Take This Hardest Quiz On CompTIA A+ Essentials Test!

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Take This Hardest Quiz On CompTIA A+ Essentials Test! - Quiz

This is the best practice test ever for CompTIA A+ Essentials. Are you a computer geek? Do you possess full-fledged technical knowledge when it comes to Software, Networking, and Hardware? If yes, then prove yourself by attempting this quiz and assess yourself where you stand. Try to score more. So, let's try out this quiz. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    On the media types listed below, which would be considered the most difficult to implement...

    • A.

      Wireless

    • B.

      Fiber Optic

    • C.

      Coaxial

    • D.

      UTP

    Correct Answer
    B. Fiber Optic
    Explanation
    Fiber optic would be considered the most difficult media type to implement because it requires specialized equipment and expertise. Fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, which requires precise alignment and careful handling to avoid signal loss. The installation and maintenance of fiber optic cables also tend to be more complex and expensive compared to other media types. Additionally, fiber optic technology is constantly evolving, requiring ongoing training and updates to keep up with advancements.

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  • 2. 

    The link light on a network interface card will light when which of the following happens?

    • A.

      The card is powered on

    • B.

      The wire connecting it to the network is plugged in

    • C.

      The power is turned on

    • D.

      The NIC starts receiving data

    Correct Answer
    B. The wire connecting it to the network is plugged in
    Explanation
    The link light on a network interface card will light when the wire connecting it to the network is plugged in. This indicates that there is a physical connection between the NIC and the network, allowing for data transmission. The other options, such as the card being powered on or the power being turned on, may be necessary for the NIC to function, but they do not specifically cause the link light to light up. The link light serves as a visual indicator that the connection is established and active.

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  • 3. 

    The 10Base T system operates at 10Mbps uses baseband transmission methods.

    • A.

      5 Mbps

    • B.

      10 Mbps

    • C.

      10 Gbps

    • D.

      100 Mbps

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 Mbps
    Explanation
    The given statement states that the 10Base T system operates at 10Mbps, which means it has a data transfer rate of 10 megabits per second. This system uses baseband transmission methods, which means it sends digital signals over a single channel without modulating them onto a carrier frequency. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 Mbps.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following are SOHO - class access points configuration options also found on wireless residential gateways?(Choose three)

    • A.

      SSID

    • B.

      MAC filters

    • C.

      WEP

    • D.

      Protocol filters

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SSID
    B. MAC filters
    C. WEP
    Explanation
    SSID, MAC filters, and WEP are all configuration options that can be found on both SOHO-class access points and wireless residential gateways.

    - SSID (Service Set Identifier) is a unique name that identifies a wireless network. Both SOHO-class access points and residential gateways allow users to set and configure the SSID for their wireless network.
    - MAC filters (Media Access Control filters) are used to restrict access to a wireless network based on the MAC addresses of devices. Both SOHO-class access points and residential gateways provide the option to set up MAC filters.
    - WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a security protocol used to encrypt wireless data. Both SOHO-class access points and residential gateways support WEP as a configuration option for securing the wireless network.

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  • 5. 

    What infrared wireless standard works best within about 10 feet of range?

    • A.

      Bluetooth

    • B.

      802.11n

    • C.

      WiFi

    • D.

      WEP

    Correct Answer
    A. Bluetooth
    Explanation
    This is a good example of a bad question. The wording is vague, and it is possible to read too much into it (which Bluetooth is being discussed, etc.). Instead of spending too much time on it, it is best to realize that the only possibility that could effectively be argued is Bluetooth, choose that answer and move on

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  • 6. 

    What are most laptop monitors made of?

    • A.

      Electrons

    • B.

      Liquid crystals

    • C.

      Photons

    • D.

      Silica gel

    Correct Answer
    B. Liquid crystals
    Explanation
    Most laptops use liquid crystal monitors. Answer: B

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  • 7. 

    What are the arrangements of the panels within an LCD monitor known as?

    • A.

      Face

    • B.

      Array

    • C.

      Scan

    • D.

      Matrix

    Correct Answer
    D. Matrix
    Explanation
    The panels are arranged in a matrix. Answer: D.

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  • 8. 

    How are isolated ground outlets identified?

    • A.

      By shape

    • B.

      By color

    • C.

      By markings

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. By color
    Explanation
    Isolated ground receptacles are identifiable by orange outlets. Answer: B.

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  • 9. 

    When using compressed air cans to clean a system, how far should they be held from that system?

    • A.

      2–3 inches

    • B.

      1–2 inches

    • C.

      0–1 inches

    • D.

      More than 3 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 2–3 inches
    Explanation
    Compressed air cans should be held 2–3 inches from the system and always used upright so the content is released as a gas instead of as a liquid and so that the pressure of the gas does not damage the component. Answer: A.

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  • 10. 

    What are the retaining clips for SIMM chips made of?

    • A.

      Plastic

    • B.

      Metal

    • C.

      Silicon

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Metal
    Explanation
    For a SIMM, the retaining clips are metal. For a DIMM, the retaining clips are plastic. Answer: B.

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  • 11. 

    While inspecting a motherboard, you notice a discolored area. What is usually a cause of this?

    • A.

      Spilled liquid

    • B.

      Improper manufacture

    • C.

      Power surge (heat)

    • D.

      Overclocking

    Correct Answer
    C. Power surge (heat)
    Explanation
    Discolored areas on the board are often caused by power surges. While it could be argued that overclocking could lead to power issues, and excessive heat, the truth of the matter is that while one answer may be right, the other is always right and you have to choose the best answer from CompTIA’s perspective. Answer: C.

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  • 12. 

    What does the red stripe on a ribbon cable indicate?

    • A.

      Pin 16

    • B.

      Pin 1

    • C.

      The manufacturer’s trademark

    • D.

      Parity

    Correct Answer
    B. Pin 1
    Explanation
    The red stripe on the cable indicates pin 1. Answer: B.

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  • 13. 

    What type of connectors do IDE drives use to connect to the power supply?

    • A.

      Molex

    • B.

      Snapon

    • C.

      8Wire

    • D.

      RJ11

    Correct Answer
    A. Molex
    Explanation
    IDE drives, such as hard drives and CD drives, connect to the motherboard’s IDE interface via ribbon cable and connect to the power supply via a Molex power connector. Answer: A.

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  • 14. 

    The mouse and keyboard on the system you are working on both have PS/2 connectors. Which one connects where?

    • A.

      The mouse attaches to the port closest to the outside of the machine.

    • B.

      The keyboard usually attaches to the port closest to the outside of the machine.

    • C.

      The order varies by manufacturer.

    • D.

      The order varies by motherboard

    Correct Answer
    B. The keyboard usually attaches to the port closest to the outside of the machine.
    Explanation
    The keyboard usually attaches to the port closest to the outside of the machine. Answer: B

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  • 15. 

    What is the minimum amount of RAM required by Windows 2000 Professional?

    • A.

      256MB

    • B.

      128MB

    • C.

      96MB

    • D.

      64MB

    Correct Answer
    D. 64MB
    Explanation
    While you can argue all day long about whether it is right to need to know operating system specifics (particularly those for MS operating systems) on a “vendor-neutral” exam/certification, the fact of the matter is that you do and will be tested substantially on facts such as this. Both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows XP require a minimum of 64MB RAM. Answer: D.

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  • 16. 

    Which of these hard drives types would have the greatest performance?

    • A.

      ATA-1

    • B.

      ATA-3

    • C.

      ATA-4

    • D.

      ATA-6

    Correct Answer
    B. ATA-3
    Explanation
    The performance of drives increases as the ATA standards increment. Answer: B.

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  • 17. 

    What type of cable does UltraATA/100 require?

    • A.

      80-wire ribbon cable

    • B.

      40-wire ribbon cable

    • C.

      20-wire ribbon cable

    • D.

      10-wire ribbon cable

    Correct Answer
    A. 80-wire ribbon cable
    Explanation
    UltraATA/100 works only with a special 80-wire ribbon cable. Answer: A.

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  • 18. 

    When does the BIOS need to be upgraded?

    • A.

      When a new version is released

    • B.

      When it no longer supports all the devices

    • C.

      When the warranty on the old one expires

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. When it no longer supports all the devices
    Explanation
    When the BIOS no longer supports all the devices that need to be connected to the PC, an upgrade is needed. Answer: B.

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  • 19. 

    What is the speed of a PCI bus?

    • A.

      133MHz

    • B.

      66MHz

    • C.

      33MHz

    • D.

      8MHz

    Correct Answer
    C. 33MHz
    Explanation
    The speed of a PCI bus is 33MHz. Answer: C.

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  • 20. 

    What is the I/O address associated with the primary IDE drive?

    • A.

      02F8–02FF

    • B.

      0378–037F

    • C.

      0378–037F

    • D.

      01F0–01F7

    Correct Answer
    D. 01F0–01F7
    Explanation
    The I/O address associated with the primary IDE drive is 01F0–01F7. Answer: D.

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  • 21. 

    In Device Manager, how do resource conflicts appear?

    • A.

      Accompanied by a blue question mark

    • B.

      Accompanied by a red stop sign

    • C.

      Accompanied by a yellow exclamation point

    • D.

      Accompanied by a black arrow

    Correct Answer
    C. Accompanied by a yellow exclamation point
    Explanation
    A resource conflict — two or more devices laying claim to the same resource — appears as a yellow exclamation point next to a device’s name in Device Manager. Answer: C.

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  • 22. 

    Running WINMSD at the Run command starts which utility?

    • A.

      Device Manager

    • B.

      System Information

    • C.

      MSCONFIG

    • D.

      Task Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. System Information
    Explanation
    Running WINMSD at the Run command starts the System Information utility. Answer: B.

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  • 23. 

    What will the command COPY *.* A:\ do?

    • A.

      Copy all files in the current directory to the A: drive

    • B.

      Copy all files in the A: drive to the current directory

    • C.

      Copy all files with the archive bit on to the current directory

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Copy all files in the current directory to the A: drive
    Explanation
    The command given will copy all files from the current directory to the A: drive. Answer: A

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  • 24. 

    What will the command DIR ????.* do?

    • A.

      List all files whose names are exactly four letters long and do not have an extension

    • B.

      List all files whose names are exactly four letters long, with any extension

    • C.

      List all hidden files whose names are exactly four letters long

    • D.

      List all files

    Correct Answer
    B. List all files whose names are exactly four letters long, with any extension
    Explanation
    This command will list all files whose names are exactly four letters long, with any extension. Answer: B.

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  • 25. 

    Which switch can be used with the EDIT utility to display the maximum number of lines possible for your hardware?

    • A.

      /F

    • B.

      /S

    • C.

      /A

    • D.

      /H

    Correct Answer
    D. /H
    Explanation
    The /H switch will display the maximum number of lines possible for your hardware. Answer: D.

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  • 26. 

    Most problems are overlooked because of what?

    • A.

      The Problem was so simple that they are overlooked

    • B.

      It is inside the case

    • C.

      The User has given incorrect information

    • D.

      The Problem was to complex

    Correct Answer
    A. The Problem was so simple that they are overlooked
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that most problems are overlooked because they are so simple that people tend to overlook them. This implies that individuals often assume that the solution must be more complex or difficult than it actually is, causing them to overlook the simple solution right in front of them.

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  • 27. 

    With Windows 2000, what is the range of printer priorities that can be assigned?

    • A.

      0–100

    • B.

      1–100

    • C.

      0–99

    • D.

      1–99

    Correct Answer
    D. 1–99
    Explanation
    In Windows 2000, the range of printer priorities that can be assigned is from 1 to 99. This means that a printer can be given a priority value between 1 and 99, with 1 being the highest priority and 99 being the lowest priority. The range does not include 0 or 100, so these values cannot be assigned as printer priorities in Windows 2000.

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  • 28. 

    Which EAL level is the benchmark for commercial systems?

    • A.

      EAL 4

    • B.

      EAL 3

    • C.

      EAL 2

    • D.

      EAL 1

    Correct Answer
    A. EAL 4
    Explanation
    EAL 4 is the benchmark for commercial systems because it provides a higher level of assurance compared to EAL 3, EAL 2, and EAL 1. EAL 4 requires a methodical design and testing process, and includes a thorough examination of the system's security features and documentation. It also requires the implementation of strict security measures and the use of trusted development tools. This level of assurance is necessary for commercial systems to ensure that they meet the necessary security requirements and can protect sensitive information effectively.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is the major tool for reviewing logs in Windows 2000 and Windows XP?

    • A.

      PSEF

    • B.

      System Monitor

    • C.

      Performance Monitor

    • D.

      Event Viewer

    Correct Answer
    D. Event Viewer
    Explanation
    Event Viewer is the major tool for reviewing logs in Windows 2000 and Windows XP. It allows users to view and analyze events that occur on a computer, such as system errors, security events, and application events. The Event Viewer provides detailed information about these events, including the date and time they occurred, the source of the event, and any relevant error codes. This tool is essential for troubleshooting and diagnosing issues on Windows systems by providing a centralized location for accessing and managing event logs.

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  • 30. 

    In Microsoft operating systems, what is Internet Connection Firewall now known as?

    • A.

      Home Firewall

    • B.

      Windows Firewall

    • C.

      Security Agent

    • D.

      Security Central

    Correct Answer
    B. Windows Firewall
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Windows Firewall. In Microsoft operating systems, the Internet Connection Firewall is now known as Windows Firewall. It is a built-in security feature that helps protect the computer from unauthorized access and malicious software by monitoring and controlling network traffic. It acts as a barrier between the computer and the internet, allowing only authorized connections and blocking potentially harmful ones.

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  • 31. 

    You want to add additional logging to your Unix system for certain TCP protocols. What should you add?

    • A.

      DMESG

    • B.

      TCP wrappers

    • C.

      NETSTAT

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. TCP wrappers
    Explanation
    TCP wrappers is the correct answer because it is a software package that allows you to add additional logging and security to your Unix system for certain TCP protocols. TCP wrappers can be configured to log information about incoming connections and can also be used to filter and control access to specific services based on IP addresses or domain names. By using TCP wrappers, you can enhance the logging capabilities of your Unix system for TCP protocols.

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  • 32. 

    Roughly how much time spent communicating should be devoted to listening?

    • A.

      10%

    • B.

      25%

    • C.

      40%

    • D.

      50%

    Correct Answer
    D. 50%
    Explanation
    Roughly half the time spent communicating should be devoted to listening

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following are good ways to show you are listening to someone who is explaining a problem?

    • A.

      Nodding

    • B.

      Repeating what they are saying

    • C.

      Asking questions

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Nodding, repeating what they are saying, and asking questions are all good ways to show that you are listening to someone who is explaining a problem. Nodding indicates that you are actively engaged and understanding what they are saying. Repeating what they are saying shows that you are actively listening and processing the information. Asking questions demonstrates your interest and comprehension of the problem, as well as encourages further discussion and clarification. Therefore, all of the above options are effective ways to show that you are listening to someone who is explaining a problem.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is a company that provides direct access to the Internet for home and business computer users?

    • A.

      ASP

    • B.

      ISP

    • C.

      DNS

    • D.

      DNP

    Correct Answer
    B. ISP
    Explanation
    An ISP (Internet Service Provider) is a company that offers direct access to the Internet for both home and business computer users. They provide the necessary infrastructure and services to connect users to the Internet, allowing them to access websites, send emails, and perform other online activities. ASP (Application Service Provider) is a different type of company that offers software applications over the Internet, while DNS (Domain Name System) is a system that translates domain names into IP addresses. DNP is not a recognized abbreviation in the context of Internet access providers.

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  • 35. 

    How many pins are on TYPE III mini PCI card

    • A.

      124

    • B.

      112

    • C.

      102

    • D.

      92

    • E.

      19

    Correct Answer
    A. 124
  • 36. 

    What is the windows 2000 processors mode in which program have extensive access to system information and hardware?

    • A.

      User Mode

    • B.

      Real Mode

    • C.

      Kernel Mode

    • D.

      Enhance Mode

    Correct Answer
    C. Kernel Mode
    Explanation
    Kernel Mode is the correct answer because in this mode, programs have extensive access to system information and hardware. In Kernel Mode, the operating system's kernel has full control over the system's resources and can execute privileged instructions. This allows programs running in Kernel Mode to interact directly with hardware devices and access sensitive system information. User Mode, Real Mode, and Enhance Mode do not provide the same level of access and control over the system resources.

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  • 37. 

    The Directory database on a domain controller that contains users accounts, group accounts, and computer accounts is called the?

    • A.

      Domain Database

    • B.

      SAM Database

    • C.

      Security Database

    • D.

      Account Database

    Correct Answer
    B. SAM Database
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SAM Database. SAM stands for Security Account Manager, which is a database on a domain controller that stores user accounts, group accounts, and computer accounts. It is responsible for authenticating and authorizing users to access network resources.

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  • 38. 

    What utility can you use in Windows NT/2000/XP to change an HPFS partition to an NTFS partition?

    • A.

      Convert.exe

    • B.

      Cvt.exe

    • C.

      Drvcvt.exe

    • D.

      Convert32.exe

    • E.

      Convert16.exe

    Correct Answer
    A. Convert.exe
    Explanation
    In Windows NT/2000/XP, the utility that can be used to change an HPFS partition to an NTFS partition is convert.exe.

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  • 39. 

    What partition is the Windows NT/2000/XP operating system stored?

    • A.

      System Partition

    • B.

      Windows Partition

    • C.

      Active Partition

    • D.

      Boot Partition

    Correct Answer
    D. Boot Partition
    Explanation
    The Windows NT/2000/XP operating system is stored in the Boot Partition. The Boot Partition is the partition on a hard drive that contains the necessary files for the computer to start up and load the operating system. It is typically the primary partition on the hard drive and is marked as active.

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  • 40. 

    What is the name of the program on the windows 2000 cd used to make a boot disk?

    • A.

      Bootdisk.exe

    • B.

      2kbootdsk.exe

    • C.

      Makeboot.exe

    • D.

      Win2kbtdsk.exe

    Correct Answer
    C. Makeboot.exe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Makeboot.exe. This program is used to create a boot disk on the Windows 2000 CD. A boot disk is a removable media, such as a floppy disk or a USB drive, that contains the necessary files to start a computer. By using Makeboot.exe, users can create a boot disk that can be used to start a computer in case of system failures or other issues.

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  • 41. 

    What is the Microsoft term for a logical group of computers and users that share resources, where administration, resources, and security on a workstation are controlled by that workstation?

    • A.

      Workgroup

    • B.

      Peer-to-Peer

    • C.

      Domain

    • D.

      Client/Server

    Correct Answer
    A. Workgroup
    Explanation
    A workgroup is a logical group of computers and users that share resources, where administration, resources, and security on a workstation are controlled by that workstation. In a workgroup, each computer is independent and has its own security settings and user accounts. This is different from a domain, where a central server controls the administration, resources, and security for all the computers and users within the network.

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  • 42. 

    Where is the Windows NT/2000/XP operating System boot record stored?

    • A.

      Boot Partition

    • B.

      System Partition

    • C.

      Startup Partition

    • D.

      Extended Partition

    Correct Answer
    B. System Partition
    Explanation
    The Windows NT/2000/XP operating system boot record is stored in the System Partition. This partition contains the necessary files and information for the system to start up and boot properly. It typically includes the bootloader and the system files required for the operating system to load. The boot record is crucial for the system to initiate the boot process and access the operating system files.

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  • 43. 

    What is the Speed and Frequency of IEEE 802.11

    • A.

      Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • B.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(5 GHz)

    • C.

      Data Speed(Up to 11 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • D.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • E.

      Data Speed(Up to 75 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz). This is the correct answer because IEEE 802.11, also known as Wi-Fi, has different versions with varying speeds and frequencies. The given answer represents the original version of Wi-Fi, which has a maximum data speed of 2 Mbps and operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz.

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  • 44. 

    What is the Speed and Frequency of IEEE 802.11a Wi-Fi

    • A.

      Data Speed(Up to 75 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • B.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(5 GHz)

    • C.

      Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • D.

      Data Speed(Up to 11 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • E.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    Correct Answer
    B. Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(5 GHz)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(5 GHz). This is because IEEE 802.11a Wi-Fi operates at a frequency of 5 GHz and has a data speed of up to 54 Mbps. The other options either have different data speeds or operate at different frequencies.

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  • 45. 

    What is the Speed and Frequency of IEEE 802.11b Wi-Fi

    • A.

      Data Speed(Up to 75 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • B.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • C.

      Data Speed(Up to 11 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • D.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(5 GHz)

    • E.

      Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    Correct Answer
    C. Data Speed(Up to 11 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Speed(Up to 11 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz). This is because IEEE 802.11b Wi-Fi has a maximum data speed of 11 Mbps and operates on a frequency of 2.4 GHz.

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  • 46. 

    What is the Speed and Frequency of IEEE 802.11g Wi-Fi

    • A.

      Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • B.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(5 GHz)

    • C.

      Data Speed(Up to 11 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • D.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • E.

      Data Speed(Up to 75 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    Correct Answer
    D. Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz). This is because IEEE 802.11g Wi-Fi operates at a maximum data speed of 54 Mbps and a frequency of 2.4 GHz. The data speed refers to the maximum rate at which data can be transmitted over the network, while the frequency refers to the radio frequency band used for communication.

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  • 47. 

    What is the Speed and Frequency of Bluetooth?

    • A.

      Data Speed(Up to 75 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • B.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • C.

      Data Speed(Up to 11 Mbps), Frequency(2.4 GHz)

    • D.

      Data Speed(Up to 54 Mbps), Frequency(5 GHz)

    • E.

      Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.45 GHz)

    Correct Answer
    E. Data Speed(Up to 2 Mbps), Frequency(2.45 GHz)
    Explanation
    Bluetooth has a data speed of up to 2 Mbps and operates at a frequency of 2.45 GHz. This means that it can transfer data at a maximum rate of 2 megabits per second and uses the 2.45 GHz frequency band for communication. This speed and frequency combination is commonly used in Bluetooth devices for short-range wireless communication.

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