CompTIA A+ Essentials Exam Practice Test

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CompTIA A+ Essentials Exam Practice Test - Quiz

The following practice questions are taken from CompTIA A+ 2006 In-Depth book by Jean Andrews. I have set the pass rate to which you must score above 75% to pass, this is done to better help you prepare for the real exams. So, without any further ado, let's get started.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following accurately reflects the purpose of secondary storage?

    • A.

      Secondary storage is used for permanent storage.

    • B.

      Secondary storage holds data during processing.

    • C.

      Secondary storage holds instructions during processing.

    • D.

      Secondary storage is located inside the case.

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary storage is used for permanent storage.
    Explanation
    Secondary storage refers to the type of storage that is used for long-term or permanent storage of data. Unlike primary storage (such as RAM), which is volatile and loses its data when power is lost, secondary storage retains data even when the power is turned off. Therefore, it accurately reflects the purpose of secondary storage as being used for permanent storage.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is true about RAM?

    • A.

      RAM stands for read only memory.

    • B.

      RAM is non-volatile.

    • C.

      RAM can be installed in banks of several chips on a small board that plugs into the motherboard.

    • D.

      RAM refers to software that can be purchased and loaded onto a computer.

    Correct Answer
    C. RAM can be installed in banks of several chips on a small board that plugs into the motherboard.
    Explanation
    RAM can indeed be installed in banks of several chips on a small board that plugs into the motherboard. This is a common method of installing RAM in a computer system. RAM stands for Random Access Memory, not read only memory. RAM is volatile, meaning it loses its data when the power is turned off. RAM does not refer to software that can be purchased and loaded onto a computer; it is a physical hardware component.

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  • 3. 

    The windows operating system uses which of the following to keep hardware and software configuration information, user preferences, and application settings that are used when the Os is first being loaded?

    • A.

      Kernel

    • B.

      Registry

    • C.

      Shell

    • D.

      Hard drive

    Correct Answer
    B. Registry
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "registry". The registry is a centralized database in the Windows operating system that stores hardware and software configuration information, user preferences, and application settings. It is used during the boot process to load the necessary information and settings for the operating system. The registry is essential for the proper functioning of the Windows operating system and is accessed and modified by various system components and applications.

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  • 4. 

    The file extension identifies which of the following?

    • A.

      File type

    • B.

      Subdirectory to the root directory

    • C.

      Folder

    • D.

      Root directory

    Correct Answer
    A. File type
    Explanation
    The file extension refers to the letters or characters that come after the dot in a file's name. It helps to identify the type or format of the file. Different file types have different extensions, such as .docx for Microsoft Word documents, .jpg for image files, and .mp3 for audio files. Therefore, the correct answer is "file type".

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  • 5. 

    CPU's operate in how many different modes?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    real mode (16 bit software), protected mode(32 bit software), and virtual real mode(16 bit programs within an 32 bit envrionment.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the primary Windows tool that can be used when solving problems with hardware?

    • A.

      System properties

    • B.

      Windows explorer

    • C.

      File attributes

    • D.

      Device manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Device manager
    Explanation
    The primary Windows tool that can be used when solving problems with hardware is the device manager. The device manager allows users to view and manage all the hardware devices connected to their computer. It provides information about the hardware devices, their drivers, and allows users to update, disable, or uninstall them if necessary. By using the device manager, users can troubleshoot hardware issues, such as identifying missing or outdated drivers, conflicts between devices, or malfunctioning hardware components.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following steps can be used to manually discharge a monitor?

    • A.

      Vacuum the dust

    • B.

      Unplug the monitor

    • C.

      Use a monitor cleaner on the screen

    • D.

      Use a high voltage probe with the monitor case open

    Correct Answer
    D. Use a high voltage probe with the monitor case open
    Explanation
    Using a high voltage probe with the monitor case open can be used to manually discharge a monitor. This process involves safely discharging any residual electrical charge that may be present in the monitor. By using a high voltage probe, the excess charge can be safely released, reducing the risk of electric shock or damage to the monitor.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following best describes an upset failure caused by ESD?

    • A.

      Upset failures are easy to detect.

    • B.

      The failure destroys the component beyond use.

    • C.

      The damage component may continue to function, but it deos not perform well.

    • D.

      An upset failure prevents the computer from booting.

    Correct Answer
    C. The damage component may continue to function, but it deos not perform well.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the damage component may continue to function, but it does not perform well." This describes an upset failure caused by ESD because ESD can cause damage to the component without completely destroying it. The component may still be able to function, but its performance will be compromised.

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  • 9. 

    Which memory address is always assigned to the first instruction in the ROM BIOS startup program?

    • A.

      000000

    • B.

      000001

    • C.

      FFFF0H

    • D.

      FFFFFF

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. FFFF0H
    Explanation
    The memory address FFFF0H is always assigned to the first instruction in the ROM BIOS startup program. This address is typically reserved for the system's firmware, specifically the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), which is responsible for initializing the hardware and starting the operating system. The FFFF0H address is the last 16 bytes of the system's memory, which is the highest address accessible by the CPU in the x86 architecture.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is the first question to answer in troubleshooting a pc problem?

    • A.

      Is the problem related to reading from the hard drive.

    • B.

      Does the pc boot to the windows desktop with no errors.

    • C.

      Is the screen blank.

    • D.

      Can you hear a single beep during the boot.

    Correct Answer
    B. Does the pc boot to the windows desktop with no errors.
    Explanation
    The question "does the PC boot to the Windows desktop with no errors" is the first question to answer in troubleshooting a PC problem because it helps determine if the PC is able to start up properly and if there are any errors occurring during the boot process. This question helps narrow down the possible causes of the problem and provides a starting point for further troubleshooting steps.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is the latest from factor?

    • A.

      Nlx

    • B.

      Atx

    • C.

      Btx

    • D.

      Baby at

    Correct Answer
    C. Btx
    Explanation
    The latest form factor among the given options is btx.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is a reason that a riser card is used with the nlx form factor?

    • A.

      Fewer cables are needed.

    • B.

      It reduces heat with better airflow.

    • C.

      It allows for a smaller case.

    • D.

      It can remove the motherboard without using tools.

    Correct Answer
    C. It allows for a smaller case.
    Explanation
    A riser card is used with the nlx form factor to allow for a smaller case. By using a riser card, the expansion slots on the motherboard can be positioned vertically, allowing for a more compact design. This helps in reducing the overall size of the case, making it more space-efficient.

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  • 13. 

    Motherboards that support the PCI express and have the 24 pin P1 connector are sometimes called________________boards?

    • A.

      Atx

    • B.

      Baby atx

    • C.

      Full at

    • D.

      Enhanced atx

    Correct Answer
    D. Enhanced atx
    Explanation
    Motherboards that support the PCI express and have the 24 pin P1 connector are sometimes called "enhanced ATX" boards because they are an enhanced version of the ATX form factor. The ATX form factor is a standard for computer motherboards, and the enhanced ATX boards have additional features and capabilities, such as support for PCI express slots and the 24 pin P1 power connector. These enhancements allow for better performance and compatibility with newer technologies.

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  • 14. 

    When replacing a damaged motherboard with a good one, you should first test the?

    • A.

      Bios

    • B.

      Cmos settings

    • C.

      Power supply

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Power supply
    Explanation
    When replacing a damaged motherboard with a good one, it is important to first test the power supply. This is because a faulty power supply can cause damage to the motherboard or other components. By testing the power supply, you can ensure that it is functioning properly and providing the correct amount of power to the motherboard. Testing the BIOS or CMOS settings would not be necessary in this situation, as they are specific to the motherboard and not likely to be affected by the replacement. Therefore, the correct answer is power supply.

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  • 15. 

    What is the best way when working inside a computer to protect against ESD? (choose 2)

    • A.

      Grounding mat

    • B.

      Touch chassis before touching components

    • C.

      Esd wrist strap

    • D.

      Unplug all power cords

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Grounding mat
    C. Esd wrist strap
    Explanation
    To protect against ESD (electrostatic discharge) when working inside a computer, it is recommended to use a grounding mat and an ESD wrist strap. A grounding mat provides a conductive surface that helps to dissipate any static charges that may build up on the person or the components. The ESD wrist strap, when properly connected to a grounded surface, helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity on the person by providing a path for the discharge. By using both the grounding mat and the ESD wrist strap, the risk of damaging sensitive computer components due to ESD can be significantly reduced.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the largest number of bits the processor can process in one operation?

    • A.

      Data path

    • B.

      Overclocking

    • C.

      Word size

    • D.

      Throttle

    Correct Answer
    C. Word size
    Explanation
    The term "word size" refers to the largest number of bits that a processor can process in one operation. This means that the processor can handle data in chunks of this size, which affects its performance and capabilities. A larger word size allows for more data to be processed at once, leading to faster and more efficient operations. Therefore, word size is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is the memory cache on the processor chip?

    • A.

      Level 2

    • B.

      Primary

    • C.

      Secondary

    • D.

      DRAM

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary
    Explanation
    The memory cache on the processor chip is referred to as the primary cache. This cache is located closest to the processor and is used to store frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing for faster access compared to accessing data from the main memory. The primary cache is smaller in size but has a lower latency compared to higher-level caches, such as the level 2 cache.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following best describes a PGA socket?

    • A.

      The pins are staggered over the socket.

    • B.

      The socket uses lands.

    • C.

      It's a cartridge for a processor that lays flat.

    • D.

      The pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket.

    Correct Answer
    D. The pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket.
    Explanation
    A PGA socket refers to a Pin Grid Array socket, in which the pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket. This arrangement allows for easy insertion and secure connection of the processor. The other options mentioned, such as staggered pins, lands, and a cartridge that lays flat, do not accurately describe a PGA socket.

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  • 19. 

    All I/O devices, except display and memory, connect to the hub by using which of the following?

    • A.

      South bridge

    • B.

      PCI bus

    • C.

      Accelerated Hub Architecture

    • D.

      North bridge

    Correct Answer
    A. South bridge
    Explanation
    The South bridge is responsible for connecting all I/O devices, except for the display and memory, to the hub. It acts as a bridge between the CPU and the I/O devices, allowing data to be transferred between them. The South bridge is an essential component of the computer's architecture, ensuring smooth communication and data transfer between the various peripherals and the central processing unit.

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  • 20. 

    A cooler is a combination of a cooling fan and which of the following?

    • A.

      Riser card

    • B.

      Heat sink

    • C.

      Resistor

    • D.

      Housing

    Correct Answer
    B. Heat sink
    Explanation
    A cooler is a combination of a cooling fan and a heat sink. A cooling fan helps to circulate the air and dissipate heat, while a heat sink is a passive cooling device that absorbs and disperses heat away from the components. Therefore, a heat sink is the correct answer as it is an essential component in a cooler to maintain the temperature of electronic devices.

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  • 21. 

    The BTX form factor has up to home many expansion slots?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 7
    Explanation
    The BTX form factor has up to 7 expansion slots.

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  • 22. 

    The PCI Express bus currently comes in how many different slot sizes?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    The PCI Express bus currently comes in four different slot sizes. These different sizes allow for various configurations and compatibility with different devices. The different slot sizes include x1, x4, x8, and x16, with each size having a different number of lanes. The number of lanes determines the bandwidth and speed of data transfer between the device and the motherboard. Having four different slot sizes provides flexibility and options for users to choose the appropriate slot size for their specific needs and requirements.

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  • 23. 

    Where is the CMOS RAM typically located?

    • A.

      On a RAM (RTC/NVRAM) chip.

    • B.

      On a floppy drive.

    • C.

      On a CD.

    • D.

      On an external storage.

    Correct Answer
    A. On a RAM (RTC/NVRAM) chip.
    Explanation
    The CMOS RAM is typically located on a RAM (RTC/NVRAM) chip. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor, which is a technology used to manufacture integrated circuits. The CMOS RAM stores the BIOS settings and configuration data for the computer's hardware. It is usually powered by a small battery to retain the data even when the computer is turned off.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements best describes how to access the setup program stored in ROM BIOS on a newer computers?

    • A.

      Use the start menu from desktop.

    • B.

      Press a key or combination of keys during the boot process.

    • C.

      Download a program from the manufacturer's website.

    • D.

      Use a boot disk.

    Correct Answer
    B. Press a key or combination of keys during the boot process.
    Explanation
    To access the setup program stored in ROM BIOS on newer computers, you need to press a key or combination of keys during the boot process. This action triggers the BIOS to enter the setup program, where you can configure various settings for your computer's hardware and software. Using the start menu from the desktop, downloading a program from the manufacturer's website, or using a boot disk are not the correct methods to access the setup program in ROM BIOS.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following best describes a start up password?

    • A.

      The password is different from the power on password.

    • B.

      The password is the same as the OS password.

    • C.

      The password is changed by accessing the setup screen.

    • D.

      Start up passwords can never be disabled by using a jumper.

    Correct Answer
    C. The password is changed by accessing the setup screen.
    Explanation
    A start-up password is a password that is changed by accessing the setup screen. This means that in order to change or set a start-up password, the user needs to access the setup screen of the device or system. It is different from the power on password and the OS password, as it specifically refers to the password used during the start-up process. It is also important to note that start-up passwords cannot be disabled by using a jumper, indicating that they provide an added level of security.

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  • 26. 

    How many bits are in a SIMMs data path?

    • A.

      16

    • B.

      32

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    B. 32
    Explanation
    A SIMM (Single In-Line Memory Module) is a type of memory module used in computers. The data path refers to the width of the data bus, which determines the amount of data that can be transferred between the memory module and the computer's processor in a single clock cycle. In this case, the correct answer is 32, indicating that the SIMM has a 32-bit data path, allowing it to transfer 32 bits of data at a time.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following statements best describes DDR?

    • A.

      DDR doubles the data rate of memory by processing data when the beat of the clock rises and again when it falls.

    • B.

      DDR runs more slowly than regular SDRAM.

    • C.

      DDR uses 168 pins.

    • D.

      DDR improves on DDR2.

    Correct Answer
    A. DDR doubles the data rate of memory by processing data when the beat of the clock rises and again when it falls.
    Explanation
    DDR stands for Double Data Rate, which means it doubles the data rate of memory by processing data when the beat of the clock rises and again when it falls. This allows for faster data transfer and improved performance compared to regular SDRAM. The statement correctly describes the main feature and advantage of DDR memory technology.

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  • 28. 

    With dual channels, the memory controller can communicate with how many DIMMs at the same time?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    With dual channels, the memory controller can communicate with two DIMMs at the same time. This means that the memory controller can access data from two DIMMs simultaneously, increasing the overall memory bandwidth and improving system performance.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following statements bes describes odd parity?

    • A.

      It makes the parity bit a 1 or 0 to make the number of 1s in the 9 bits even.

    • B.

      A parity error occurs only when there is an odd number of bits.

    • C.

      It makes the ninth or parity bit either a 1 or 0 to make the number of 1s in the 9 bits odd.

    • D.

      Newer DRAM systems also use odd parity error checking.

    Correct Answer
    C. It makes the ninth or parity bit either a 1 or 0 to make the number of 1s in the 9 bits odd.
    Explanation
    Odd parity is a method of error checking in which an additional bit, known as the parity bit, is added to a group of bits. The purpose of the parity bit is to ensure that the total number of 1s in the group of bits, including the parity bit, is odd. If the number of 1s is already odd, the parity bit is set to 0, and if the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 1. This allows for the detection of single-bit errors in the data. Therefore, the statement "It makes the ninth or parity bit either a 1 or 0 to make the number of 1s in the 9 bits odd" accurately describes odd parity.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following best describes the features CAS latency and RAS latency?

    • A.

      Both features refer to the size of the memory modules.

    • B.

      RAS latency is used more than CAS latency.

    • C.

      It takes four or five clock cycles to read or write data.

    • D.

      Both features refer to the number of clock cycles it takes to write or read a column or row of data off a memory module.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both features refer to the number of clock cycles it takes to write or read a column or row of data off a memory module.
    Explanation
    CAS latency and RAS latency both refer to the number of clock cycles it takes to write or read a column or row of data off a memory module. This means that both features are related to the timing and speed of accessing data from the memory. The statement that RAS latency is used more than CAS latency is not relevant to describing the features of CAS latency and RAS latency.

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  • 31. 

    A 3.5 inch, high density floppy disk has how many entries in the root directory?

    • A.

      32

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      128

    • D.

      224

    Correct Answer
    D. 224
    Explanation
    A 3.5 inch, high density floppy disk typically has a root directory that can hold a maximum of 224 entries. This means that the root directory can store up to 224 files or folders.

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  • 32. 

    How many heads does a drive with two platters have?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    A drive with two platters typically has two read/write heads per platter, resulting in a total of four heads. Each head is responsible for reading and writing data on one side of a platter. Therefore, with two platters, there are four heads in total.

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  • 33. 

    The process of low level formatting refers to which of the following?

    • A.

      Using both sides of a platter to store data.

    • B.

      Storing data on the hard drive by filling the entire first cylinder before moving the read/write heads inward and filling the second cylinder.

    • C.

      Writing track and sector markings to a hard drive before it leaves the factory.

    • D.

      Storing firmware on a circuit board on or inside the drive housing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Writing track and sector markings to a hard drive before it leaves the factory.
    Explanation
    The process of low level formatting refers to writing track and sector markings to a hard drive before it leaves the factory. This involves dividing the hard drive into tracks and sectors, which are used to organize and store data on the drive. This low level formatting is done at the factory to prepare the hard drive for use and ensure that it is ready to store data efficiently.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following best describes how you get a wireless keyboard to work?

    • A.

      Clean the keyboard before the first use.

    • B.

      Use a regular keyboard to install the software to use the wireless keyboard.

    • C.

      Turn any radios in the room off while you are installing the driver for the wireless board.

    • D.

      Install the driver for the mouse before you install the driver for the keyboard.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use a regular keyboard to install the software to use the wireless keyboard.
    Explanation
    To get a wireless keyboard to work, you need to use a regular keyboard to install the software required to operate the wireless keyboard. This is because the wireless keyboard relies on software drivers to communicate with the computer. By using a regular keyboard, you can navigate through the installation process and install the necessary software for the wireless keyboard to function properly.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following statements best describes the refresh rate for CRT monitors?

    • A.

      The refresh rate is also called the horizontal scan rate.

    • B.

      Refresh rates do not typically differ among monitors.

    • C.

      The refresh rate is the number of times in on second an electronic beam can fill the screen with lines.

    • D.

      CRT screens draw a screen by making two passes.

    Correct Answer
    C. The refresh rate is the number of times in on second an electronic beam can fill the screen with lines.
    Explanation
    The refresh rate for CRT monitors refers to the number of times in one second that an electronic beam can fill the screen with lines. This means that a higher refresh rate will result in a smoother and more fluid display on the monitor. The statement accurately describes the concept of refresh rate for CRT monitors.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following statements best describes a graphics accelerator and it's purpose?

    • A.

      One problem that high end graphics cards is overheating.

    • B.

      Some features included on a graphics accelerator are MPEG decoding , 3 D graphics and dual porting.

    • C.

      The graphics accelerator does not have a processor to manage video and graphics.

    • D.

      It is a type of video card that has it's own processor to boost performance.

    Correct Answer
    D. It is a type of video card that has it's own processor to boost performance.
    Explanation
    A graphics accelerator is a type of video card that has its own processor to boost performance. It is designed to handle complex graphics computations and relieve the burden on the main CPU. By having its own dedicated processor, a graphics accelerator can enhance the rendering of 3D graphics, decode MPEG videos, and provide dual porting capabilities. This helps to improve the overall performance and efficiency of the graphics card, especially for high-end applications and gaming where intensive graphics processing is required.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following statements best describes a standard parallel port?

    • A.

      A standard parallel port allows data to flow in two directions.

    • B.

      A standard parallel port is the slowest of the three types of parallel ports.

    • C.

      A parallel port is faster and easier to configure than USB ports.

    • D.

      Setup can have up to four different settings for parallel port modes.

    Correct Answer
    A. A standard parallel port allows data to flow in two directions.
    Explanation
    A standard parallel port allows data to flow in two directions. This means that it can both send and receive data simultaneously, which is a characteristic of a bidirectional communication. Unlike a serial port, which can only send or receive data at a time, a parallel port can handle multiple data bits simultaneously, making it suitable for transferring large amounts of data quickly. This feature makes it useful for connecting devices such as printers, scanners, and external storage devices to a computer.

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  • 38. 

    How many separate sound channels of sound information can the surround sound standard support?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 8
    Explanation
    The surround sound standard can support up to 8 separate sound channels of sound information. This means that it is capable of delivering audio through 8 different speakers or audio channels, creating a more immersive and realistic audio experience for the listener.

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  • 39. 

    High fidelity music CDs use how many bits in their sample size?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      32

    • D.

      64

    Correct Answer
    B. 16
    Explanation
    High fidelity music CDs use 16 bits in their sample size. This means that each sample taken from the original audio is represented by a 16-bit binary number. The higher the number of bits, the more accurately the sound can be represented, resulting in better audio quality. 16 bits is a common standard for CDs as it provides a good balance between file size and audio quality.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following sound card color codes is typically used for "line in" for external devices producing sound?

    • A.

      Blue

    • B.

      Green

    • C.

      Black

    • D.

      Orange

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue
    Explanation
    The blue color code is typically used for "line in" on a sound card for external devices producing sound. This color coding system helps users easily identify and connect the correct input/output ports on their sound card. The blue color is commonly associated with line-level audio input, which is used for connecting devices such as CD players, musical instruments, or other audio sources to the sound card.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following formats might be used by a high end camera to give better results when printing photos?

    • A.

      TIFF

    • B.

      JPEG

    • C.

      BMP

    • D.

      GIF

    Correct Answer
    A. TIFF
    Explanation
    TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) might be used by a high-end camera to give better results when printing photos. TIFF is a lossless format, meaning it retains all the original image data without any compression. This results in higher quality and more detailed images, making it ideal for professional photographers who require the best possible print quality. Additionally, TIFF supports a wide range of color depths and can store multiple layers and transparency, providing photographers with more flexibility in post-processing and editing.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following statements best describes the MIDI format?

    • A.

      A method of storing a sound file in compressed format.

    • B.

      A common compression standard for storing photos.

    • C.

      A method for digitizing streaming video.

    • D.

      A method of digitally describing and storing every note played by each instrument used in making music.

    Correct Answer
    D. A method of digitally describing and storing every note played by each instrument used in making music.
    Explanation
    The MIDI format is a method of digitally describing and storing every note played by each instrument used in making music. Unlike a sound file, it does not store the actual audio waveform, but rather the instructions on how to play the music, including information about the pitch, duration, and intensity of each note. This allows for easy editing, playback, and manipulation of the music data, making it a widely used format in the music industry.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following interfaces exists between the subsystem in user mode and the HAL ( hardware abstraction layer)?

    • A.

      Win32 (WOW)

    • B.

      Executive services

    • C.

      Multithread

    • D.

      Win36 (WOW)

    Correct Answer
    B. Executive services
    Explanation
    Executive services is the correct answer because it refers to the set of high-level functions and services provided by the operating system's executive component. These services include process and thread management, memory management, I/O operations, and inter-process communication. The executive services interface between the subsystem in user mode and the HAL, allowing the subsystem to interact with the underlying hardware through the HAL.

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  • 44. 

    When windows 2000 runs in mixed mode, how many windows NT domain controllers are present?

    • A.

      0.

    • B.

      1.

    • C.

      1 or more

    • D.

      The term "domain controller" is not related to mixed mode.

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 or more
    Explanation
    In mixed mode, Windows 2000 allows for the coexistence of Windows NT domain controllers alongside Windows 2000 domain controllers. Therefore, there can be one or more Windows NT domain controllers present when Windows 2000 is running in mixed mode.

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  • 45. 

    Windows 2000 includes how many operating systems?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    Windows 2000 includes four operating systems. This is because Windows 2000 was released in four different editions: Professional, Server, Advanced Server, and Datacenter Server. Each edition was designed for different purposes and had varying capabilities and features. Therefore, Windows 2000 can be considered as consisting of four distinct operating systems.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following statements best describes why windows XP can be installed as a dual boot with windows 2000?

    • A.

      Each logical drive or volume has a file system installed.

    • B.

      There is minimal wasted space for each operating system.

    • C.

      A FAT32 volume can be easily converted to an NTFS volume.

    • D.

      They both use the same version of NTFS.

    Correct Answer
    D. They both use the same version of NTFS.
    Explanation
    Windows XP and Windows 2000 can be installed as a dual boot because they both use the same version of NTFS. This means that the file system used by both operating systems is compatible, allowing them to coexist on the same computer without conflicts. This compatibility ensures that data can be accessed and shared between the two operating systems seamlessly.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the method used by microsoft to prevent unlicensed use of it's software that is based on purchasing a windows xp license for each installation of windows xp?

    • A.

      Product activation

    • B.

      Boot loader

    • C.

      Disk cloning

    • D.

      Unattended installation

    Correct Answer
    A. Product activation
    Explanation
    Product activation refers to the method used by Microsoft to prevent unlicensed use of its software. It involves purchasing a Windows XP license for each installation of Windows XP. This process verifies the authenticity of the software and ensures that it is being used legally.

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  • 48. 

    A customer calls your shop and is angry about a product they purchased from there yesterday. How should you handle this situation?

    • A.

      Hang up on the customer

    • B.

      Tell the customer that there is nothing you can do for them.

    • C.

      Listen to the customers complaint and attempt to help them.

    • D.

      Immediately get your supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Listen to the customers complaint and attempt to help them.
    Explanation
    In a situation where a customer is angry about a product they purchased, it is important to handle the situation professionally and empathetically. Hanging up on the customer or telling them that there is nothing you can do for them would only escalate the situation further and damage the customer relationship. Therefore, the best approach is to listen attentively to the customer's complaint, showing understanding and empathy, and then attempt to find a solution or offer assistance in resolving their issue. In more complex cases, involving a supervisor may be necessary, but the initial step should always be to actively listen and try to help the customer.

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  • 49. 

    A customer comes into your store and asks you about purchasing (as cheap as possible) a 512 MB ram module. The customer is not computer literate and you have a cheaper module that is compatible with their system and you also have the most expensive module that is also compatible. What should you do in this situation?

    • A.

      Lie to the customer and explain that they need the more expensive module.

    • B.

      Tell the customer the truth and direct them to the least expensive module.

    • C.

      Explain to the customer that the more expensive module is better for their system and get more money on the sale.

    • D.

      Let another sales person help them.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tell the customer the truth and direct them to the least expensive module.
    Explanation
    You should never lie to a customer and always help them find what they ask for even if it is cheaper than what you can sell it for because you would not be giving the customer what they are asking for.

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  • 50. 

    A customer wishes to make a complaint about another repair tech that works in your shop. What would be the appropriate solution to this situation?

    • A.

      Listen to the customer and take notes.

    • B.

      Tell the customer that they should come back when it is not so busy.

    • C.

      Direct the customer to the supervisor.

    • D.

      Tell the customer you will be right back and go tell the person that the complaint is against them and they should deal with the situation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Direct the customer to the supervisor.
    Explanation
    Directing the customer to the supervisor is the appropriate solution in this situation because the supervisor is responsible for handling complaints and resolving any issues within the shop. By involving the supervisor, the customer's complaint can be addressed in a professional and proper manner, ensuring that the situation is handled effectively.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 26, 2007
    Quiz Created by
    Bobby1234
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