Natural Science CLEP Test: Quiz!

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  • 1/62 Questions

    Which of the following pairs is most useful in determining a rock's origin?

    • Color and shape
    • Size and weight
    • Density and hardness
    • Composition and texture
    • Size and hardness
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About This Quiz

Prepare for the Natural Science CLEP Test with this focused quiz! Assess your understanding of atomic structures, states of matter, particle physics, and nuclear reactions. Essential for students aiming to excel in natural sciences and physics fundamentals.

Natural Science CLEP Test: Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Warm air tends to rise through cooler air because

    • It weighs less

    • It is less dense.

    • Heat transfer decreases.

    • A convection cell is set up.

    • Heat transfer increases.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is less dense.
    Explanation
    When air is heated, like most things, it expands. Having more volume, with the same mass, makes it less dense, or choice B.

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  • 3. 

    The following reaction occurs when iron is pickled. Choose the answer that correctly shows the balanced equation. HCl + Fe2O3 → FeCl3 + H2O

    • 2HCl + Fe₂O₃ → 2FeCl₃ + H₂O

    • HCl + 2Fe₂O₃ → 4FeCl₃ + 3H₂O

    • 3HCl + 2Fe₂O₃ → 3FeCl₃ + 2H₂O

    • 6HCl + Fe₂O₃ → 2FeCl₃ + 3H₂O

    Correct Answer
    A. 6HCl + Fe₂O₃ → 2FeCl₃ + 3H₂O
    Explanation
    Use the subscripts of the compounds on one side of the equation to suggest coefficients for compounds on the other side. The subscript 3 in FeCl3 suggests that a coefficient of 3 should be tried before the reactant that also contains chloride, yielding: (1) 3HCl + Fe2O3 → FeCl3 + H2O

    In the same manner, the subscript 2 in Fe2O3suggests putting a coefficient of 2 in front of FeCl3, or:

    (2) 3HCl + Fe2O3 → 2FeCl3+ H2O

    Finally, the presence of 6 chloride ions in 2FeCl3indicates 6 chloride ions are needed in the reactant, as in: 6HCl.

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  • 4. 

    The following reaction occurs when iron is pickled. Choose the answer that correctly shows the balanced equation. HCl + Fe2O3 → FeCl3 + H2O

    • 2HCl + Fe₂O₃ → 2FeCl₃ + H₂O

    • HCl + 2Fe₂O₃ → 4FeCl₃ + 3H₂O

    • 3HCl + 2Fe₂O₃ → 3FeCl₃ + 2H₂O

    • 6HCl + Fe₂O₃ → 2FeCl₃ + 3H₂O

    Correct Answer
    A. 6HCl + Fe₂O₃ → 2FeCl₃ + 3H₂O
    Explanation
    Use the subscripts of the compounds on one side of the equation to suggest coefficients for compounds on the other side. The subscript 3 in FeCl₃ suggests that a coefficient of 3 should be tried before the reactant that also contains chloride, yielding: (1) 3HCl + Fe₂O₃ → FeCl₃ + H₂O

    In the same manner, the subscript 2 in Fe₂O₃ suggests putting a coefficient of 2 in front of FeCl₃, or:

    (2) 3HCl + Fe₂O₃ → 2FeCl₃+ H₂O

    Finally, the presence of 6 chloride ions in 2FeCl3indicates 6 chloride ions are needed in the reactant, as in: 6HCl.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is evidence that the earth's crust has undergone great changes during history?

    • The constant pounding of ocean waves on the coastlines

    • The occurrence of a large number of earthquakes each year

    • The continued flow of vast amounts of river water into the sea

    • The presence of marine fossils in rock making up high mountains

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. The presence of marine fossils in rock making up high mountains
    Explanation
    There is nothing to explain marine fossils in mountainous regions other than the fact that (1) those regions were once at lower elevations and the crust has undergone great changes; or (2) the mountains were once covered by great seas and the crust has undergone great changes.

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  • 6. 

    What gas is most effective in reducing heat loss from the earth by absorbing re-radiated heat energy?

    • Argon

    • Oxygen

    • Nitrogen

    • Carbon dioxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon dioxide
    Explanation
    When solar energy bounces off the earth, it loses some of its strength. The high-energy, short-wavelength, solar rays turn into low-energy, long-wavelength radiation. The nature of carbon dioxide is that it will readily absorb the energy from these long waves.

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  • 7. 

    How would plants be affected if the rainfall during a month were inadequate for evapotranspiration?

    • They would die.

    • They would make dew.

    • They would draw on soil moisture.

    • They would retain the moisture already in the plant.

    • They would give off increased CO2.

    Correct Answer
    A. They would draw on soil moisture.
    Explanation
    In the absence of adequate rainfall, plants will have to draw on soil moisture. They would not die immediately, nor would they make dew, nor retain moisture.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following mineral characteristics is NOT determined by the way the atoms are arranged?

    • Shape

    • Color

    • Hardness

    • The way it breaks

    • Crystalline matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Color
    Explanation
    The only characteristic of a rock that has nothing to do with the way the atoms are arranged is color. Color involves the electrons and their energy levels, not the arrangements of entire atoms.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following elements is NOT a gas at room temperature (20°C)?

    • Oxygen

    • Bromine

    • Argon

    • Nitrogen

    • Krypton

    Correct Answer
    A. Bromine
    Explanation
    Bromine is a liquid at room temperature. Oxygen and nitrogen exist as molecules of diatomic gases. Argon and krypton are monatomic gases at 20°C.

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  • 10. 

    Given that the oxidation state of oxygen is –2 (–II), and of hydrogen +1 (+I), what is the oxidation number (state) of sulfur in sulfuric acid, H2SO4?

    • -6

    • -2

    • +2

    • +4

    • +6

    Correct Answer
    A. +6
    Explanation
    The oxidation number (state) of sulfur is +6 (+VI). This is calculated as:
    oxidation number for H is +1 × 2 hydrogen atoms = +2

    oxidation number for O is –2 × 4 oxygen atoms = –8

    The oxidation number for H and O together is = –6.

    Therefore, sulfur must have an oxidation number of +6 if the algebraic sum of all the oxidation states is to equal zero.

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  • 11. 

    Given that the oxidation state of oxygen is –2 (–II), and of hydrogen +1 (+I), what is the oxidation number (state) of sulfur in sulfuric acid, H2SO4?

    • –6

    • –2

    • +2

    • +4

    • +6

    Correct Answer
    A. +6
    Explanation
    The oxidation number (state) of sulfur is +6 (+VI). This is calculated as:
    oxidation number for H is +1 × 2 hydrogen atoms = +2

    oxidation number for O is –2 × 4 oxygen atoms = –8

    The oxidation number for H and O together is = –6.

    Therefore, sulfur must have an oxidation number of +6 if the algebraic sum of all the oxidation states is to equal zero.

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  • 12. 

    A compound is determined to have the empirical formula CH2O and a molecular weight of 180. What is the correct molecular formula for this compound? (Oxygen has an atomic weight of 16, carbon is 12, and hydrogen is 1.

    • CH₂O

    • 6CH₂O

    • C₆H₆O₆

    • C₆H₂O

    • C₆H₁₂O₆

    Correct Answer
    A. C₆H₁₂O₆
    Explanation
    The molecular weight (mw) for CH₂O is 30, while the molecular weight for the actual compound is 180. To determine the correct molecule formula, try increasing the number of atoms in each molecule while retaining the same ratio of atoms, and check the resulting molecular weights. That is, multiply by two to give C₂H₄O₂ (mw of 60), by three to give C₃H6O₃ (mw of 90), and so on, until the correct molecular weight (and therefore the correct molecular formula) is reached.

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  • 13. 

    A mass experiencing a constant acceleration Vertical axis: distance Horizontal axis: time Select the graph below that best illustrates this.

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    Distance traveled is proportional to the square of the time.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is an example of a one-way change?

    • The hydrologic cycle

    • The movement of nitrogen through the biosphere

    • The history of a piece of rock

    • The movement of water by the atmosphere

    • The evolution of animal life

    Correct Answer
    A. The evolution of animal life
    Explanation
    The evolution of animal life, choice E., is the only choice that is an example of a one-way change. There is no theory or evidence of a reversal or a cycle to evolution. All the other examples run in cycles.

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  • 15. 

    A small child, traveling in a car, throws a toy horizontally out the window at 0.5m/s from a height of 1.22m. At the same instant, she drops her bottle from the same height. Which of the following is true if friction is neglected?

    • The bottle hits the ground 0.5 seconds before the toy.

    • The bottle hits the ground 0.25 seconds before the toy.

    • The bottle and the toy hit the ground at the same time.

    • The bottle hits the ground 0.25 seconds after she drops it.

    • The velocity of the car is required to answer this question.

    Correct Answer
    A. The bottle and the toy hit the ground at the same time.
    Explanation
    Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both objects take the same amount of time to fall.

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  • 16. 

    In the Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram below, what number might represent the sun at its current state of evolution?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 1

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The sun is on the main sequence and is a G-type star.

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  • 17. 

    Isotopes of an element have the same number of _______ but different numbers of _______.

    • Electrons, protons

    • Protons, neutrons

    • Neutrons, protons

    • Electrons, neutrons

    • Protons, electrons

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons, neutrons
    Explanation
    While it might appear that choice D. is also correct it would be so only for atoms, but not ions, of an element.

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  • 18. 

    According to the special theory of relativity, observers in all inertial frames agree on the measurement of

    • Rest mass.

    • Electric charge.

    • Energy

    • A and B

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A and B
    Explanation
    Rest mass and charge are invariants, i.e., the same in all inertial frames.

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  • 19. 

    A rocket is traveling near the speed of light with respect to an observer. Compared to this observer's clocks, a clock on the rocket appears to run

    • More slowly.

    • At the same rate

    • More quickly.

    • More slowly or quickly, depending on the direction of the rocket.

    • More slowly or quickly, depending on the kind of clock.

    Correct Answer
    A. More slowly.
    Explanation
    According to special relativity, moving clocks experience time dilation, which means that they appear slow to stationary observers. The direction of motion is irrelevant, as is the type or construction of the clock.

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  • 20. 

    Which chemical name is correctly paired with its proper formula?

    • Lithium hydride: LiOH

    • Zinc sulfide: ZnSO₄

    • Ammonium hydroxide: NH₄Cl

    • Iron (III) chloride: FeCl₃

    • Sulfur hexafluoride: SF₅

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron (III) chloride: FeCl₃
    Explanation
    LiOH is a hydroxide, and ZnSO4 is zinc sulfate, while ammonium hydroxide cannot be NH4Cl (but ammonium hydroxide can be, and is). Sulfur hexafluoride is SF6 and not SF5 (sulfur pentafluoride). Since each chloride has a -1 charge, assigning a +3 value to iron—iron (III) ion—is correct.

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  • 21. 

    Water moves slowly through a clay stratum because

    • Capillarity is not operating.

    • The pores are not interconnected.

    • The total pore space is very small.

    • The pore spaces are very small in size.

    • The pore-space ratio is a constant.

    Correct Answer
    A. The pore spaces are very small in size.
    Explanation
    The nature of clay is such that it is made up of very small particles. Therefore, the spaces between the particles would be very small as well and, of the choices offered, choice D. would be the only reasonable answer.

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  • 22. 

    All things being equal, the deBroglie wavelength is greater for a particle of

    • Higher speed

    • Lower speed

    • Greater charge

    • Lower charge

    • Greater spin

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher speed
    Explanation
    The deBroglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the particles speed

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  • 23. 

    The correct formula for calcium chloride is:

    • CaCL₂

    • CACl

    • CaCl

    • CaCl₂

    • Ca₂Cl

    Correct Answer
    A. CaCl₂
    Explanation
    Calcium's symbol is Ca, and chlorine's symbol is Cl. Calcium is an alkaline earth metal (2, 2A, or IIA), which means it forms a +2 ion. Chlorine is a halogen (17, 7B, or VIIA) and forms a -1 ion. The compound would be ionic (formed from elements on opposite sides of the periodic table): Ca+2Cl-1. Writing the superscript of one ion as the subscript of the other gives the correct formula: l2, or more properly, CaCl2. Choice A. implies three elements: calcium, carbon, and an unknown element known as L.

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  • 24. 

    Radioactive decay of a nucleus Vertical axis: number of nuclei remaining Horizontal axis: time Select the graph below that best illustrates this.

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Radioactive decay is an exponential decrease in the number of nuclei. Graphs C. and E. do not quite follow exponential decay.

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  • 25. 

    It is often said that matter consists mostly of empty space. This statement is

    • True for gases, but not liquids or solids.

    • True for light materials, but not dense ones.

    • True because atomic nuclei and electrons have a small volume compared to that of an atom.

    • True because all matter consists of clumps of atoms with gaps.

    • False because matter fills all the space it occupies.

    Correct Answer
    A. True because atomic nuclei and electrons have a small volume compared to that of an atom.
    Explanation
    Electrons are point-like particles and the nucleus has a radius much smaller than an atom.

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  • 26. 

    What is the average density of the earth?

    • 1 gm/cm³

    • 2.7 gm/cm³

    • 5.5 gm/cm³

    • 10 gm/cm³

    • 55 gm/cm³

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.5 gm/cm³
    Explanation
    The average density of the earth is close to the most abundant element, which is iron. The density of iron is closest to choice C.

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  • 27. 

    When a charged particle moves in a constant magnetic field its

    • Speed increases.

    • Speed remains the same.

    • Speed decreases

    • B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Speed remains the same.
    Explanation
    The magnetic force acts perpendicular to the velocity, so it does no work on the particle. Consequently, the speed remains constant.

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  • 28. 

    If a planet is in orbit 4 AU from the sun, how long will it take to orbit the sun?

    • Four years

    • Eight years

    • Sixteen years

    • Sixty-four years

    • There is not enough information to determine the answer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eight years
    Explanation
    You can find this by using Kepler's third law, which states that the square of the period of revolution in years is proportional to the cube of the average distance between the sun and planet in Astronomical Units.

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  • 29. 

    In the Milky Way galaxy, star formation occurs in

    • The disk.

    • Globular clusters.

    • The core of the galaxy.

    • All the parts of the galaxy listed above.

    • There is no new star formation in this galaxy.

    Correct Answer
    A. The disk.
    Explanation
    Star formation occurs only in regions of the galaxy where there is interstellar gas and dust. In the Milky Way, all star formation occurs on the disk.

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  • 30. 

    Static magnetic fields are caused by

    • Static electric charges.

    • Electric charges in motion.

    • Static magnetic charges.

    • Magnetic charges in motion.

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Electric charges in motion.
    Explanation
    Magnetostatic fields are caused by constant electrical currents: electric charges in motion. There are no magnetic charges, so choices C. and D. are incorrect. Static electric charges produce only electrostatic fields, so choice A. is incorrect.

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  • 31. 

    What materials are trapped in the Van Allen belts of the earth's magnetic field?

    • Atomic particles

    • Volcanic dust

    • Small meteoroids

    • Small asteroids

    • Molecular compounds

    Correct Answer
    A. Atomic particles
    Explanation
    Since the Van Allen radiation belts are magnetic in nature, the only particles they would trap would have to be very small and charged. Atomic particles are the only one of the choices that would be small enough and have the possibility of being charged.

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  • 32. 

    Which of following statements about water is INCORRECT?

    • Water is a polar molecule.

    • The polar covalent bonds in the water molecule result from the greater electronegativity of the oxygen atom when compared with hydrogen atoms.

    • The polar nature of the bonds within a water molecule causes water molecules to form hydrogen bonds.

    • Hydrogen bonding between water molecules accounts for many of its unusual properties, such as a high boiling point and excellent solvent properties.

    • Hydrogen bonding causes water to increase in density down to the point of freezing (0˚C).

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrogen bonding causes water to increase in density down to the point of freezing (0˚C).
    Explanation
    Water has a maximum density at 40˚C. Below that temperature in the liquid phase and as ice, water molecules are spaced farther apart than in water above 40˚ C. This makes ice—solid water—less dense than liquid water, and as a result, ice floats rather than sinks in water.

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  • 33. 

    Heavy nuclei release energy during fission because

    • the electrons get closer toge

    • The electrons get farther apart.

    • The binding energy per nucleon is greater for medium-mass nuclei.

    • Some of the neutrons turn into electrons.

    • some of the neutrons turn into gamma rays.

    Correct Answer
    A. The binding energy per nucleon is greater for medium-mass nuclei.
    Explanation
    Energy released during fission comes from the change of nuclear binding energy. The electrons do not play a role in the reaction, so choices A. and B. are wrong. Neutrons are not transformed to electrons or gamma rays, which eliminates choices D. and E.

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  • 34. 

    When a nucleus undergoes alpha decay

    • The atomic mass changes

    • The atomic number changes.

    • The atomic number remains the same.

    • A and B

    • A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A and B
    Explanation
    Alpha decay is the emission of a helium-4 nucleus, which consists of two protons and two neutrons. The atomic number changes because two protons are emitted; the mass number changes because four nucleons are emitted.

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  • 35. 

    Compared with Population II stars, Population I stars

    • Are younger.

    • Are older.

    • Have fewer heavy elements.

    • Are more numerous in the core of the galaxy.

    • Are more numerous in globular clusters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are younger.
    Explanation
    Population I stars, like the sun, are relatively young and have a greater abundance of heavy elements than Population II stars have.

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  • 36. 

    The partial charges are correctly shown below, EXCEPT for:ABCDE

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the incorrect representation of partial charges among the options A, B, C, D, and E. Since the question does not provide any further information or context about what these options represent, it is impossible to generate a specific explanation for the correct answer without additional details.

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  • 37. 

    Light and sound share which of the following qualities?

    • Both are transverse waves.

    • Both require a medium in which to propagate.

    • Their speed of propagation depends on temperature.

    • Both exhibit diffraction and interference.

    • Both are electromagnetic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both exhibit diffraction and interference.
    Explanation
    Light and sound are both waves, so they both exhibit diffraction and interference. Only light is transverse and electromagnetic; only sound requires a medium for propagation.

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  • 38. 

    Elements of the alkali metal family tend to

    • Lose a single electron in forming a covalent bond.

    • Gain a single electron informing a covalent bond.

    • Lose a single electron in forming an ionic bond.

    • Share a single electron in forming an ionic bond.

    • Share two electrons in forming a covalent bond.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lose a single electron in forming an ionic bond.
    Explanation
    Group 1 (1A or IA) elements tend to donate one electron in forming ionic bonds.

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  • 39. 

    The electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6can stand for which of the following?

    • 18Ar

    • 17Cl–

    • 19K+

    • A and B

    • A, B, and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A, B, and C
    Explanation
    The electronic configuration is for an atom or ion with 18 electrons. Eighteen electrons may be found in an atom of argon (which has 18 protons, as shown by 18Ar), in chlorine in the form of a chloride ion (with another electron in the 17Cl– ion form than as a 17Cl atom), or as a potassium cation that has one less electron than the potassium atom.

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  • 40. 

    A solid is slowly heated past its melting point Vertical axis: temperature Horizontal axis: time Select the graph below that best illustrates this.

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    The temperature increases until the melting point is reached. It remains constant until the solid melts, then continues to increase.

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  • 41. 

    Static magnetic fields exert forces on

    • Static-electric charges

    • Electric charges in motion.

    • Static-magnetic charges.

    • Magnetic charges in motion.

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Electric charges in motion.
    Explanation
    Magnetic fields act only on moving electric charges. Choices A. and C. refer to static phenomena, which magnetic fields do not affect. Magnetic charges do not exist.

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  • 42. 

    An airplane is traveling horizontally at a constant velocity of 100m/s at a height of 122m. The pilot wants to drop a package into a net on the ground. When should he release it? (Note: neglect friction.)

    • Just as the airplane passes over the net

    • 500m before the net

    • 250m before the net

    • 100m before the net

    • There is not enough information to determine the time.

    Correct Answer
    A. 500m before the net
    Explanation
    The vertical and horizontal motions are independent. First, use height = (1/2)gt2 to find the time required for the package to fall to the ground: t = 5s. Then, multiply by the speed of the airplane to find the horizontal distance the package will travel before hitting the ground: 100 ∙ 5 = 500m.

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  • 43. 

    A star of spectral type K might have a surface temperature of

    • 9,900 K.

    • 8,700 K

    • 6,000 K.

    • 4,100 K.

    • 2,900 K.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4,100 K.
    Explanation
    If you haven't memorized the temperature ranges of the different spectral types, use deductive reasoning. The sun is a G-type star, which is hotter than a K-type star. You should know that the surface temperature of the sun is approximately 5,700 K. This automatically eliminates choices A., B., and C. You should also know that very cool M-class stars have surface temperatures of about 3,000 K, which eliminates E.

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  • 44. 

    In 1996, the outermost planet in the solar system was

    • Pluto

    • Uranus

    • Jupiter

    • Neptune

    • Saturn

    Correct Answer
    A. Neptune
    Explanation
    Pluto's orbit is quite eccentric, and at its perihelion (closest approach to the sun) Pluto is simply closer than Neptune to the sun. For ten years before perihelion and ten years after, Pluto's orbit moves inside Neptune's to make it the eighth planet from the sun. Pluto's period of revolution is 248 years, so it is actually the farthest planet from the sun for more than 90 percent of its orbit. Pluto's last perihelion occurred in 1989; this means that it became the eighth planet from the sun in 1979, and it retained this title until 1999.

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  • 45. 

    A book rests on a level table. The force holding it up is

    • The strong nuclear force.

    • The weak nuclear force.

    • Electromagnetic

    • Gravitation

    • Friction

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromagnetic
    Explanation
    Electrostatic repulsion of electrons between the atoms of the book and the atoms of the table prevent the book from penetrating the table. Nuclear forces do not play a role. Gravitation pulls the book down, toward the table. Friction, while it is an electromagnetic force, is not required hold up the book.

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  • 46. 

    For a mass in uniform circular motion, the following remains constant:

    • Velocity

    • Force

    • Acceleration

    • Kinetic energy

    • Momentum

    Correct Answer
    A. Kinetic energy
    Explanation
    The speed is constant in uniform circular motion, so the kinetic energy remains constant. Velocity, force, acceleration, and momentum are all vectors. While their magnitudes remain constant, their directions do not.

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  • 47. 

    A rocket is traveling along the x-axis past an observer at high speed. Two simultaneous events in the rocket are

    • Always simultaneous to the observer.

    • Never simultaneous to the observer.

    • Simultaneous to the observer if they both lie on the x-axis.

    • Simultaneous to the observer if they both occur at the same x-coordinate.

    • Simultaneous to the observer only if they are located in the same place.

    Correct Answer
    A. Simultaneous to the observer if they both occur at the same x-coordinate.
    Explanation
    In general, events that are simultaneous in one reference frame are not in another. However, if the events are only separated from each other in a direction perpendicular to the relative motion, they are simultaneous in both frames. Choice C. is incorrect because the x-axis is the direction of motion. Choice E. is incorrect because the two events need not be co-located to be simultaneous in two frames.

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  • 48. 

    The spectroscopic (electron) configuration of an atom is [He]2s22p4. Which element is this?

    • ₂He

    • ₄Be

    • ₅B

    • ₇N

    • ₈O

    Correct Answer
    A. ₈O
    Explanation
    If the answer is not known offhand, it may be deduced if all the information present is used. First, an atom is specified in the question, meaning it is uncharged; therefore, the number of electrons will equal the number of protons. Second, the superscripts in 2s²2p⁴ show six electrons. Looking at the answers, helium (He) is listed as having two protons, and thus must have two electrons. Adding six electrons (for 2s²2p⁴) and two electrons (for helium) gives a total of eight electrons for the unknown atom. This means it must have eight protons if it is not an ion. A glance at the answers shows oxygen has eight protons and fits the bill.

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  • 49. 

    A particle and its antiparticle have

    • The same masses

    • Opposite momenta.

    • Opposite charges.

    • A and C

    • B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A and C
    Explanation
    Particles and antiparticles have opposite charges and the same mass. The momenta for both will be the same since the masses are the same.

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