RMA And CMA Practice Quiz

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RMA And CMA Practice Quiz - Quiz

Management is something that is universal and can be found in different sectors of the economy. There are some characteristics that are common with managers and they are taught in the CMA and RMA courses. The test below is a medical assisting profession quiz. ​Play this quiz and test your knowledge on RMA and CMA. All the best and be on the lookout for more.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The following should be added to a well writen resume?

    • A.

      Career Objectives

    • B.

      Educational background

    • C.

      References

    • D.

      Relevant work experience

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above should be added to a well-written resume. Including career objectives helps employers understand the candidate's goals and aspirations. Educational background provides information about the candidate's qualifications and academic achievements. Including references allows employers to verify the candidate's credentials and learn more about their past performance. Relevant work experience showcases the candidate's skills and abilities in previous roles.

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  • 2. 

    When interviewing with a prospective employer, it is  important to 

    • A.

      Maintain proper eye contact

    • B.

      Show enthusiasm

    • C.

      Not be afraid to criticize previous employers

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    Maintaining proper eye contact and showing enthusiasm are both important when interviewing with a prospective employer. Maintaining eye contact demonstrates confidence and interest in the conversation, while showing enthusiasm indicates genuine excitement and motivation for the position. These qualities can leave a positive impression on the employer and increase the chances of being considered for the job. Criticizing previous employers, on the other hand, can be seen as unprofessional and may reflect negatively on the candidate. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B.

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  • 3. 

    A person shall be employed for a minimum of _________ years to qualify for RMA certification if he or she has not completed the academic requirements: 

    • A.

      Three

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Six

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    To qualify for RMA certification without completing the academic requirements, a person must be employed for a minimum of three years.

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  • 4. 

    Duties performed by a medical administrative specialist may include: 

    • A.

      Scheduling appointments

    • B.

      Medical transcription

    • C.

      Performing personal errands for the physician

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A and B because scheduling appointments and medical transcription are both duties commonly performed by a medical administrative specialist. Performing personal errands for the physician is not typically a duty of a medical administrative specialist.

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  • 5. 

     _________ is/ are good sources for job opportunities: 

    • A.

      School placement services

    • B.

      Classified ads

    • C.

      The Internet

    • D.

      Employment agencies

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options mentioned (school placement services, classified ads, the internet, and employment agencies) are considered good sources for job opportunities. School placement services often have connections with local businesses and can help students find job placements. Classified ads in newspapers or online platforms often list job openings. The internet provides access to various job search websites and online job boards. Employment agencies specialize in matching job seekers with suitable positions. Therefore, all of these options can provide job opportunities.

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  • 6. 

    The RMA credential is awarded by which certifying body? 

    • A.

      AAMA

    • B.

      AMT

    • C.

      CCMA

    • D.

      NAC

    Correct Answer
    B. AMT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AMT. The RMA credential is awarded by the American Medical Technologists (AMT) certifying body.

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  • 7. 

    Tha CMA is awarded by which certifying body?

    • A.

      NAC

    • B.

      AAMA

    • C.

      AMT

    • D.

      CCMA

    Correct Answer
    B. AAMA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AAMA. The AAMA (American Association of Medical Assistants) is the certifying body that awards the CMA (Certified Medical Assistant) certification. This certification is widely recognized in the medical field and demonstrates that an individual has met the necessary education and competency requirements to practice as a medical assistant.

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  • 8. 

    For individuals who passed the certifying exam in January 2006 or later, in order to maintain the RMA credential, it is necessary to earn _________ CEUs over a three- year period after certification. 

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    For individuals who passed the certifying exam in January 2006 or later, in order to maintain the RMA credential, it is necessary to earn 30 CEUs over a three-year period after certification.

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  • 9. 

    In order to maintain the CMA credential, a person is required to earn _________ CEUs over a five- year period after certification. 

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    C. 60
    Explanation
    To maintain the CMA credential, a person is required to earn 60 CEUs over a five-year period after certification. This means that they must complete 60 Continuing Education Units, which are typically earned by attending workshops, seminars, or courses related to their profession. These CEUs help professionals stay updated with the latest developments in their field and demonstrate their commitment to ongoing learning and professional growth. By completing the required number of CEUs, individuals can ensure that they meet the continuing education requirements necessary to maintain their CMA credential.

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  • 10. 

    According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, U. S. Depart-ment of Labor, Occupational Outlook Handbook, 2010– 2011 Edition, medical assisting is among the fastest- growing occupations and has a projected growth of _________ % between 2008 and 2018. 

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      28

    • D.

      34

    Correct Answer
    D. 34
    Explanation
    According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor, Occupational Outlook Handbook, 2010–2011 Edition, medical assisting is among the fastest-growing occupations and has a projected growth of 34% between 2008 and 2018.

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  • 11. 

    The cost of the RMA ( AMT) exam is: 

    • A.

      $ 75

    • B.

      $ 95

    • C.

      $ 100

    • D.

      $ 125

    Correct Answer
    B. $ 95
    Explanation
    The correct answer is $95. This is because the cost of the RMA (AMT) exam is stated as $95 in the given options.

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  • 12. 

    The cost of the CMA ( AAMA) exam for someone who graduated more than one year earlier and is not a member of the AAMA is:  

    • A.

      $ 75 for new graduaates

    • B.

      $ 95 for new graduaates

    • C.

      $ 100 for new graduaates

    • D.

      $ 125 for new graduaates

    Correct Answer
    D. $ 125 for new graduaates
    Explanation
    The correct answer is $ 125 for new graduates. This is because the cost of the CMA (AAMA) exam for someone who graduated more than one year earlier and is not a member of the AAMA is $125.

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  • 13. 

    The minimum passing score for the RMA ( AMT) exam is: 

    • A.

      80

    • B.

      70

    • C.

      85

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 70
    Explanation
    The minimum passing score for the RMA (AMT) exam is 70. This means that in order to pass the exam and obtain the certification, a candidate must achieve a score of at least 70 out of 100.

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  • 14. 

    The minimum passing score for the CMA ( AAMA) exam is 

    • A.

      70

    • B.

      400

    • C.

      425

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    C. 425
    Explanation
    The minimum passing score for the CMA (AAMA) exam is 425. This means that in order to pass the exam, a candidate must achieve a score of at least 425 out of the total possible score.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements regarding resumes is not true? 

    • A.

      Use white or off- white paper.

    • B.

      Include your career objective.

    • C.

      Include all work experience

    • D.

      Use 81/ 2 by 11 inch paper.

    Correct Answer
    C. Include all work experience
    Explanation
    The given statement "Include all work experience" is not true. Resumes should not include all work experience, but rather focus on relevant and recent work experience that is most applicable to the job being applied for. Including all work experience can make the resume too lengthy and cluttered, and may not effectively highlight the most important qualifications and achievements of the candidate.

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  • 16. 

    In preparation for and during an interview, you should do all of the following except:  

    • A.

      Arrive 5 to 10 minutes early

    • B.

      Talk about former employers

    • C.

      Show enthusiasm

    • D.

      Dress conservatively

    Correct Answer
    B. Talk about former employers
    Explanation
    During an interview, it is important to present yourself in a positive light and focus on your own qualifications and experiences. Talking about former employers may come across as negative or unprofessional, and can give the impression that you are not fully committed to the current opportunity. Therefore, it is best to avoid discussing former employers during an interview.

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  • 17. 

    Someone who prefers face- to- face meetings is most likely a _________ learner 

    • A.

      Tactile

    • B.

      Visual

    • C.

      Auditory

    • D.

      Manual

    Correct Answer
    C. Auditory
    Explanation
    Someone who prefers face-to-face meetings is most likely an auditory learner because they prefer to communicate and receive information through spoken words and discussions. They may find it easier to understand and retain information when it is presented verbally rather than through visual or physical means. Face-to-face meetings provide them with the opportunity to engage in conversation, listen to others, and ask questions, which aligns with the auditory learning style.

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  • 18. 

    Teaching material to another person is an effective study aid because it is estimated that a person retains _________% of the material taught. 

    • A.

      90

    • B.

      70

    • C.

      85

    • D.

      75

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    Teaching material to another person is an effective study aid because it is estimated that a person retains 90% of the material taught. This suggests that when someone teaches information to someone else, they are more likely to remember and understand it themselves. The act of explaining and teaching requires a deeper level of understanding and processing, leading to better retention of the material. Additionally, teaching someone else also helps to reinforce and consolidate one's own knowledge and comprehension of the subject matter.

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  • 19. 

    The CMA ( AAMA) exam consists of how many questions, and how much time do you have to complete it? 

    • A.

      200 questions, two hours to complete

    • B.

      200 questions, three hours to complete

    • C.

      210 questions, two hours to complete

    • D.

      210 questions, three hours to complete

    Correct Answer
    B. 200 questions, three hours to complete
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 200 questions, three hours to complete. This means that the CMA (AAMA) exam consists of 200 questions and test-takers have three hours to complete it.

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  • 20. 

    The RMA ( AMT) exam consists of how many questions, and how much time do you have to complete it? 

    • A.

      200 questions, two hours to complete

    • B.

      200-210 questions, three hours to complete

    • C.

      210 questions, two hours to complete

    • D.

      200 to 210 questions, two hours to complete

    Correct Answer
    D. 200 to 210 questions, two hours to complete
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 200 to 210 questions, two hours to complete. This means that the RMA (AMT) exam can have a variable number of questions within the range of 200 to 210, and test-takers are given two hours to complete the exam.

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  • 21. 

    Piaget’s theory of cognitive development includes which of the following stages?sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operational, and formal operational. sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operational, and formal operational.      

    • A.

      Generativity

    • B.

      Learning

    • C.

      Tactile

    • D.

      Sensorimotor

    Correct Answer
    D. Sensorimotor
    Explanation
    Piaget's theory of cognitive development includes four stages: sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage is the first stage, which occurs from birth to about 2 years old. During this stage, infants learn about the world through their senses and motor actions. They develop object permanence and begin to understand cause and effect relationships. This stage is characterized by the gradual development of coordination between sensory experiences and physical actions. Therefore, the correct answer is sensorimotor.

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  • 22. 

     In the life cycle, adolescence is characterized by:  

    • A.

      Importance of friendships

    • B.

      Development of trust

    • C.

      Being alone

    • D.

      Pleasing others

    Correct Answer
    A. Importance of friendships
    Explanation
    During adolescence, individuals experience significant social and emotional changes. They start to place a high value on friendships as they seek to form connections and establish their own identity. Friendships become crucial during this stage as they provide support, validation, and a sense of belonging. Adolescents often rely on their friends for advice, companionship, and emotional support, making the importance of friendships a key characteristic of this life cycle stage.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is the first stage of Freud’s stages of psychosexual development?  

    • A.

      Genital

    • B.

      Phallic

    • C.

      Anal

    • D.

      Oral

    Correct Answer
    D. Oral
    Explanation
    The first stage of Freud's stages of psychosexual development is the oral stage. During this stage, which occurs from birth to around 18 months, the primary focus of pleasure is on the mouth. Infants derive pleasure from activities such as sucking, biting, and chewing. Freud believed that experiences during this stage can have a lasting impact on an individual's personality development and attachment patterns.

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  • 24. 

    The concept at the top of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is: 

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Physiological

    • C.

      Self- actualization

    • D.

      Self- esteem/ status

    Correct Answer
    C. Self- actualization
    Explanation
    Self-actualization is the concept at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. This refers to the highest level of psychological development where individuals strive to fulfill their full potential and achieve personal growth. It involves the pursuit of personal goals, self-discovery, and self-fulfillment. This concept suggests that once individuals have met their basic physiological and safety needs, they can focus on higher-level needs such as self-esteem and self-actualization.

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  • 25. 

    Which of these examples contain all of the needs in the physiological stage of Maslow’s hierarchy?  

    • A.

      Food, physical safety, water

    • B.

      Water and physical safety

    • C.

      Food, shelter, water

    • D.

      Sense of belonging and sense of accomplishment

    Correct Answer
    C. Food, shelter, water
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Food, shelter, water". In the physiological stage of Maslow's hierarchy, the basic needs for survival must be met, which include having access to food, shelter, and water. The other options do not include all of these needs.

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  • 26. 

    Erik Erikson’s psychosocial development theory includes how many stages? 

    • A.

      Six

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Eight

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    C. Eight
    Explanation
    Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory includes eight stages. These stages are based on different age groups and the challenges individuals face during each stage. Each stage represents a unique psychosocial crisis that individuals must resolve in order to develop a healthy personality. These stages include Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt, Industry vs. Inferiority, Identity vs. Role Confusion, Intimacy vs. Isolation, Generativity vs. Stagnation, and Integrity vs. Despair.

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  • 27. 

    In Erik Erikson’s theory, each stage has a major conflict and each conflict can have a positive or negative outcome. The positive outcome of the childhood stage is industry. What is the negative outcome? 

    • A.

      Inferiority

    • B.

      Guilt

    • C.

      Role confusion

    • D.

      Isolation e. Despair

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferiority
    Explanation
    In Erik Erikson's theory, the childhood stage is characterized by the major conflict of industry. This means that children in this stage are focused on developing skills and accomplishing tasks. The positive outcome of this stage is a sense of competence and mastery. On the other hand, the negative outcome of this stage is inferiority, which refers to a lack of confidence and a feeling of inadequacy. Therefore, the correct answer is Inferiority.

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  • 28. 

    Ivan Pavlov conducted a famous series of experiments involving the feeding of dogs preceded by the ringing of a bell. His theory is known as: 

    • A.

      Behavioral conditioning

    • B.

      Classical conditioning

    • C.

      Canine conditioning

    • D.

      Operant conditioning

    Correct Answer
    B. Classical conditioning
    Explanation
    Ivan Pavlov conducted a series of experiments where he conditioned dogs to associate the sound of a bell with the anticipation of food. This process, known as classical conditioning, involves pairing a neutral stimulus (the bell) with an unconditioned stimulus (the food) to elicit a conditioned response (salivation). Pavlov's work demonstrated the concept of associative learning and laid the foundation for the understanding of how behaviors can be learned and conditioned.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not one of the developmental stages of the life cycle? 

    • A.

      Infancy

    • B.

      Prepubescence

    • C.

      Adolescence

    • D.

      Prenatal period

    Correct Answer
    B. Prepubescence
    Explanation
    Prepubescence is not one of the developmental stages of the life cycle because it refers to the period of time before the onset of puberty. The developmental stages of the life cycle typically include infancy, childhood, adolescence, and adulthood. Prepubescence is a term used to describe the period between early childhood and the onset of puberty, when there are minimal physical and hormonal changes.

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  • 30. 

    The operant conditioning theory was developed and proposed by whom? 

    • A.

      B. F. Skinner

    • B.

      Sigmund Freud

    • C.

      Christian Barnard

    • D.

      Erik Erikson e. Jean Piaget

    Correct Answer
    A. B. F. Skinner
    Explanation
    B. F. Skinner is the correct answer because he is the psychologist who developed and proposed the operant conditioning theory. Skinner believed that behavior is influenced by the consequences that follow it, such as rewards and punishments. He conducted experiments using animals, particularly rats and pigeons, to study how behavior can be shaped through reinforcement and punishment. Skinner's work had a significant impact on the field of psychology and is still widely studied and applied today.

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  • 31. 

    The final stage in the five stages of grief as proposed by Elizabeth Kübler- Ross is: 

    • A.

      Depression

    • B.

      Acceptance

    • C.

      Anger

    • D.

      Bargaining c. Denial

    Correct Answer
    B. Acceptance
    Explanation
    The final stage in the five stages of grief proposed by Elizabeth Kübler-Ross is acceptance. This stage refers to the individual coming to terms with the reality of the situation and finding a sense of peace and understanding. It does not mean that the person is necessarily happy or completely healed, but rather that they have reached a point where they can begin to move forward and rebuild their life.

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  • 32. 

    Which of these is not one of Freud’s defense mechanisms? 

    • A.

      Identification

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Fight or flight

    • D.

      Denial e. Compensation

    Correct Answer
    C. Fight or flight
    Explanation
    Fight or flight is not one of Freud's defense mechanisms. Freud's defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with anxiety or conflict. Fight or flight, on the other hand, is a physiological response to stress or danger, involving either confronting the threat or fleeing from it. While fight or flight is a natural response, it is not considered a defense mechanism in Freudian theory.

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  • 33. 

    Mental disorders are divided into the following three major categories:  

    • A.

      Neuroses, alcohol addiction, psychoses

    • B.

      Psychoses, personality disorder, neuroses

    • C.

      Neuroses, psychoses, personality disorder

    • D.

      Drug addiction, alcohol addiction, neuroses Depression, repression, psychoses

    Correct Answer
    C. Neuroses, psychoses, personality disorder
    Explanation
    The correct answer is neuroses, psychoses, personality disorder. This is because mental disorders are commonly categorized into these three major categories. Neuroses are characterized by anxiety, depression, and obsessive-compulsive behaviors. Psychoses involve a loss of touch with reality, such as hallucinations and delusions. Personality disorders are enduring patterns of behavior that deviate from cultural norms and cause distress or impairment. Drug addiction and alcohol addiction are not considered major categories of mental disorders, although they can be associated with certain mental health conditions. Depression and repression are specific symptoms or experiences rather than categories of mental disorders.

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  • 34. 

    In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the focus of the preoperational stage is: 

    • A.

      Language and symbols

    • B.

      Movement and senses

    • C.

      Movement and abstract concepts

    • D.

      Analytical reasoning e. Logical and analytical reasoning

    Correct Answer
    A. Language and symbols
    Explanation
    In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the preoperational stage is focused on the development of language and the ability to use symbols. This is the stage where children begin to use words, gestures, and other symbols to represent objects and ideas. They also start to engage in pretend play and understand the concept of symbols, such as using a stick as a pretend sword. This stage is characterized by egocentrism and the inability to understand abstract or logical reasoning. Therefore, the focus of the preoperational stage is on language and symbols.

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  • 35. 

    A young adult sees his best friend fall through the ice of a frozen pond and drown. He becomes amnesic about the circumstances of the event. This is an example of which defense mechanism? 

    • A.

      Minimization

    • B.

      Denial

    • C.

      Compensation

    • D.

      Repression

    Correct Answer
    D. Repression
    Explanation
    Repression is the correct answer because it is a defense mechanism that involves pushing distressing memories or thoughts into the unconscious mind. In this scenario, the young adult's amnesia about the circumstances of his best friend's drowning suggests that he has repressed the traumatic memory in order to protect himself from the emotional pain associated with it.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jul 25, 2011
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    Froggie74
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