CompTIA A+ Essentials Exam Practice Test

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  • 1/98 Questions

    When dealing with customers you should always?

    • Listen to them
    • Ignore them
    • Pretend you are listening
    • Act like you do not care
Please wait...
About This Quiz

The following practice questions are taken from CompTIA A+ 2006 In-Depth book by Jean Andrews. I have set the pass rate to which you must score above 75% to pass, this is done to better help you prepare for the real exams. So, without any further ado, let's get started.

CompTIA A+ Essentials Exam Practice Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A dissatisfied customer calls you a idiot as they walk away from your repair center. How should you handle this situation?

    • Respond to the customer by calling them an idiot.

    • Verbally assault the customer.

    • Tell the customer to never come back.

    • Smile and tell the customer to have a nice day.

    Correct Answer
    A. Smile and tell the customer to have a nice day.
    Explanation
    In customer service you are not always going to be able to make people happy, but you should never engage in a verbal altercation with them. You should always be polite even if they are not.

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  • 3. 

    A friend of yours comes into the store where you work, they beg you to give them a dramatically reduced price on a product. What would you do in this situation?

    • Give them the deal.

    • Explain to them that you can't because you could get in trouble.

    • Switch prices on the product so you can ring it up at a cheaper price.

    • Help them bypass security so they can take the product for free.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explain to them that you can't because you could get in trouble.
    Explanation
    In this situation, it would be best to explain to the friend that you cannot give them a dramatically reduced price on the product because it could get you in trouble. This response shows integrity and adherence to professional ethics. It is important to prioritize honesty and maintain the store's policies and guidelines. Offering special deals to friends can lead to favoritism and can also harm the reputation of the store.

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  • 4. 

    A older customer unknowingly drops a 20 dollar bill out of his pocket and no one else sees him drop it. What would you do in this situation?

    • Immediately walk over and pocket the money.

    • Immediately walk over and give the money back to the customer.

    • Alert your supervisor.

    • Immediately tell another co worker so you can split the money with them.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately walk over and give the money back to the customer.
    Explanation
    In this situation, the most ethical and honest course of action would be to immediately walk over and give the money back to the customer. It is important to prioritize integrity and act in a responsible manner by returning the lost money to its rightful owner. Taking the money for oneself or sharing it with a coworker would be dishonest and unethical. Alerting a supervisor could also be a valid option, but the immediate action of returning the money directly to the customer demonstrates honesty and integrity.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is true about notebook computers?

    • The price of a notebook is about the same as a comparable desktop system.

    • The speed of notebooks is about the same as a desktop.

    • The main advantage of a notebook has over a desktop is portability.

    • It is easier to upgrade.

    Correct Answer
    A. The main advantage of a notebook has over a desktop is portability.
    Explanation
    Notebook computers have a main advantage over desktop systems, which is their portability. Unlike desktops, notebooks are designed to be lightweight and compact, making them easy to carry around. This portability allows users to work or access their files from anywhere, whether it's at home, in a coffee shop, or during travel. While the price and speed of notebooks may be comparable to desktop systems, the key distinguishing factor is their ability to be easily transported and used on the go.

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  • 6. 

    You are called to a customers home because their computers is not functioning properly. You have gone through all the troubleshooting steps and still can not figure out what is wrong with their system. What should you do in this situation?

    • Explain to the customer that their system is damaged beyond repair and suggest they get a new system.

    • Explain to the customer that you know exactly what is wrong with it, but you will need to take the system in for repair at the shop.

    • Explain to the customer that you have went through all the troubleshooting steps and are not sure what they problem is and that you would like to take it into the shop.

    • Explain to the customer that you did not find anything wrong with the system and that they need to learn how to operate it properly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explain to the customer that you have went through all the troubleshooting steps and are not sure what they problem is and that you would like to take it into the shop.
    Explanation
    In this situation, the best course of action is to explain to the customer that you have gone through all the troubleshooting steps and are unable to identify the problem with their system. By suggesting taking it into the shop, you are acknowledging that further expertise and examination may be required to resolve the issue. This shows the customer that you are committed to finding a solution and are willing to take the necessary steps to fix their computer.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following statements best describes safe mode?

    • It provides network access.

    • It boots the OS with minimum configuration.

    • It uses video drivers specific to your video card.

    • The GUI interface does not have to display in safe mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. It boots the OS with minimum configuration.
    Explanation
    Safe mode is a feature in operating systems that allows the system to start with minimal drivers and services. It is primarily used for troubleshooting and diagnosing issues with the operating system. By booting the OS with minimum configuration, safe mode disables unnecessary drivers and services, which can help identify and fix problems. Safe mode does not provide network access, uses generic video drivers, and may or may not display the GUI interface, depending on the specific operating system.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the primary Windows tool that can be used when solving problems with hardware?

    • System properties

    • Windows explorer

    • File attributes

    • Device manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Device manager
    Explanation
    The primary Windows tool that can be used when solving problems with hardware is the device manager. The device manager allows users to view and manage all the hardware devices connected to their computer. It provides information about the hardware devices, their drivers, and allows users to update, disable, or uninstall them if necessary. By using the device manager, users can troubleshoot hardware issues, such as identifying missing or outdated drivers, conflicts between devices, or malfunctioning hardware components.

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  • 9. 

    A cooler is a combination of a cooling fan and which of the following?

    • Riser card

    • Heat sink

    • Resistor

    • Housing

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat sink
    Explanation
    A cooler is a combination of a cooling fan and a heat sink. A cooling fan helps to circulate the air and dissipate heat, while a heat sink is a passive cooling device that absorbs and disperses heat away from the components. Therefore, a heat sink is the correct answer as it is an essential component in a cooler to maintain the temperature of electronic devices.

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  • 10. 

    Where is the CMOS RAM typically located?

    • On a RAM (RTC/NVRAM) chip.

    • On a floppy drive.

    • On a CD.

    • On an external storage.

    Correct Answer
    A. On a RAM (RTC/NVRAM) chip.
    Explanation
    The CMOS RAM is typically located on a RAM (RTC/NVRAM) chip. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor, which is a technology used to manufacture integrated circuits. The CMOS RAM stores the BIOS settings and configuration data for the computer's hardware. It is usually powered by a small battery to retain the data even when the computer is turned off.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the method used by microsoft to prevent unlicensed use of it's software that is based on purchasing a windows xp license for each installation of windows xp?

    • Product activation

    • Boot loader

    • Disk cloning

    • Unattended installation

    Correct Answer
    A. Product activation
    Explanation
    Product activation refers to the method used by Microsoft to prevent unlicensed use of its software. It involves purchasing a Windows XP license for each installation of Windows XP. This process verifies the authenticity of the software and ensures that it is being used legally.

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  • 12. 

    When a pc first connects to the network, it attempts to lease an address from what server?(hint: dealing with dynamically assigned IP addresses)

    • APIPA server

    • DHCP server

    • MIDI server

    • AIPPA server

    Correct Answer
    A. DHCP server
    Explanation
    When a PC first connects to a network, it needs an IP address to communicate with other devices. The DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is responsible for assigning and managing IP addresses dynamically. It leases an IP address to the PC for a specific period of time, allowing it to join the network. The APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) server is not involved in this process, as it assigns a default IP address when a DHCP server is not available. The MIDI server is unrelated to IP address assignment, and the AIPPA server does not exist.

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  • 13. 

    A customer calls your shop and is angry about a product they purchased from there yesterday. How should you handle this situation?

    • Hang up on the customer

    • Tell the customer that there is nothing you can do for them.

    • Listen to the customers complaint and attempt to help them.

    • Immediately get your supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listen to the customers complaint and attempt to help them.
    Explanation
    In a situation where a customer is angry about a product they purchased, it is important to handle the situation professionally and empathetically. Hanging up on the customer or telling them that there is nothing you can do for them would only escalate the situation further and damage the customer relationship. Therefore, the best approach is to listen attentively to the customer's complaint, showing understanding and empathy, and then attempt to find a solution or offer assistance in resolving their issue. In more complex cases, involving a supervisor may be necessary, but the initial step should always be to actively listen and try to help the customer.

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  • 14. 

    A customer comes into your store and asks you about purchasing (as cheap as possible) a 512 MB ram module. The customer is not computer literate and you have a cheaper module that is compatible with their system and you also have the most expensive module that is also compatible. What should you do in this situation?

    • Lie to the customer and explain that they need the more expensive module.

    • Tell the customer the truth and direct them to the least expensive module.

    • Explain to the customer that the more expensive module is better for their system and get more money on the sale.

    • Let another sales person help them.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tell the customer the truth and direct them to the least expensive module.
    Explanation
    You should never lie to a customer and always help them find what they ask for even if it is cheaper than what you can sell it for because you would not be giving the customer what they are asking for.

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  • 15. 

    A server that manages dynamically assigned IP addresses is called what?

    • DHDP

    • DACP

    • DHCP

    • DPCH

    Correct Answer
    A. DHCP
    Explanation
    A server that manages dynamically assigned IP addresses is called DHCP. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is a network management protocol used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration settings to devices on a network. This server dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices as they connect to the network, ensuring efficient and automatic network configuration without manual intervention.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following approaches is a type of identity theft where the sender of an e mail message scams you into responding with personal data about yourself?

    • Scripts

    • Virus hoax

    • Phishing

    • Phreaking

    Correct Answer
    A. Phishing
    Explanation
    Phishing is a type of identity theft where the sender of an email message tricks the recipient into revealing personal information. The scammer often poses as a trustworthy entity, such as a bank or a reputable company, and requests sensitive data like passwords, credit card numbers, or social security numbers. This information is then used for fraudulent purposes, such as unauthorized access to accounts or financial fraud. Phishing attacks are typically carried out through email, but can also occur through other forms of communication like text messages or phone calls.

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  • 17. 

    When a new device is being installed, if windows recognizes the drivers were not digitally signed by microsoft, which of the following decisions do you have to make?

    • Whether or not to physically install the modem.

    • Whether or not to test the device being installed.

    • Whether or not to continue with the installation using unsigned drivers.

    • Whether or not to install from a specific location.

    Correct Answer
    A. Whether or not to continue with the installation using unsigned drivers.
    Explanation
    When a new device is being installed and Windows recognizes that the drivers were not digitally signed by Microsoft, the decision that needs to be made is whether or not to continue with the installation using unsigned drivers. This means that the user has to decide whether they want to proceed with the installation even though the drivers are not verified by Microsoft.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements best describes how to access the setup program stored in ROM BIOS on a newer computers?

    • Use the start menu from desktop.

    • Press a key or combination of keys during the boot process.

    • Download a program from the manufacturer's website.

    • Use a boot disk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Press a key or combination of keys during the boot process.
    Explanation
    To access the setup program stored in ROM BIOS on newer computers, you need to press a key or combination of keys during the boot process. This action triggers the BIOS to enter the setup program, where you can configure various settings for your computer's hardware and software. Using the start menu from the desktop, downloading a program from the manufacturer's website, or using a boot disk are not the correct methods to access the setup program in ROM BIOS.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following features do you use to revert to the old driver if you update a driver and the new driver does not perform as expected?

    • Plug and play feature

    • Device driver wizard

    • Show hidden devices feature

    • Driver rollback feature

    Correct Answer
    A. Driver rollback feature
    Explanation
    The driver rollback feature allows you to revert back to the previous version of a driver if the updated driver does not work as expected. This feature is useful when the new driver causes compatibility issues or introduces bugs that affect the performance or functionality of the device. By using the driver rollback feature, you can easily restore the previous driver and ensure that the device functions properly.

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  • 20. 

    The file extension identifies which of the following?

    • File type

    • Subdirectory to the root directory

    • Folder

    • Root directory

    Correct Answer
    A. File type
    Explanation
    The file extension refers to the letters or characters that come after the dot in a file's name. It helps to identify the type or format of the file. Different file types have different extensions, such as .docx for Microsoft Word documents, .jpg for image files, and .mp3 for audio files. Therefore, the correct answer is "file type".

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the snapshot of the system state that is used during a system restoration?

    • Registry

    • Console

    • Event log

    • Restore point

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore point
    Explanation
    A restore point refers to the snapshot of the system state that is used during a system restoration. It is a saved state of the computer's system files, settings, and installed applications at a specific point in time. Restore points are created automatically by the operating system or can be manually created by the user. They serve as a backup that can be used to revert the system back to a previous state if any issues or errors occur.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following refers to a new windows xp feature that allows a user to connect to and use his or her windows xp computer from anywhere on the internet?

    • Remote assistance

    • Group policy

    • Task scheduler

    • Remote desktop

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote desktop
    Explanation
    Remote desktop is a new Windows XP feature that allows a user to connect to and use his or her Windows XP computer from anywhere on the internet. This feature enables users to access their computer remotely, making it convenient for them to work or access files even when they are not physically present at their computer. With remote desktop, users can control their Windows XP computer as if they were sitting in front of it, providing a seamless and efficient remote working experience.

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  • 23. 

    In device manager, if you see a red X or a yellow exclamation mark next to the NIC device, this could be an indication of what?

    • The NIC is functioning properly.

    • The NIC is connecting to the internet.

    • The NIC may be faulty.

    • The NIC is not the proper card for that CMOS.

    Correct Answer
    A. The NIC may be faulty.
    Explanation
    If there is a red X or a yellow exclamation mark next to the NIC device in the device manager, it indicates that there is a problem with the NIC. This could mean that the NIC may be faulty and not functioning properly.

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  • 24. 

    A IP address that is permanently assigned is called what?

    • A static IP address

    • A dynamic IP address

    • A DHCP IP address

    • IP address

    Correct Answer
    A. A static IP address
    Explanation
    A static IP address is a permanently assigned IP address. Unlike dynamic IP addresses that change periodically, a static IP address remains the same over time. This type of IP address is often used by servers, websites, and devices that require a consistent and easily identifiable address on the internet. It allows for reliable and uninterrupted connectivity, as it does not change even if the device is restarted or disconnected from the network.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following terms refers to a computer or other device that allows a computer on one network to communicate with a computer on another network?

    • Gateway

    • Dynamic address

    • Static address

    • Network drive map

    Correct Answer
    A. Gateway
    Explanation
    A gateway is a computer or device that enables communication between different networks. It acts as an entry or exit point for data packets traveling between networks, allowing a computer on one network to communicate with a computer on another network. It serves as a bridge, translating protocols and addressing schemes to ensure seamless connectivity between networks.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following features allows you to use two modem connections at the same time to speed up data throughput when connected over phone lines?

    • Channel aggregation

    • Power management

    • Windows 9x/me briefcase

    • Support for PC cards

    Correct Answer
    A. Channel aggregation
    Explanation
    Channel aggregation allows you to use two modem connections simultaneously to increase the data throughput when connected over phone lines. This feature combines the bandwidth of both connections, effectively doubling the speed at which data can be transmitted. By using multiple modems, channel aggregation helps optimize internet connectivity and enhance the overall performance of the network connection.

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  • 27. 

    A customer calls that you can not really understand because they do not speak clear english. What would you do in this situation?

    • Hang up on the customer.

    • Explain to the customer you can not understand them and ask them politely not to call back.

    • Explain to them you can not fully understand them and that you are going to transfer them to your supervisor.

    • See if anyone speaks their language from other customers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explain to them you can not fully understand them and that you are going to transfer them to your supervisor.
    Explanation
    You never ask other customers to help a customer over the phone. You should always consult your supervisor and the store policies.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following utilities verifies that there is a connection on a network between two hosts?

    • FTP

    • NSLookup

    • Ping

    • ARP

    Correct Answer
    A. Ping
    Explanation
    Ping is a utility that verifies the connection between two hosts on a network. It sends a small packet of data to the destination host and waits for a response. If a response is received, it confirms that there is a connection between the two hosts. Ping is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and measure the response time between hosts. FTP is a file transfer protocol, NSLookup is used for DNS queries, and ARP is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following refers to a scanner that has a scanning head that moves across the glass, scanning the page?

    • Flat bed

    • Sheet fed

    • Portable

    • Optical character recognition software

    Correct Answer
    A. Flat bed
    Explanation
    A flat bed scanner refers to a scanner that has a scanning head that moves across the glass, scanning the page. This type of scanner is commonly used to scan documents, books, and other flat objects. It provides high-quality scans and is suitable for scanning larger items. Sheet fed scanners, on the other hand, use a mechanism to feed individual sheets of paper through the scanner. Portable scanners are smaller and designed for easy transport. Optical character recognition software is a technology that converts scanned images of text into editable and searchable data.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following best describes the features CAS latency and RAS latency?

    • Both features refer to the size of the memory modules.

    • RAS latency is used more than CAS latency.

    • It takes four or five clock cycles to read or write data.

    • Both features refer to the number of clock cycles it takes to write or read a column or row of data off a memory module.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both features refer to the number of clock cycles it takes to write or read a column or row of data off a memory module.
    Explanation
    CAS latency and RAS latency both refer to the number of clock cycles it takes to write or read a column or row of data off a memory module. This means that both features are related to the timing and speed of accessing data from the memory. The statement that RAS latency is used more than CAS latency is not relevant to describing the features of CAS latency and RAS latency.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statements best describes the refresh rate for CRT monitors?

    • The refresh rate is also called the horizontal scan rate.

    • Refresh rates do not typically differ among monitors.

    • The refresh rate is the number of times in on second an electronic beam can fill the screen with lines.

    • CRT screens draw a screen by making two passes.

    Correct Answer
    A. The refresh rate is the number of times in on second an electronic beam can fill the screen with lines.
    Explanation
    The refresh rate for CRT monitors refers to the number of times in one second that an electronic beam can fill the screen with lines. This means that a higher refresh rate will result in a smoother and more fluid display on the monitor. The statement accurately describes the concept of refresh rate for CRT monitors.

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  • 32. 

    From the statements below, what best describes what PING does?

    • It sends out a signal to a remote computer and if the remote computer is online it responds.

    • It listens for other remote computer traffic online and logs the their responses in the event log.

    • It send out a signal to a remote network and captures internet packets.

    • It listens for open ports on remote computers and reports packet activity going in and out of that computer.

    Correct Answer
    A. It sends out a signal to a remote computer and if the remote computer is online it responds.
    Explanation
    PING is a network utility used to test the connectivity between two computers. It works by sending out a signal (ICMP echo request) to a remote computer. If the remote computer is online and reachable, it will respond with an ICMP echo reply. This allows the user to determine if the remote computer is active and responsive. Therefore, the correct answer is "It sends out a signal to a remote computer and if the remote computer is online it responds."

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is an example of an impact printer?

    • Laser printer

    • Ink jet printer

    • Dot matrix printer

    • Thermal printer

    Correct Answer
    A. Dot matrix printer
    Explanation
    A dot matrix printer is an example of an impact printer because it uses a print head that strikes an ink-soaked ribbon against the paper to create characters. The print head contains a matrix of pins that are selectively fired to create dots, which form the characters on the paper. This impact mechanism distinguishes it from other types of printers like laser printers, inkjet printers, and thermal printers, which do not involve any physical contact between the printing mechanism and the paper.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following concepts is used to open or close certain ports so they can or cannot be used?

    • Using internet connection sharing (ICS)

    • Using port filtering

    • Using a router

    • Using port close

    Correct Answer
    A. Using port filtering
    Explanation
    Port filtering is a concept that is used to open or close certain ports so they can or cannot be used. It allows the network administrator to control the flow of network traffic by specifying which ports are allowed or blocked. By using port filtering, specific ports can be opened to allow communication for certain applications or services, while other ports can be closed to prevent unauthorized access or malicious activity. This helps in enhancing network security and managing network resources effectively.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following utilities provides an application with the environment that it expects from the operating system for which it was designed?

    • Compatibility mode

    • Dependency walker

    • Error reporting service

    • Microsoft management console

    Correct Answer
    A. Compatibility mode
    Explanation
    Compatibility mode is the correct answer because it allows an application to run in an environment that mimics the operating system for which it was originally designed. This mode helps to resolve compatibility issues that may arise when running older applications on newer operating systems. By enabling compatibility mode, the application can access the necessary resources and functions it expects from the operating system, ensuring proper functionality and compatibility.

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  • 36. 

    The windows operating system uses which of the following to keep hardware and software configuration information, user preferences, and application settings that are used when the Os is first being loaded?

    • Kernel

    • Registry

    • Shell

    • Hard drive

    Correct Answer
    A. Registry
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "registry". The registry is a centralized database in the Windows operating system that stores hardware and software configuration information, user preferences, and application settings. It is used during the boot process to load the necessary information and settings for the operating system. The registry is essential for the proper functioning of the Windows operating system and is accessed and modified by various system components and applications.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following protocols guarantees packet delivery?

    • TCP

    • UPS

    • IP

    • UDP

    Correct Answer
    A. TCP
    Explanation
    TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) guarantees packet delivery by using a reliable and connection-oriented approach. It ensures that all packets are successfully delivered to the destination by implementing mechanisms like acknowledgments, retransmissions, and flow control. TCP establishes a reliable and error-free communication channel between the sender and receiver, making it suitable for applications that require guaranteed delivery of data, such as web browsing, file transfer, and email. On the other hand, UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not guarantee packet delivery as it is connectionless and does not have mechanisms for error recovery or flow control.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements best describes a graphics accelerator and it's purpose?

    • One problem that high end graphics cards is overheating.

    • Some features included on a graphics accelerator are MPEG decoding , 3 D graphics and dual porting.

    • The graphics accelerator does not have a processor to manage video and graphics.

    • It is a type of video card that has it's own processor to boost performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a type of video card that has it's own processor to boost performance.
    Explanation
    A graphics accelerator is a type of video card that has its own processor to boost performance. It is designed to handle complex graphics computations and relieve the burden on the main CPU. By having its own dedicated processor, a graphics accelerator can enhance the rendering of 3D graphics, decode MPEG videos, and provide dual porting capabilities. This helps to improve the overall performance and efficiency of the graphics card, especially for high-end applications and gaming where intensive graphics processing is required.

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  • 39. 

    A customer wishes to make a complaint about another repair tech that works in your shop. What would be the appropriate solution to this situation?

    • Listen to the customer and take notes.

    • Tell the customer that they should come back when it is not so busy.

    • Direct the customer to the supervisor.

    • Tell the customer you will be right back and go tell the person that the complaint is against them and they should deal with the situation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct the customer to the supervisor.
    Explanation
    Directing the customer to the supervisor is the appropriate solution in this situation because the supervisor is responsible for handling complaints and resolving any issues within the shop. By involving the supervisor, the customer's complaint can be addressed in a professional and proper manner, ensuring that the situation is handled effectively.

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  • 40. 

    A twisted pair cable that uses an RJ-45 connector has how many wires?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 8

    • 16

    Correct Answer
    A. 8
    Explanation
    A twisted pair cable that uses an RJ-45 connector has 8 wires. The RJ-45 connector is commonly used in Ethernet networks, and it requires 8 wires to support the transmission of data. Each wire is responsible for carrying a different signal, such as data, power, or ground. The twisted pair cable is designed to reduce interference and crosstalk between the wires, ensuring reliable and high-speed data transmission. Therefore, an RJ-45 connector with 8 wires is the correct choice for this type of cable.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements best describes DDR?

    • DDR doubles the data rate of memory by processing data when the beat of the clock rises and again when it falls.

    • DDR runs more slowly than regular SDRAM.

    • DDR uses 168 pins.

    • DDR improves on DDR2.

    Correct Answer
    A. DDR doubles the data rate of memory by processing data when the beat of the clock rises and again when it falls.
    Explanation
    DDR stands for Double Data Rate, which means it doubles the data rate of memory by processing data when the beat of the clock rises and again when it falls. This allows for faster data transfer and improved performance compared to regular SDRAM. The statement correctly describes the main feature and advantage of DDR memory technology.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is true about RAM?

    • RAM stands for read only memory.

    • RAM is non-volatile.

    • RAM can be installed in banks of several chips on a small board that plugs into the motherboard.

    • RAM refers to software that can be purchased and loaded onto a computer.

    Correct Answer
    A. RAM can be installed in banks of several chips on a small board that plugs into the motherboard.
    Explanation
    RAM can indeed be installed in banks of several chips on a small board that plugs into the motherboard. This is a common method of installing RAM in a computer system. RAM stands for Random Access Memory, not read only memory. RAM is volatile, meaning it loses its data when the power is turned off. RAM does not refer to software that can be purchased and loaded onto a computer; it is a physical hardware component.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following statements best describes a standard parallel port?

    • A standard parallel port allows data to flow in two directions.

    • A standard parallel port is the slowest of the three types of parallel ports.

    • A parallel port is faster and easier to configure than USB ports.

    • Setup can have up to four different settings for parallel port modes.

    Correct Answer
    A. A standard parallel port allows data to flow in two directions.
    Explanation
    A standard parallel port allows data to flow in two directions. This means that it can both send and receive data simultaneously, which is a characteristic of a bidirectional communication. Unlike a serial port, which can only send or receive data at a time, a parallel port can handle multiple data bits simultaneously, making it suitable for transferring large amounts of data quickly. This feature makes it useful for connecting devices such as printers, scanners, and external storage devices to a computer.

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  • 44. 

    When replacing a damaged motherboard with a good one, you should first test the?

    • Bios

    • Cmos settings

    • Power supply

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Power supply
    Explanation
    When replacing a damaged motherboard with a good one, it is important to first test the power supply. This is because a faulty power supply can cause damage to the motherboard or other components. By testing the power supply, you can ensure that it is functioning properly and providing the correct amount of power to the motherboard. Testing the BIOS or CMOS settings would not be necessary in this situation, as they are specific to the motherboard and not likely to be affected by the replacement. Therefore, the correct answer is power supply.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following best describes a PGA socket?

    • The pins are staggered over the socket.

    • The socket uses lands.

    • It's a cartridge for a processor that lays flat.

    • The pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket.

    Correct Answer
    A. The pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket.
    Explanation
    A PGA socket refers to a Pin Grid Array socket, in which the pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket. This arrangement allows for easy insertion and secure connection of the processor. The other options mentioned, such as staggered pins, lands, and a cartridge that lays flat, do not accurately describe a PGA socket.

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  • 46. 

    To limit how much disk space a user account can access, an administrator can set which of the following?

    • User profiles

    • Group profiles

    • User access levels

    • Disk quotas

    Correct Answer
    A. Disk quotas
    Explanation
    An administrator can set disk quotas to limit how much disk space a user account can access. Disk quotas allow administrators to allocate a specific amount of disk space to each user, preventing them from exceeding the allocated limit. This helps in managing disk space usage and ensuring fair distribution of resources among users. By implementing disk quotas, administrators can prevent individual users from monopolizing the available disk space and ensure efficient utilization of storage resources.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following best describes how you get a wireless keyboard to work?

    • Clean the keyboard before the first use.

    • Use a regular keyboard to install the software to use the wireless keyboard.

    • Turn any radios in the room off while you are installing the driver for the wireless board.

    • Install the driver for the mouse before you install the driver for the keyboard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a regular keyboard to install the software to use the wireless keyboard.
    Explanation
    To get a wireless keyboard to work, you need to use a regular keyboard to install the software required to operate the wireless keyboard. This is because the wireless keyboard relies on software drivers to communicate with the computer. By using a regular keyboard, you can navigate through the installation process and install the necessary software for the wireless keyboard to function properly.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following statements best describes an extended partition?

    • Having only one logical drive such as C.

    • Having only one logical drive with a special sector assigned for the extension.

    • Having more than one logical drive such as D and E.

    • There is not such thing as an extended partition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Having more than one logical drive such as D and E.
    Explanation
    An extended partition refers to a type of partition on a hard drive that can be divided into multiple logical drives. Unlike a primary partition, which can only contain one logical drive, an extended partition allows for the creation of multiple logical drives, such as D and E. This allows for better organization and allocation of storage space on the hard drive.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following best describes an upset failure caused by ESD?

    • Upset failures are easy to detect.

    • The failure destroys the component beyond use.

    • The damage component may continue to function, but it deos not perform well.

    • An upset failure prevents the computer from booting.

    Correct Answer
    A. The damage component may continue to function, but it deos not perform well.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the damage component may continue to function, but it does not perform well." This describes an upset failure caused by ESD because ESD can cause damage to the component without completely destroying it. The component may still be able to function, but its performance will be compromised.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 26, 2007
    Quiz Created by
    Bobby1234
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