CompTIA A+ Essentials Exam Practice Test

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1. When dealing with customers you should always?

Explanation

Listening to customers is crucial when dealing with them because it shows that you value their opinions, concerns, and needs. By actively listening, you can understand their requirements better, provide appropriate solutions, and build a strong rapport. Ignoring or pretending to listen can lead to dissatisfaction and loss of trust, ultimately impacting your relationship with the customer and your business reputation. Actively listening to customers helps in delivering excellent customer service, fostering loyalty, and ensuring their needs are met effectively.

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About This Quiz
CompTIA A+ Essentials Exam Practice Test - Quiz

The following practice questions are taken from CompTIA A+ 2006 In-Depth book by Jean Andrews. I have set the pass rate to which you must score above 75%... see moreto pass, this is done to better help you prepare for the real exams. So, without any further ado, let's get started.
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2. A dissatisfied customer calls you a idiot as they walk away from your repair center. How should you handle this situation?

Explanation

In customer service you are not always going to be able to make people happy, but you should never engage in a verbal altercation with them. You should always be polite even if they are not.

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3. A friend of yours comes into the store where you work, they beg you to give them a dramatically reduced price on a product. What would you do in this situation?

Explanation

In this situation, it would be best to explain to the friend that you cannot give them a dramatically reduced price on the product because it could get you in trouble. This response shows integrity and adherence to professional ethics. It is important to prioritize honesty and maintain the store's policies and guidelines. Offering special deals to friends can lead to favoritism and can also harm the reputation of the store.

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4. A older customer unknowingly drops a 20 dollar bill out of his pocket and no one else sees him drop it. What would you do in this situation?

Explanation

In this situation, the most ethical and honest course of action would be to immediately walk over and give the money back to the customer. It is important to prioritize integrity and act in a responsible manner by returning the lost money to its rightful owner. Taking the money for oneself or sharing it with a coworker would be dishonest and unethical. Alerting a supervisor could also be a valid option, but the immediate action of returning the money directly to the customer demonstrates honesty and integrity.

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5. Which of the following is true about notebook computers?

Explanation

Notebook computers have a main advantage over desktop systems, which is their portability. Unlike desktops, notebooks are designed to be lightweight and compact, making them easy to carry around. This portability allows users to work or access their files from anywhere, whether it's at home, in a coffee shop, or during travel. While the price and speed of notebooks may be comparable to desktop systems, the key distinguishing factor is their ability to be easily transported and used on the go.

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6. You are called to a customers home because their computers is not functioning properly. You have gone through all the troubleshooting steps and still can not figure out what is wrong with their system. What should you do in this situation?

Explanation

In this situation, the best course of action is to explain to the customer that you have gone through all the troubleshooting steps and are unable to identify the problem with their system. By suggesting taking it into the shop, you are acknowledging that further expertise and examination may be required to resolve the issue. This shows the customer that you are committed to finding a solution and are willing to take the necessary steps to fix their computer.

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7. Which of the following statements best describes safe mode?

Explanation

Safe mode is a feature in operating systems that allows the system to start with minimal drivers and services. It is primarily used for troubleshooting and diagnosing issues with the operating system. By booting the OS with minimum configuration, safe mode disables unnecessary drivers and services, which can help identify and fix problems. Safe mode does not provide network access, uses generic video drivers, and may or may not display the GUI interface, depending on the specific operating system.

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8. Which of the following terms refers to the method used by microsoft to prevent unlicensed use of it's software that is based on purchasing a windows xp license for each installation of windows xp?

Explanation

Product activation refers to the method used by Microsoft to prevent unlicensed use of its software. It involves purchasing a Windows XP license for each installation of Windows XP. This process verifies the authenticity of the software and ensures that it is being used legally.

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9. Which of the following is the primary Windows tool that can be used when solving problems with hardware?

Explanation

The primary Windows tool that can be used when solving problems with hardware is the device manager. The device manager allows users to view and manage all the hardware devices connected to their computer. It provides information about the hardware devices, their drivers, and allows users to update, disable, or uninstall them if necessary. By using the device manager, users can troubleshoot hardware issues, such as identifying missing or outdated drivers, conflicts between devices, or malfunctioning hardware components.

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10. A cooler is a combination of a cooling fan and which of the following?

Explanation

A cooler is a combination of a cooling fan and a heat sink. A cooling fan helps to circulate the air and dissipate heat, while a heat sink is a passive cooling device that absorbs and disperses heat away from the components. Therefore, a heat sink is the correct answer as it is an essential component in a cooler to maintain the temperature of electronic devices.

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11. Where is the CMOS RAM typically located?

Explanation

The CMOS RAM is typically located on a RAM (RTC/NVRAM) chip. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor, which is a technology used to manufacture integrated circuits. The CMOS RAM stores the BIOS settings and configuration data for the computer's hardware. It is usually powered by a small battery to retain the data even when the computer is turned off.

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12. When a pc first connects to the network, it attempts to lease an address from what server?
(hint: dealing with dynamically assigned IP addresses)

Explanation

When a PC first connects to a network, it needs an IP address to communicate with other devices. The DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is responsible for assigning and managing IP addresses dynamically. It leases an IP address to the PC for a specific period of time, allowing it to join the network. The APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) server is not involved in this process, as it assigns a default IP address when a DHCP server is not available. The MIDI server is unrelated to IP address assignment, and the AIPPA server does not exist.

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13. A customer calls your shop and is angry about a product they purchased from there yesterday. How should you handle this situation?

Explanation

In a situation where a customer is angry about a product they purchased, it is important to handle the situation professionally and empathetically. Hanging up on the customer or telling them that there is nothing you can do for them would only escalate the situation further and damage the customer relationship. Therefore, the best approach is to listen attentively to the customer's complaint, showing understanding and empathy, and then attempt to find a solution or offer assistance in resolving their issue. In more complex cases, involving a supervisor may be necessary, but the initial step should always be to actively listen and try to help the customer.

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14. A customer comes into your store and asks you about purchasing (as cheap as possible) a 512 MB ram module. The customer is not computer literate and you have a cheaper module that is compatible with their system and you also have the most expensive module that is also compatible. What should you do in this situation?

Explanation

You should never lie to a customer and always help them find what they ask for even if it is cheaper than what you can sell it for because you would not be giving the customer what they are asking for.

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15. A server that manages dynamically assigned IP addresses is called what?

Explanation

A server that manages dynamically assigned IP addresses is called DHCP. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is a network management protocol used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration settings to devices on a network. This server dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices as they connect to the network, ensuring efficient and automatic network configuration without manual intervention.

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16. Which of the following approaches is a type of identity theft where the sender of an e mail message scams you into responding with personal data about yourself?

Explanation

Phishing is a type of identity theft where the sender of an email message tricks the recipient into revealing personal information. The scammer often poses as a trustworthy entity, such as a bank or a reputable company, and requests sensitive data like passwords, credit card numbers, or social security numbers. This information is then used for fraudulent purposes, such as unauthorized access to accounts or financial fraud. Phishing attacks are typically carried out through email, but can also occur through other forms of communication like text messages or phone calls.

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17. When a new device is being installed, if windows recognizes the drivers were not digitally signed by microsoft, which of the following decisions do you have to make?

Explanation

When a new device is being installed and Windows recognizes that the drivers were not digitally signed by Microsoft, the decision that needs to be made is whether or not to continue with the installation using unsigned drivers. This means that the user has to decide whether they want to proceed with the installation even though the drivers are not verified by Microsoft.

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18. Which of the following statements best describes how to access the setup program stored in ROM BIOS on a newer computers?

Explanation

To access the setup program stored in ROM BIOS on newer computers, you need to press a key or combination of keys during the boot process. This action triggers the BIOS to enter the setup program, where you can configure various settings for your computer's hardware and software. Using the start menu from the desktop, downloading a program from the manufacturer's website, or using a boot disk are not the correct methods to access the setup program in ROM BIOS.

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19. Which of the following features do you use to revert to the old driver if you update a driver and the new driver does not perform as expected?

Explanation

The driver rollback feature allows you to revert back to the previous version of a driver if the updated driver does not work as expected. This feature is useful when the new driver causes compatibility issues or introduces bugs that affect the performance or functionality of the device. By using the driver rollback feature, you can easily restore the previous driver and ensure that the device functions properly.

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20. Which of the following terms refers to the snapshot of the system state that is used during a system restoration?

Explanation

A restore point refers to the snapshot of the system state that is used during a system restoration. It is a saved state of the computer's system files, settings, and installed applications at a specific point in time. Restore points are created automatically by the operating system or can be manually created by the user. They serve as a backup that can be used to revert the system back to a previous state if any issues or errors occur.

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21. Which of the following refers to a new windows xp feature that allows a user to connect to and use his or her windows xp computer from anywhere on the internet?

Explanation

Remote desktop is a new Windows XP feature that allows a user to connect to and use his or her Windows XP computer from anywhere on the internet. This feature enables users to access their computer remotely, making it convenient for them to work or access files even when they are not physically present at their computer. With remote desktop, users can control their Windows XP computer as if they were sitting in front of it, providing a seamless and efficient remote working experience.

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22. In device manager, if you see a red X or a yellow exclamation mark next to the NIC device, this could be an indication of what?

Explanation

If there is a red X or a yellow exclamation mark next to the NIC device in the device manager, it indicates that there is a problem with the NIC. This could mean that the NIC may be faulty and not functioning properly.

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23. The file extension identifies which of the following?

Explanation

The file extension refers to the letters or characters that come after the dot in a file's name. It helps to identify the type or format of the file. Different file types have different extensions, such as .docx for Microsoft Word documents, .jpg for image files, and .mp3 for audio files. Therefore, the correct answer is "file type".

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24. A IP address that is permanently assigned is called what?

Explanation

A static IP address is a permanently assigned IP address. Unlike dynamic IP addresses that change periodically, a static IP address remains the same over time. This type of IP address is often used by servers, websites, and devices that require a consistent and easily identifiable address on the internet. It allows for reliable and uninterrupted connectivity, as it does not change even if the device is restarted or disconnected from the network.

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25. Which of the following terms refers to a computer or other device that allows a computer on one network to communicate with a computer on another network?

Explanation

A gateway is a computer or device that enables communication between different networks. It acts as an entry or exit point for data packets traveling between networks, allowing a computer on one network to communicate with a computer on another network. It serves as a bridge, translating protocols and addressing schemes to ensure seamless connectivity between networks.

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26. Which of the following features allows you to use two modem connections at the same time to speed up data throughput when connected over phone lines?

Explanation

Channel aggregation allows you to use two modem connections simultaneously to increase the data throughput when connected over phone lines. This feature combines the bandwidth of both connections, effectively doubling the speed at which data can be transmitted. By using multiple modems, channel aggregation helps optimize internet connectivity and enhance the overall performance of the network connection.

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27. A customer calls that you can not really understand because they do not speak clear english. What would you do in this situation?

Explanation

You never ask other customers to help a customer over the phone. You should always consult your supervisor and the store policies.

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28. Which of the following utilities verifies that there is a connection on a network between two hosts?

Explanation

Ping is a utility that verifies the connection between two hosts on a network. It sends a small packet of data to the destination host and waits for a response. If a response is received, it confirms that there is a connection between the two hosts. Ping is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and measure the response time between hosts. FTP is a file transfer protocol, NSLookup is used for DNS queries, and ARP is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses.

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29. Which of the following refers to a scanner that has a scanning head that moves across the glass, scanning the page?

Explanation

A flat bed scanner refers to a scanner that has a scanning head that moves across the glass, scanning the page. This type of scanner is commonly used to scan documents, books, and other flat objects. It provides high-quality scans and is suitable for scanning larger items. Sheet fed scanners, on the other hand, use a mechanism to feed individual sheets of paper through the scanner. Portable scanners are smaller and designed for easy transport. Optical character recognition software is a technology that converts scanned images of text into editable and searchable data.

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30. Which of the following best describes the features CAS latency and RAS latency?

Explanation

CAS latency and RAS latency both refer to the number of clock cycles it takes to write or read a column or row of data off a memory module. This means that both features are related to the timing and speed of accessing data from the memory. The statement that RAS latency is used more than CAS latency is not relevant to describing the features of CAS latency and RAS latency.

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31. Which of the following statements best describes the refresh rate for CRT monitors?

Explanation

The refresh rate for CRT monitors refers to the number of times in one second that an electronic beam can fill the screen with lines. This means that a higher refresh rate will result in a smoother and more fluid display on the monitor. The statement accurately describes the concept of refresh rate for CRT monitors.

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32. From the statements below, what best describes what PING does?

Explanation

PING is a network utility used to test the connectivity between two computers. It works by sending out a signal (ICMP echo request) to a remote computer. If the remote computer is online and reachable, it will respond with an ICMP echo reply. This allows the user to determine if the remote computer is active and responsive. Therefore, the correct answer is "It sends out a signal to a remote computer and if the remote computer is online it responds."

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33. Which of the following is an example of an impact printer?

Explanation

A dot matrix printer is an example of an impact printer because it uses a print head that strikes an ink-soaked ribbon against the paper to create characters. The print head contains a matrix of pins that are selectively fired to create dots, which form the characters on the paper. This impact mechanism distinguishes it from other types of printers like laser printers, inkjet printers, and thermal printers, which do not involve any physical contact between the printing mechanism and the paper.

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34. Which of the following concepts is used to open or close certain ports so they can or cannot be used?

Explanation

Port filtering is a concept that is used to open or close certain ports so they can or cannot be used. It allows the network administrator to control the flow of network traffic by specifying which ports are allowed or blocked. By using port filtering, specific ports can be opened to allow communication for certain applications or services, while other ports can be closed to prevent unauthorized access or malicious activity. This helps in enhancing network security and managing network resources effectively.

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35. Which of the following utilities provides an application with the environment that it expects from the operating system for which it was designed?

Explanation

Compatibility mode is the correct answer because it allows an application to run in an environment that mimics the operating system for which it was originally designed. This mode helps to resolve compatibility issues that may arise when running older applications on newer operating systems. By enabling compatibility mode, the application can access the necessary resources and functions it expects from the operating system, ensuring proper functionality and compatibility.

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36. The windows operating system uses which of the following to keep hardware and software configuration information, user preferences, and application settings that are used when the Os is first being loaded?

Explanation

The correct answer is "registry". The registry is a centralized database in the Windows operating system that stores hardware and software configuration information, user preferences, and application settings. It is used during the boot process to load the necessary information and settings for the operating system. The registry is essential for the proper functioning of the Windows operating system and is accessed and modified by various system components and applications.

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37. Which of the following protocols guarantees packet delivery?

Explanation

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) guarantees packet delivery by using a reliable and connection-oriented approach. It ensures that all packets are successfully delivered to the destination by implementing mechanisms like acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control. TCP establishes a reliable and error-free communication channel between the sender and receiver, making it suitable for applications that require guaranteed delivery of data, such as web browsing, file transfer, and email. On the other hand, UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not guarantee packet delivery as it is connectionless and does not have mechanisms for error recovery or flow control.

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38. A customer wishes to make a complaint about another repair tech that works in your shop. What would be the appropriate solution to this situation?

Explanation

Directing the customer to the supervisor is the appropriate solution in this situation because the supervisor is responsible for handling complaints and resolving any issues within the shop. By involving the supervisor, the customer's complaint can be addressed in a professional and proper manner, ensuring that the situation is handled effectively.

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39. A twisted pair cable that uses an RJ-45 connector has how many wires?

Explanation

A twisted pair cable that uses an RJ-45 connector has 8 wires. The RJ-45 connector is commonly used in Ethernet networks, and it requires 8 wires to support the transmission of data. Each wire is responsible for carrying a different signal, such as data, power, or ground. The twisted pair cable is designed to reduce interference and crosstalk between the wires, ensuring reliable and high-speed data transmission. Therefore, an RJ-45 connector with 8 wires is the correct choice for this type of cable.

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40. Which of the following statements best describes a graphics accelerator and it's purpose?

Explanation

A graphics accelerator is a type of video card that has its own processor to boost performance. It is designed to handle complex graphics computations and relieve the burden on the main CPU. By having its own dedicated processor, a graphics accelerator can enhance the rendering of 3D graphics, decode MPEG videos, and provide dual porting capabilities. This helps to improve the overall performance and efficiency of the graphics card, especially for high-end applications and gaming where intensive graphics processing is required.

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41. Which of the following statements best describes DDR?

Explanation

DDR stands for Double Data Rate, which means it doubles the data rate of memory by processing data when the beat of the clock rises and again when it falls. This allows for faster data transfer and improved performance compared to regular SDRAM. The statement correctly describes the main feature and advantage of DDR memory technology.

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42. Which of the following is true about RAM?

Explanation

RAM can indeed be installed in banks of several chips on a small board that plugs into the motherboard. This is a common method of installing RAM in a computer system. RAM stands for Random Access Memory, not read only memory. RAM is volatile, meaning it loses its data when the power is turned off. RAM does not refer to software that can be purchased and loaded onto a computer; it is a physical hardware component.

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43. Which of the following statements best describes a standard parallel port?

Explanation

A standard parallel port allows data to flow in two directions. This means that it can both send and receive data simultaneously, which is a characteristic of a bidirectional communication. Unlike a serial port, which can only send or receive data at a time, a parallel port can handle multiple data bits simultaneously, making it suitable for transferring large amounts of data quickly. This feature makes it useful for connecting devices such as printers, scanners, and external storage devices to a computer.

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44. When replacing a damaged motherboard with a good one, you should first test the?

Explanation

When replacing a damaged motherboard with a good one, it is important to first test the power supply. This is because a faulty power supply can cause damage to the motherboard or other components. By testing the power supply, you can ensure that it is functioning properly and providing the correct amount of power to the motherboard. Testing the BIOS or CMOS settings would not be necessary in this situation, as they are specific to the motherboard and not likely to be affected by the replacement. Therefore, the correct answer is power supply.

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45. To limit how much disk space a user account can access, an administrator can set which of the following?

Explanation

An administrator can set disk quotas to limit how much disk space a user account can access. Disk quotas allow administrators to allocate a specific amount of disk space to each user, preventing them from exceeding the allocated limit. This helps in managing disk space usage and ensuring fair distribution of resources among users. By implementing disk quotas, administrators can prevent individual users from monopolizing the available disk space and ensure efficient utilization of storage resources.

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46. Which of the following best describes a PGA socket?

Explanation

A PGA socket refers to a Pin Grid Array socket, in which the pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket. This arrangement allows for easy insertion and secure connection of the processor. The other options mentioned, such as staggered pins, lands, and a cartridge that lays flat, do not accurately describe a PGA socket.

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47. Which of the following statements best describes an extended partition?

Explanation

An extended partition refers to a type of partition on a hard drive that can be divided into multiple logical drives. Unlike a primary partition, which can only contain one logical drive, an extended partition allows for the creation of multiple logical drives, such as D and E. This allows for better organization and allocation of storage space on the hard drive.

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48. Which of the following best describes how you get a wireless keyboard to work?

Explanation

To get a wireless keyboard to work, you need to use a regular keyboard to install the software required to operate the wireless keyboard. This is because the wireless keyboard relies on software drivers to communicate with the computer. By using a regular keyboard, you can navigate through the installation process and install the necessary software for the wireless keyboard to function properly.

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49. Which of the following best describes an upset failure caused by ESD?

Explanation

The correct answer is "the damage component may continue to function, but it does not perform well." This describes an upset failure caused by ESD because ESD can cause damage to the component without completely destroying it. The component may still be able to function, but its performance will be compromised.

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50. Which of the following is the virtual memory swap file needed to boot windows xp/2000 successfully?

Explanation

The virtual memory swap file, Pagefile.sys, is necessary for the successful booting of Windows XP/2000. This file is used by the operating system to store data that cannot fit in the physical memory (RAM) of the computer. It acts as an extension of the RAM, allowing the system to allocate and manage memory resources effectively. Without the Pagefile.sys file, the operating system may encounter memory allocation issues, leading to booting problems.

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51. Which of the following statements best describes the MIDI format?

Explanation

The MIDI format is a method of digitally describing and storing every note played by each instrument used in making music. Unlike a sound file, it does not store the actual audio waveform, but rather the instructions on how to play the music, including information about the pitch, duration, and intensity of each note. This allows for easy editing, playback, and manipulation of the music data, making it a widely used format in the music industry.

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52. Which of the following categories of networks refers to a network that covers a large campus or city?

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) refers to a network that covers a large campus or city. Unlike a Personal Area Network (PAN) which is a small network for personal devices, a MAN is designed to connect multiple LANs (Local Area Networks) together within a specific geographic area. A MAN typically uses high-speed connections such as fiber optics to provide connectivity over a larger distance than a LAN. VAN (Virtual Area Network) is not a recognized category of networks, making it an incorrect option.

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53. Which of the following terms refers to the process by which a signal weakens as it travels long distances over a network?

Explanation

Attenuation refers to the process by which a signal weakens as it travels long distances over a network. It is a natural phenomenon that occurs due to various factors such as resistance, interference, and dispersion. Amplifier repeaters can be used to boost the weakened signal and extend its range, but attenuation itself refers to the loss of signal strength. Fade out and drop down are not relevant terms in this context.

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54. Malicious software is also called which of the following?

Explanation

Computer infestation is a term used to describe malicious software that infiltrates and spreads throughout a computer system, causing harm and compromising its security. This term encompasses various types of malware, such as viruses, worms, trojans, and spyware. These malicious programs are designed to exploit vulnerabilities in the system, steal sensitive information, disrupt normal operations, and gain unauthorized access. Therefore, computer infestation is an appropriate term to describe the harmful nature of malicious software.

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55. Which of the following types of PCMCIA slots has the highest standard and can accommodate a portable disk drive?

Explanation

Type III PCMCIA slots have the highest standard and can accommodate a portable disk drive. Type I slots are the thinnest and can only accommodate a credit card-sized device, while Type II slots are slightly thicker and can accommodate devices like modems or network cards. Type III slots are the thickest and can accommodate larger devices such as portable disk drives. Therefore, Type III is the correct answer as it has the highest standard and can accommodate a portable disk drive.

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56. Which of the following refers to a card inside the notebook that converts voltage to CPU core voltage?

Explanation

The DC controller refers to a card inside the notebook that converts voltage to CPU core voltage.

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57. Which of the following statements best describes why windows XP can be installed as a dual boot with windows 2000?

Explanation

Windows XP and Windows 2000 can be installed as a dual boot because they both use the same version of NTFS. This means that the file system used by both operating systems is compatible, allowing them to coexist on the same computer without conflicts. This compatibility ensures that data can be accessed and shared between the two operating systems seamlessly.

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58. Which of the following is an authentication protocol used to encrypt account names and passwords?

Explanation

Kerberos is an authentication protocol used to encrypt account names and passwords. It provides a secure way for users to authenticate their identities when accessing a network or system. By encrypting the account names and passwords, Kerberos ensures that the information cannot be easily intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals. This protocol is commonly used in enterprise environments to protect sensitive data and prevent unauthorized access to systems and resources.

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59. How many heads does a drive with two platters have?

Explanation

A drive with two platters typically has two read/write heads per platter, resulting in a total of four heads. Each head is responsible for reading and writing data on one side of a platter. Therefore, with two platters, there are four heads in total.

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60. Which of the following software is dormant code added to software and triggered at a predetermined time or by a predetermined event?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of dormant code that is added to software and is designed to be triggered at a specific time or by a specific event. Once triggered, it can execute malicious actions such as deleting files, corrupting data, or causing other damage to the system. Unlike other types of malware like adware, polymorphic viruses, or spyware, a logic bomb is specifically programmed to remain dormant until a predetermined condition is met, making it a dangerous tool for cyberattacks.

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61. Which of the following is a reason that a riser card is used with the nlx form factor?

Explanation

A riser card is used with the nlx form factor to allow for a smaller case. By using a riser card, the expansion slots on the motherboard can be positioned vertically, allowing for a more compact design. This helps in reducing the overall size of the case, making it more space-efficient.

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62. All I/O devices, except display and memory, connect to the hub by using which of the following?

Explanation

The South bridge is responsible for connecting all I/O devices, except for the display and memory, to the hub. It acts as a bridge between the CPU and the I/O devices, allowing data to be transferred between them. The South bridge is an essential component of the computer's architecture, ensuring smooth communication and data transfer between the various peripherals and the central processing unit.

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63. With dual channels, the memory controller can communicate with how many DIMMs at the same time?

Explanation

With dual channels, the memory controller can communicate with two DIMMs at the same time. This means that the memory controller can access data from two DIMMs simultaneously, increasing the overall memory bandwidth and improving system performance.

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64. Which of the following symbols can be used as a wildcard character in a filename when working at the command prompt?

Explanation

The symbol "?" can be used as a wildcard character in a filename when working at the command prompt. The "?" symbol represents a single character, allowing for flexibility in searching or manipulating files. For example, if you wanted to list all files with a three-letter extension, you could use the command "dir *.???" to display all files with any three characters as the extension.

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65. Which of the following steps in laser printing refers to a strong electrical charge drawing the toner off the drum onto the paper?

Explanation

Transferring is the correct answer because it refers to the step in laser printing where a strong electrical charge draws the toner off the drum and onto the paper. This step is crucial in the printing process as it transfers the toner image from the drum onto the paper, creating the final printed output. Conditioning refers to preparing the drum for the next cycle, writing refers to the laser beam creating the image on the drum, and fusing refers to the step where heat and pressure are applied to permanently bond the toner to the paper.

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66. Which of the following is the first question to answer in troubleshooting a pc problem?

Explanation

The question "does the PC boot to the Windows desktop with no errors" is the first question to answer in troubleshooting a PC problem because it helps determine if the PC is able to start up properly and if there are any errors occurring during the boot process. This question helps narrow down the possible causes of the problem and provides a starting point for further troubleshooting steps.

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67. When preparing to install Windows XP, what is the minimum requirements for RAM?

Explanation

The minimum requirement for RAM when installing Windows XP is 64 MB. This means that the computer should have at least 64 megabytes of RAM in order to successfully install and run the operating system.

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68. Which of the following statements bes describes odd parity?

Explanation

Odd parity is a method of error checking in which an additional bit, known as the parity bit, is added to a group of bits. The purpose of the parity bit is to ensure that the total number of 1s in the group of bits, including the parity bit, is odd. If the number of 1s is already odd, the parity bit is set to 0, and if the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 1. This allows for the detection of single-bit errors in the data. Therefore, the statement "It makes the ninth or parity bit either a 1 or 0 to make the number of 1s in the 9 bits odd" accurately describes odd parity.

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69. Which of the following accurately reflects the purpose of secondary storage?

Explanation

Secondary storage refers to the type of storage that is used for long-term or permanent storage of data. Unlike primary storage (such as RAM), which is volatile and loses its data when power is lost, secondary storage retains data even when the power is turned off. Therefore, it accurately reflects the purpose of secondary storage as being used for permanent storage.

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70. The process of low level formatting refers to which of the following?

Explanation

The process of low level formatting refers to writing track and sector markings to a hard drive before it leaves the factory. This involves dividing the hard drive into tracks and sectors, which are used to organize and store data on the drive. This low level formatting is done at the factory to prepare the hard drive for use and ensure that it is ready to store data efficiently.

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71. When windows 2000 runs in mixed mode, how many windows NT domain controllers are present?

Explanation

In mixed mode, Windows 2000 allows for the coexistence of Windows NT domain controllers alongside Windows 2000 domain controllers. Therefore, there can be one or more Windows NT domain controllers present when Windows 2000 is running in mixed mode.

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72. Which of the following must be true to use the Rmdir (RD) command?

Explanation

To use the Rmdir (RD) command, the directory must not be the current directory. This means that the command cannot be used to delete the directory that is currently being accessed or used.

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73. Which of the following best describes a start up password?

Explanation

A start-up password is a password that is changed by accessing the setup screen. This means that in order to change or set a start-up password, the user needs to access the setup screen of the device or system. It is different from the power on password and the OS password, as it specifically refers to the password used during the start-up process. It is also important to note that start-up passwords cannot be disabled by using a jumper, indicating that they provide an added level of security.

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74. Which of the following is an example of a top level domain?

Explanation

The correct answer is ".com" because it is a commonly used top-level domain (TLD) that represents commercial websites. TLDs are the last part of a domain name, such as .com, .org, or .net, and they categorize websites based on their purpose or geographical location. In this case, .com indicates that the website is for commercial purposes. The other options provided are either a specific domain name (course.com, www.course.com) or a subdomain (www), which are not examples of top-level domains.

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75. Which memory address is always assigned to the first instruction in the ROM BIOS startup program?

Explanation

The memory address FFFF0H is always assigned to the first instruction in the ROM BIOS startup program. This address is typically reserved for the system's firmware, specifically the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), which is responsible for initializing the hardware and starting the operating system. The FFFF0H address is the last 16 bytes of the system's memory, which is the highest address accessible by the CPU in the x86 architecture.

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76. Motherboards that support the PCI express and have the 24 pin P1 connector are sometimes called________________boards?

Explanation

Motherboards that support the PCI express and have the 24 pin P1 connector are sometimes called "enhanced ATX" boards because they are an enhanced version of the ATX form factor. The ATX form factor is a standard for computer motherboards, and the enhanced ATX boards have additional features and capabilities, such as support for PCI express slots and the 24 pin P1 power connector. These enhancements allow for better performance and compatibility with newer technologies.

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77. Which of the following steps can be used to manually discharge a monitor?

Explanation

Using a high voltage probe with the monitor case open can be used to manually discharge a monitor. This process involves safely discharging any residual electrical charge that may be present in the monitor. By using a high voltage probe, the excess charge can be safely released, reducing the risk of electric shock or damage to the monitor.

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78. If you are creating your own boot.ini file, which of the following must be entered after the /fastdetect switch in the last line of the file?

Explanation

After the /fastdetect switch in the last line of the boot.ini file, a hard return must be entered. A hard return is used to create a new line in a text file. It is necessary to separate the different commands or switches in the boot.ini file, ensuring that each command is on a separate line. Therefore, a hard return is required to indicate the end of the /fastdetect switch and start a new line for any additional commands or switches that may be added to the boot.ini file.

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79. Which color is used to indicate that a file or folder has been encrypted in explorer?

Explanation

In explorer, the color green is used to indicate that a file or folder has been encrypted. Encryption is a security measure that converts data into a form that cannot be easily understood by unauthorized individuals. By using the color green, it helps users quickly identify which files or folders have been encrypted, providing a visual cue for enhanced security.

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80. How many separate sound channels of sound information can the surround sound standard support?

Explanation

The surround sound standard can support up to 8 separate sound channels of sound information. This means that it is capable of delivering audio through 8 different speakers or audio channels, creating a more immersive and realistic audio experience for the listener.

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81. Which of the following keys do you press to retrieve the last command one character at a time when using the recovery console?

Explanation

In the recovery console, pressing the F1 key allows you to retrieve the last command one character at a time. This key is commonly used to access the help menu in various operating systems, including Windows. By pressing F1, users can view detailed information and instructions related to the recovery console and its commands.

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82. Which of the following networking protocols is a proprietary windows protocol suite used only by windows computers?

Explanation

NetBEUI is a proprietary Windows protocol suite used exclusively by Windows computers. It stands for NetBIOS Extended User Interface and is known for its simplicity and fast performance. It was commonly used in earlier versions of Windows for local area networks (LANs) but has been largely replaced by TCP/IP in modern networking environments. NetBEUI is not compatible with other operating systems, making it a protocol specific to Windows.

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83. How many bits are in a SIMMs data path?

Explanation

A SIMM (Single In-Line Memory Module) is a type of memory module used in computers. The data path refers to the width of the data bus, which determines the amount of data that can be transferred between the memory module and the computer's processor in a single clock cycle. In this case, the correct answer is 32, indicating that the SIMM has a 32-bit data path, allowing it to transfer 32 bits of data at a time.

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84. During installation of a hardware device, windows xp/2000 searches for a driver information file that has which of the following extensions?

Explanation

During the installation of a hardware device, Windows XP/2000 searches for a driver information file with the ".inf" extension. This file contains the necessary information and instructions for the operating system to properly recognize and interact with the hardware device. The ".inf" file provides details about the device, such as its manufacturer, model, and specific driver requirements, allowing Windows to install the appropriate driver and ensure proper functionality of the hardware device.

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85. What is the best way when working inside a computer to protect against ESD? (choose 2)

Explanation

To protect against ESD (electrostatic discharge) when working inside a computer, it is recommended to use a grounding mat and an ESD wrist strap. A grounding mat provides a conductive surface that helps to dissipate any static charges that may build up on the person or the components. The ESD wrist strap, when properly connected to a grounded surface, helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity on the person by providing a path for the discharge. By using both the grounding mat and the ESD wrist strap, the risk of damaging sensitive computer components due to ESD can be significantly reduced.

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86. During conditioning, how much electrical charge is uniformly put on the surface of the drum?

Explanation

During conditioning, a negative electrical charge of -600v is uniformly applied to the surface of the drum. This charge is necessary to prepare the drum for the printing process by attracting toner particles to the surface. The high voltage helps to create a strong electrostatic field, ensuring that the toner adheres properly to the drum and produces clear and accurate prints.

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87. Which of the following sound card color codes is typically used for "line in" for external devices producing sound?

Explanation

The blue color code is typically used for "line in" on a sound card for external devices producing sound. This color coding system helps users easily identify and connect the correct input/output ports on their sound card. The blue color is commonly associated with line-level audio input, which is used for connecting devices such as CD players, musical instruments, or other audio sources to the sound card.

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88. Which of the following formats might be used by a high end camera to give better results when printing photos?

Explanation

TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) might be used by a high-end camera to give better results when printing photos. TIFF is a lossless format, meaning it retains all the original image data without any compression. This results in higher quality and more detailed images, making it ideal for professional photographers who require the best possible print quality. Additionally, TIFF supports a wide range of color depths and can store multiple layers and transparency, providing photographers with more flexibility in post-processing and editing.

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89. Which of the following is the latest from factor?

Explanation

The latest form factor among the given options is btx.

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90. Which of the following terms refers to the largest number of bits the processor can process in one operation?

Explanation

The term "word size" refers to the largest number of bits that a processor can process in one operation. This means that the processor can handle data in chunks of this size, which affects its performance and capabilities. A larger word size allows for more data to be processed at once, leading to faster and more efficient operations. Therefore, word size is the correct answer for this question.

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91. The PCI Express bus currently comes in how many different slot sizes?

Explanation

The PCI Express bus currently comes in four different slot sizes. These different sizes allow for various configurations and compatibility with different devices. The different slot sizes include x1, x4, x8, and x16, with each size having a different number of lanes. The number of lanes determines the bandwidth and speed of data transfer between the device and the motherboard. Having four different slot sizes provides flexibility and options for users to choose the appropriate slot size for their specific needs and requirements.

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92. The BTX form factor has up to home many expansion slots?

Explanation

The BTX form factor has up to 7 expansion slots.

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93. High fidelity music CDs use how many bits in their sample size?

Explanation

High fidelity music CDs use 16 bits in their sample size. This means that each sample taken from the original audio is represented by a 16-bit binary number. The higher the number of bits, the more accurately the sound can be represented, resulting in better audio quality. 16 bits is a common standard for CDs as it provides a good balance between file size and audio quality.

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94. Which of the following interfaces exists between the subsystem in user mode and the HAL ( hardware abstraction layer)?

Explanation

Executive services is the correct answer because it refers to the set of high-level functions and services provided by the operating system's executive component. These services include process and thread management, memory management, I/O operations, and inter-process communication. The executive services interface between the subsystem in user mode and the HAL, allowing the subsystem to interact with the underlying hardware through the HAL.

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95. Which of the following is the memory cache on the processor chip?

Explanation

The memory cache on the processor chip is referred to as the primary cache. This cache is located closest to the processor and is used to store frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing for faster access compared to accessing data from the main memory. The primary cache is smaller in size but has a lower latency compared to higher-level caches, such as the level 2 cache.

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96. Windows 2000 includes how many operating systems?

Explanation

Windows 2000 includes four operating systems. This is because Windows 2000 was released in four different editions: Professional, Server, Advanced Server, and Datacenter Server. Each edition was designed for different purposes and had varying capabilities and features. Therefore, Windows 2000 can be considered as consisting of four distinct operating systems.

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97. CPU's operate in how many different modes?

Explanation

real mode (16 bit software), protected mode(32 bit software), and virtual real mode(16 bit programs within an 32 bit envrionment.

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98. A 3.5 inch, high density floppy disk has how many entries in the root directory?

Explanation

A 3.5 inch, high density floppy disk typically has a root directory that can hold a maximum of 224 entries. This means that the root directory can store up to 224 files or folders.

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