the help desk for a password reset to access payroll information from the human resources server. Which of the following represents the BEST course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action is to deny the former employee's request for a password reset. This is because, according to the organization's security policy, the employee's access to all network resources is terminated immediately upon resignation. Granting a password reset would allow the former employee to regain access to all network resources, which is against the organization's security policy. Therefore, denying the request is the most appropriate action to ensure the security of the network resources.

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72. 197# A mobile device user is concerned about geographic positioning information being included in messages sent between users on a popular social network platform. The user turns off the functionality in the application, but wants to ensure the application cannot re-enable the setting without the knowledge of the user. Which of the following mobile device capabilities should the user disable to achieve the stated goal?

Explanation

The user should disable GEO-Tagging in order to achieve the stated goal. GEO-Tagging is a feature that allows location information to be attached to messages or media files. By disabling this feature, the user can ensure that geographic positioning information is not included in messages sent on the social network platform.

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73. 165# Which of the following differentiates a collision attack from a rainbow table attack?

Explanation

A collision attack and a rainbow table attack are two different types of attacks in cryptography. A collision attack occurs when two different inputs produce the same hash value. On the other hand, a rainbow table attack involves precomputing and storing a large table of hash values and their corresponding inputs to quickly crack hashed passwords. In a rainbow table attack, the attacker performs a hash lookup by searching the table for a matching hash value. Therefore, option A correctly differentiates a rainbow table attack from a collision attack.

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74. 166# A help desk is troubleshooting user reports that the corporate website is presenting untrusted certificate errors to employees and customers when they visit the website. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this error, provided the certificate has not expired?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the untrusted certificate errors is that the valid period for the certificate has expired and a new certificate has not been issued. This means that the certificate is no longer considered valid by the browser or operating system, leading to the error message. It is important to regularly renew certificates to ensure that they remain trusted and valid.

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75. 191# The Chief Security Officer (CISO) at a multinational banking corporation is reviewing a plan to upgrade the entire corporate IT infrastructure. The architecture consists of a centralized cloud environment hosting the majority of data, small server clusters at each corporate location to handle the majority of customer transaction processing, ATMs, and a new mobile banking application accessible from smartphones, tablets, and the Internet via HTTP. The corporation does business having varying data retention and privacy laws. Which of the following technical modifications to the architecture and corresponding security controls should be implemented to provide the MOST complete protection of data?

Explanation

To provide the most complete protection of data, it is important to store customer data based on national borders to comply with varying data retention and privacy laws. Additionally, implementing end-to-end encryption between ATMs, end users, and servers ensures that data is securely transmitted and accessed. Testing redundancy and COOP (Continuity of Operations) plans is crucial to prevent data from being inadvertently shifted from one legal jurisdiction to another with more stringent regulations, ensuring compliance and data protection.

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76. 105# A new firewall has been placed into service at an organization. However, a configuration has not been entered on the firewall. Employees on the network segment covered by the new firewall report they are unable to access the network. Which of the following steps should be completed to BEST resolve the issue?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. The firewall should be configured to prevent user traffic from matching the implicit deny rule. When a new firewall is placed into service without any configuration, it typically has an implicit deny rule in place, which means that all traffic is denied by default. In order for employees on the network segment covered by the firewall to access the network, the firewall needs to be configured to allow their traffic to pass through. By configuring the firewall to prevent user traffic from matching the implicit deny rule, the employees will be able to access the network.

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77. 143# A security analyst receives an alert from a WAF with the following payload: var data= "<test test test>" ++ <../../../../../../etc/passwd>" Which of the following types of attacks is this?

Explanation

The given payload includes JavaScript code that tries to insert data from the file "/etc/passwd" into the webpage. This type of attack is known as JavaScript data insertion, where an attacker tries to inject malicious code or data into a webpage using JavaScript. This can be used to steal sensitive information or perform unauthorized actions on the website.

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78. 192# While reviewing the monthly internet usage it is noted that there is a large spike in traffic classified as "unknown" and does not appear to be within the bounds of the organizations Acceptable Use Policy. Which of the following tool or technology would work BEST for obtaining more information on this traffic?

Explanation

An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any malicious or suspicious activity. By reviewing the IDS logs, it would be possible to obtain more information on the unknown traffic and identify any potential security breaches or unauthorized access attempts. Firewall logs may provide some information but they primarily focus on network traffic that is allowed or blocked based on predefined rules. Increased spam filtering would not be relevant in this context as it is specifically for filtering out unwanted emails. A protocol analyzer could be useful for analyzing network traffic, but an IDS would be more suitable for detecting and investigating unknown traffic.

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79. 107# Which of the following are the MAIN reasons why a systems administrator would install security patches in a staging environment before the patches are applied to the production server? (Select two.)

Explanation

The main reason why a systems administrator would install security patches in a staging environment before applying them to the production server is to prevent server availability issues. By testing the patches in a controlled environment first, any potential issues or conflicts can be identified and resolved before they impact the live production server. Additionally, installing patches in a staging environment allows users to test the functionality of the system after the patches are applied, ensuring that there are no unexpected issues or disruptions in the production environment.

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80. 145# Audit logs from a small company's vulnerability scanning software show the following findings: Destinations scanned: -Server001- Internal human resources payroll server -Server101-Internet-facing web server -Server201- SQL server for Server101 -Server301-Jumpbox used by systems administrators accessible from the internal network Validated vulnerabilities found: -Server001- Vulnerable to buffer overflow exploit that may allow attackers to install software -Server101- Vulnerable to buffer overflow exploit that may allow attackers to install software -Server201-OS updates not fully current -Server301- Accessible from internal network without the use of jumpbox -Server301-Vulnerable to highly publicized exploit that can elevate user privileges Assuming external attackers who are gaining unauthorized information are of the highest concern, which of the following servers should be addressed FIRST?

Explanation

Server101 should be addressed first because it is the only server that is both internet-facing and vulnerable to a buffer overflow exploit. This means that external attackers have the potential to exploit this vulnerability and gain unauthorized access to the server. Addressing this vulnerability will help mitigate the risk of unauthorized information being accessed by external attackers.

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81. 146# A security analyst wants to harden the company's VoIP PBX. The analyst is worried that credentials may be intercepted and compromised when IP phones authenticate with the BPX. Which of the following would best prevent this from occurring?

Explanation

Requiring SIPS (Secure Internet Protocol Session) on connections to the PBX would best prevent interception and compromise of credentials during authentication. SIPS is a secure version of the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) used for VoIP communications. By using SIPS, the communication between the IP phones and the PBX is encrypted, ensuring that any intercepted data is unreadable and secure. This helps to protect the authentication process and prevents unauthorized access to the PBX system. Implementing SRTP (Secure Real-time Transport Protocol) between the phones and the PBX would also provide encryption, but it does not specifically address the authentication process. Placing the phones and PBX in their own VLAN and restricting phone connections to the PBX can provide some level of network segregation and control, but they do not directly address the security of the authentication process.

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82. 170# After a merger between two companies a security analyst has been asked to ensure that the organization's systems are secured against infiltration by any former employees that were terminated during the transition. Which of the following actions are MOST appropriate to harden applications against infiltration by former employees? (Select TWO)

Explanation

Developing and implementing updated access control policies is important to ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the organization's systems. This helps to prevent former employees from infiltrating the systems. Assessing and eliminating inactive accounts is also necessary as these accounts may still provide access to former employees who were terminated during the transition. By removing these accounts, the organization can further reduce the risk of infiltration.

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83. 173# A company has a security policy that specifies all endpoint computing devices should be assigned a unique identifier that can be tracked via an inventory management system. Recent changes to airline security regulations have cause many executives in the company to travel with mini tablet devices instead of laptops. These tablet devices are difficult to tag and track. An RDP application is used from the tablet to connect into the company network. Which of the following should be implemented in order to meet the security policy requirements?

Explanation

MDM (Mobile Device Management) software should be implemented in order to meet the security policy requirements. MDM software allows for the management and tracking of mobile devices, including tablets. It can provide a unique identifier for each device and track their usage and location through the inventory management system. This would enable the company to meet the requirement of assigning a unique identifier to each endpoint computing device and tracking them, even for the difficult-to-tag and track tablet devices.

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84. 134# A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) suspects someone in the lab testing environment is stealing confidential information after working hours when no one else is around. Which of the following actions can help to prevent this specific threat?

Explanation

Requiring swipe-card access to enter the lab can help prevent the specific threat of stealing confidential information after working hours. By implementing swipe-card access, the CEO can track and monitor who enters the lab during non-working hours, making it easier to identify any unauthorized individuals. This measure adds an extra layer of security and accountability, deterring potential thieves and ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to the lab and its confidential information.

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85. 179# A security administrator returning from a short vacation receives an account lock-out message when attempting to log into the computer. After getting the account unlocked the security administrator immediately notices a large amount of emails alerts pertaining to several different user accounts being locked out during the past three days. The security administrator uses system logs to determine that the lock-outs were due to a brute force attack on all accounts that has been previously logged into that machine. Which of the following can be implemented to reduce the likelihood of this attack going undetected?

Explanation

Continuous monitoring can help reduce the likelihood of a brute force attack going undetected. By constantly monitoring the system logs and user account activities, any suspicious or unauthorized login attempts can be identified and addressed promptly. This allows the security administrator to take immediate action, such as blocking the attacker's IP address or implementing additional security measures, to prevent further unauthorized access and mitigate the impact of the attack. Continuous monitoring ensures that any unusual or malicious activities are detected in real-time, enhancing the overall security of the system.

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86. Which of the following is NOT a common type of social engineering attack?

Explanation

SQL injection is a code injection technique used to attack data-driven applications, not a social engineering attack. Social engineering attacks manipulate individuals to gain access to sensitive information. Phishing uses deceptive emails or websites for this purpose. Pretexting involves creating a false scenario to gain trust. Baiting offers something enticing to lure victims into a trap.

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87. 156# An organization's primary datacenter is experiencing a two-day outage due to an HVAC malfunction. The node located in the datacenter has lost power and is no longer operational, impacting the ability of all users to connect to the alternate datacenter. Which of the following BIA concepts BEST represents the risk described in this scenario?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. SPoF, which stands for Single Point of Failure. In this scenario, the primary datacenter is experiencing an outage due to an HVAC malfunction, causing the node in the datacenter to lose power and become non-operational. This means that there is a single point of failure, as the organization does not have a backup or redundancy in place to ensure uninterrupted connectivity to the alternate datacenter. This highlights the importance of identifying and mitigating single points of failure to minimize the impact of such incidents.

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88. 128# A security engineer is configuring a wireless network that must support mutual authentication of the wireless client and the authentication server before users provide credentials. The wireless network must also support authentication with usernames and passwords. Which of the following authentication protocols MUST the security engineer select?

Explanation

PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) is the correct answer because it is an authentication protocol that supports mutual authentication between the wireless client and the authentication server. It also allows for authentication with usernames and passwords. EAP-FAST and EAP-TLS are also authentication protocols, but they do not specifically mention support for mutual authentication or authentication with usernames and passwords. EAP, on the other hand, is a general term for Extensible Authentication Protocol and does not specify a particular authentication method.

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89. 127# An audit takes place after company-wide restricting, in which several employees changed roles. The following deficiencies are found during the audit regarding access to confidential data: Which of the following would be the BEST method to prevent similar audit findings in the future?

Explanation

Implementing separation of duties for the payroll department would be the best method to prevent similar audit findings in the future. This means assigning different tasks and responsibilities to different individuals within the department, ensuring that no single employee has complete control over the payroll process. By implementing separation of duties, it reduces the risk of fraud or unauthorized access to confidential data, as multiple employees would need to collaborate to carry out any malicious activities. This control measure enhances accountability, transparency, and reduces the likelihood of errors or intentional misconduct.

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90. 129# A system administrator has finished configuring firewall ACL to allow access to a new webserver. The security administrator confirms form the following packet capture that there is network traffic from the internet to the web server: The company's internal auditor issues a security finding and requests that immediate action be taken. With which of the following is the auditor MOST concerned?

Explanation

The auditor is most concerned with clear text credentials because this means that sensitive information such as usernames and passwords are being transmitted over the network in plain text, making it easy for attackers to intercept and steal this information. This is a serious security risk as it can lead to unauthorized access to the web server and potentially compromise the company's data and systems.

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91. A security analyst is testing both Windows and Linux systems for unauthorized DNS zone transfers within a LAN on comptia.org from example.org. Which of the following commands should the security analyst use? (Select two.)

Explanation

The security analyst should use the "dig" command with the "axfr" option to test for unauthorized DNS zone transfers. This command allows the analyst to request a full zone transfer from the DNS server at example.org for the domain comptia.org. This will help the analyst determine if any unauthorized transfers are occurring within the LAN.

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92. 169# A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For which of the following reasons should administrator take advantage of the Subject Alternative Name (SAM) attribute of a certificate?

Explanation

The Subject Alternative Name (SAN) attribute of a certificate should be taken advantage of because it provides extended site validation. This means that the certificate is able to verify and validate multiple domains, providing an added level of security. This is especially important for organizations that have multiple domains or subdomains that need to be protected. By using the SAN attribute, the security administrator can ensure that all these domains are properly validated and encrypted, enhancing the overall security of the communication.

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93. 148# A security administrator suspects a MITM attack aimed at impersonating the default gateway is underway. Which of the following tools should the administrator use to detect this attack? (Select two.)

Explanation

The security administrator should use the "Ipconfig" tool to check the IP configuration of the system and verify if the default gateway has been tampered with. They should also use the "Tracert" tool to trace the route to the default gateway and identify any unexpected hops or deviations. Both of these tools can help the administrator detect and confirm a MITM attack targeting the default gateway.

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94. 200# A security engineer is faced with competing requirements from the networking group and database administrators. The database administrators would like ten application servers on the same subnet for ease of administration, whereas the networking group would like to segment all applications from one another. Which of the following should the security administrator do to rectify this issue?

Explanation

The security administrator should recommend classifying each application into like security groups and segmenting the groups from one another. This approach allows for both the ease of administration desired by the database administrators and the segmentation required by the networking group. By grouping applications with similar security requirements together, it is possible to implement appropriate security measures for each group while still maintaining a level of ease in administration. This solution addresses the competing requirements and ensures that security is maintained across the network.

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95. 153# A security analyst has received the following alert snippet from the HIDS appliance: Given the above logs, which of the following is the cause of the attack?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The presence of FIN, URG, and PSH flags in the packet header indicates that the attacker is using a technique called a TCP scan. By setting these flags, the attacker is attempting to determine the status of the TCP ports on the destination system. This type of scan is often used to identify open ports and potential vulnerabilities in a target system. Therefore, the presence of these flags suggests that the attack is being carried out through a TCP scan.

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96. 124#  A systems administrator wants to protect data stored on mobile devices that are used to scan and record assets in a warehouse. The control must automatically destroy the secure container of mobile devices if they leave the warehouse. Which of the following should the administrator implement? 

Explanation

The administrator should implement geofencing and containerization to protect the data stored on the mobile devices. Geofencing allows the administrator to set up virtual boundaries around the warehouse, and if the devices leave this area, the secure container on the devices will be automatically destroyed. Containerization, on the other hand, provides a secure and isolated environment for the storage and processing of data on the devices, ensuring that the data is protected even if the devices are lost or stolen.

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97. 196# A chief Financial Officer (CFO) has asked the Chief Information Officer (CISO) to provide responses to a recent audit report detailing deficiencies in the organization security controls. The CFO would like to know ways in which the organization can improve its authorization controls. Given the request by the CFO, which of the following controls should the CISO focus on in the report? (Select Three)

Explanation

The CFO has requested ways to improve the organization's authorization controls. Role-based permissions allow for the assignment of specific access rights based on an individual's role within the organization, ensuring that employees only have access to the resources necessary for their job. Separation of duties involves dividing tasks and responsibilities among multiple individuals to prevent any single person from having too much control or access. Least privilege is the principle of granting users the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access. These controls address the CFO's request for improving authorization controls.

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98. 176# A security administrator has been assigned to review the security posture of the standard corporate system image for virtual machines. The security administrator conducts a thorough review of the system logs, installation procedures, and network configuration of the VM image. Upon reviewing the access logs and user accounts, the security administrator determines that several accounts will not be used in production. Which of the following would correct the deficiencies?

Explanation

The security administrator determines that several accounts will not be used in production after reviewing the access logs and user accounts. To correct this deficiency, the administrator should implement host hardening. Host hardening involves securing the operating system and applications running on the host to reduce vulnerabilities and protect against unauthorized access. This can include removing unnecessary user accounts, disabling unnecessary services, and implementing security measures such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems. By hardening the host, the security administrator can ensure that only necessary and secure components are present in the system image for virtual machines.

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99. 162# A copy of a highly confidential salary report was recently found on a printer in the IT department. The human resources department does not have this specific printer mapped to its devices, and it is suspected that an employee in the IT department browsed to the share where the report was located and printed it without authorization. Which of the following technical controls would be the BEST choice to immediately prevent this from happening again?

Explanation

Option B is the best choice because it restricts access to the share where the report resides to only human resources employees. By doing so, only authorized personnel will be able to access the share and prevent unauthorized printing of confidential reports. Enabling auditing will also allow for the tracking and monitoring of any access attempts, providing additional security and accountability. Option A, implementing a DLP solution, may help in preventing data leakage but does not specifically address the issue of unauthorized printing. Option C, having all members of the IT department review and sign the AUP and disciplinary policies, is unrelated to preventing unauthorized printing. Option D, placing human resources computers on a restricted VLAN, may limit access but does not specifically address the issue of unauthorized printing.

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100. 122# A company was recently audited by a third party. The audit revealed the company's network devices were transferring files in the clear. Which of the following protocols should the company use to transfer files?

Explanation

The company should use SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) to transfer files. The audit revealed that the files were being transferred in the clear, which means they were not encrypted and could be intercepted by unauthorized individuals. SCP is a secure file transfer protocol that uses SSH (Secure Shell) for encryption and authentication, ensuring that files are transferred securely and cannot be easily intercepted or tampered with. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is used for secure web communication, LDAPS (LDAP over SSL) is used for secure LDAP communication, and SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) is used for secure network management, but none of these protocols are specifically designed for secure file transfer like SCP.

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  • Jan 13, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 27, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    DeLo
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168# DRAG DROP - ...
185# Which of the following works by implanting software on...
163# A company is developing a new system that will unlock a...
182# Company policy requires the use if passphrases instead if...
167# A security analyst is investigating a suspected security...
171# A new mobile application is being developed in-house....
#101 Which of the following must be intact for evidence to be...
108 # A Chief Information Officer (CIO) drafts an agreement...
109 # Which of the following would meet the requirements for...
147# An organization is comparing and contrasting migration from...
130# Which of the following vulnerability types would the type of...
120# Which of the following precautions MINIMIZES the risk from...
177# Although a web enabled application appears to only allow...
#141 Which of the following types of attacks precedes the...
164# A security analyst accesses corporate web pages and inputs...
149# A user is presented with the following items during the new-hire...
154# A security analyst reviews the following output: ...
112 # Before an infection was detected, several of the infected...
116# As part of the SDLC, a third party is hired to perform a...
155# A company's AUP requires: ...
175# A technician is configuring a wireless guest network. After...
157# A security analyst notices anomalous activity coming from...
181# A security administrator has been tasked with improving the...
158# An employee receives an email, which appears to be from the...
183# During a routine audit, it is discovered that someone has...
198# A member of a digital forensics team, Joe arrives at a crime...
104 # A technician suspects that a system has been compromised....
194# An administrator has concerns regarding the traveling sales...
110 # A manager suspects that an IT employee with elevated...
123# During a monthly vulnerability scan, a server was flagged...
135# A company hires a third-party firm to conduct an assessment...
187# Technicians working with servers hosted at the company's...
160# A group of non-profit agencies wants to implement a cloud...
103 # Which of the following cryptography algorithms will produce...
174# The security administrator receives an email on a...
159# An information security analyst needs to work with an...
186# A web application is configured to target browsers and allow...
137# Joe, a user, wants to send Ann, another user, a confidential...
190# A technician has installed new vulnerability scanner...
139# To reduce disk consumption, an organization's legal...
142# Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is...
111 # A penetration tester finds that a company's login...
113# A systems administrator is reviewing the following...
115# The availability of a system has been labeled as the highest...
151# A network technician is setting up a segmented network that...
131# An in-house penetration tester is using a packet capture...
132# A black hat hacker is enumerating a network and wants to...
133# A development team has adopted a new approach to projects in...
178# An attacker discovers a new vulnerability in an enterprise...
126# Which of the following AES modes of operation provide...
140# A security administrator is configuring a new network...
172# A security administrator is creating a subnet on one of the...
188# A portable data storage device has been determined to have...
161# An administrator is configuring access to information...
102 # A vulnerability scanner that uses its running service's...
117# A dumpster diver recovers several hard drives from a company...
119# An application developer is designing an application...
150# An organization requires users to provide their fingerprints...
121# After an identified security breach, an analyst is tasked to...
184# Which of the following should identify critical systems and...
199# An organization has hired a penetration tester to test the...
189# A security administrator must implement a system to ensure...
138# A director of IR is reviewing a report regarding several...
195# A user of the wireless network is unable to gain access to...
193# A network administrator wants to ensure that users do not...
114# Joe, a security administrator, needs to extend the...
118# Which of the following are methods to implement HA in a web...
144# A workstation puts out a network request to locate another...
152# After a routine audit, a company discovers that engineering...
180# A bank requires tellers to get manager approval when a...
136# An organization uses SSO authentication for employee access...
197# A mobile device user is concerned about geographic...
165# Which of the following differentiates a collision attack...
166# A help desk is troubleshooting user reports that the...
191# The Chief Security Officer (CISO) at a multinational banking...
105# A new firewall has been placed into service at an...
143# A security analyst receives an alert from a WAF with the...
192# While reviewing the monthly internet usage it is noted that...
107# Which of the following are the MAIN reasons why a systems...
145# Audit logs from a small company's vulnerability scanning...
146# A security analyst wants to harden the company's VoIP...
170# After a merger between two companies a security analyst has...
173# A company has a security policy that specifies all endpoint...
134# A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) suspects someone in the lab...
179# A security administrator returning from a short vacation...
Which of the following is NOT a common type of social engineering...
156# An organization's primary datacenter is experiencing a...
128# A security engineer is configuring a wireless network that...
127# An audit takes place after company-wide restricting, in...
129# A system administrator has finished configuring firewall ACL...
A security analyst is testing both Windows and Linux systems for...
169# A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For...
148# A security administrator suspects a MITM attack aimed at...
200# A security engineer is faced with competing requirements...
153# A security analyst has received the following alert snippet from...
124# ...
196# A chief Financial Officer (CFO) has asked the Chief...
176# A security administrator has been assigned to review the...
162# A copy of a highly confidential salary report was recently found...
122# A company was recently audited by a third party. The audit...
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