Radr1311 Final
Final review for RADR 1311 Basic Radiographic Procedures
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The primary controlling factor of radiography contrast is:
- A.
MA
- B.
Time
- C.
KVp
- D.
SID
Correct Answer
C. KVpExplanation
kVp, or kilovoltage peak, is the primary controlling factor of radiography contrast. It determines the energy level of the X-ray beam, which directly affects the penetration power and the ability to differentiate between different tissues. By adjusting the kVp, the radiographer can control the level of contrast in the image. Higher kVp values result in lower contrast images with a wider range of gray tones, while lower kVp values produce higher contrast images with a greater distinction between tissues. Therefore, kVp plays a crucial role in determining the overall contrast and quality of the radiographic image.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The ability to visualize very small structures on a radiograph is termed:
- A.
Contrast
- B.
Density
- C.
Distortion
- D.
Recorded detail
Correct Answer
D. Recorded detailExplanation
Recorded detail refers to the ability to visualize small structures on a radiograph. It is a measure of the sharpness and clarity of the image, specifically the level of detail that can be seen. This includes the ability to distinguish fine lines and small objects. Contrast, density, and distortion are all important factors in radiography, but they do not specifically refer to the visualization of small structures.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Radiographs of the hands, wrists, feet, and toes are routinely displayed on the view box with the digits:
- A.
Positional toward the ceiling
- B.
Positional toward the floor
- C.
Horizontal and pointed to the left
- D.
Horizontal and pointed to the right
Correct Answer
A. Positional toward the ceilingExplanation
Radiographs of the hands, wrists, feet, and toes are routinely displayed on the view box with the digits positioned toward the ceiling. This positioning allows for a consistent and standardized orientation of the images, making it easier for healthcare professionals to interpret and compare the radiographs. It also mimics the natural anatomical position of the digits when the patient is standing or lying down, helping to accurately assess any abnormalities or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The total destruction of microorganisms is accomplised through the use of:
- A.
Disinfectants
- B.
Sterilization
- C.
Germicides
- D.
Antiseptics
Correct Answer
B. SterilizationExplanation
Sterilization is the correct answer because it refers to the process of completely eliminating all forms of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, from an object or environment. This is achieved through various methods such as heat, chemicals, or radiation. Disinfectants, germicides, and antiseptics are all effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, but they may not necessarily achieve complete sterilization. Therefore, sterilization is the most appropriate term for describing the total destruction of microorganisms.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Voluntary motion resulting from lack of control can be caused by: 1) fear 2) age (child) 3) tremors
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2Explanation
Voluntary motion resulting from lack of control can be caused by fear and age (child). Fear can cause a person to lose control over their voluntary movements, leading to involuntary motion. Similarly, children, due to their developing motor skills and lack of coordination, may exhibit involuntary movements. Tremors, on the other hand, are involuntary rhythmic movements caused by various medical conditions and are not directly related to lack of control. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Radiographers can control voluntary motion by:
- A.
Using a high kVp
- B.
Increasing the length of exposure time
- C.
Performing the examination in the recumbent position
- D.
Giving clear instructions to the patient
Correct Answer
D. Giving clear instructions to the patientExplanation
Giving clear instructions to the patient is the correct answer because it helps in controlling voluntary motion during radiographic examinations. When patients are properly instructed and understand what is expected of them, they are more likely to cooperate and remain still, reducing the risk of motion artifacts in the resulting images. Clear instructions can include guidance on breath-holding, body positioning, and any necessary movements during the procedure. This communication between the radiographer and patient is essential for obtaining high-quality diagnostic images.Rate this question:
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- 7.
All radiographs must be identified with which of the following? 1) radiographer's name 2) patient's name or ID number 3) right or left marker
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3Explanation
Radiographs must be identified with the patient's name or ID number to ensure accurate record-keeping and proper identification. Additionally, right or left markers are necessary to indicate the orientation of the radiograph, allowing for easy interpretation by healthcare professionals. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The metric conversion of 40 inches is:
- A.
16 cm
- B.
18 cm
- C.
90 cm
- D.
102 cm
Correct Answer
D. 102 cm -
- 9.
Collimation of the x-ray beam prompts which of the following: 1) an increase in radiographic contrast 2) reduction of scatter and secondary radiation 3) reduction in radiation to the patient
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, and 3Explanation
Collimation of the x-ray beam prompts an increase in radiographic contrast because it reduces the amount of scatter and secondary radiation that can interfere with the image. It also reduces the amount of radiation reaching the patient, which is beneficial for their safety. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) are correct.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Federal guidelines require gonad shielding for which of the following: 1) when the gonads lie in the primary beam 2) if the clinical objective of the exam is not compromised 3) when the patient has resonable reproductive potential
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, and 3Explanation
Federal guidelines require gonad shielding for all of the given options. The guidelines state that gonad shielding should be used when the gonads lie in the primary beam (option 1), when the clinical objective of the exam is not compromised (option 2), and when the patient has reasonable reproductive potential (option 3). Therefore, all three options are correct and the answer is 1, 2, and 3.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following devices are considered image receptors? 1) television monitor 2) IR with phosphor plate 3) IR with film
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3Explanation
Television monitors, IR with phosphor plate, and IR with film are all considered image receptors. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Recorded detail is primarily controlled by 1) mA 2) screens 3) focal spot size
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3Explanation
Recorded detail refers to the level of sharpness and clarity in an image. It is primarily controlled by two factors: focal spot size and screens. Focal spot size refers to the size of the area on the anode where the electrons hit to produce the x-rays. A smaller focal spot size produces a sharper image. Screens are used in radiographic cassettes to convert x-rays into light, which in turn exposes the film. The type and quality of screens used can affect the level of recorded detail in the final image. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The phosphors in computed radiography IRs are very sensitive to:
- A.
KVp
- B.
Dust
- C.
Collimation
- D.
Scatter radiation
Correct Answer
D. Scatter radiationExplanation
The phosphors in computed radiography IRs are very sensitive to scatter radiation. Scatter radiation refers to the radiation that is deflected from its original path due to interaction with objects or tissues in the body. This scattered radiation can affect the accuracy and quality of the radiographic image produced by the IR. Therefore, it is important to minimize scatter radiation by using appropriate collimation techniques and shielding devices to ensure clear and accurate images.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Radiographers receive approximately how much radiation per year?
- A.
50 mrad
- B.
60 mrad
- C.
50 rad
- D.
70 rad
Correct Answer
A. 50 mradExplanation
Radiographers receive approximately 50 mrad of radiation per year. This is a relatively low dose of radiation that they are exposed to. It is important for radiographers to be aware of their radiation exposure and take necessary precautions to minimize any potential health risks. Regular monitoring and safety measures are implemented to ensure the safety of radiographers and patients during medical imaging procedures.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The unit of radiation absorbed dose is the:
- A.
Roentgen
- B.
Rad
- C.
Rem
- D.
Coulomb
Correct Answer
B. RadExplanation
The unit of radiation absorbed dose is rad. The rad (radiation absorbed dose) is a unit of measurement that quantifies the amount of energy absorbed by a material when exposed to radiation. It is used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by the human body or any other material. The rad is commonly used in medical and industrial settings to assess the potential harm caused by radiation exposure.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Occupational exposure is measured in which of the following units?
- A.
Rad
- B.
Rem
- C.
Currie
- D.
Roentgen
Correct Answer
B. RemExplanation
The correct answer is rem. The rem (Roentgen equivalent man) is a unit used to measure occupational exposure to ionizing radiation. It takes into account the type of radiation and its potential biological effect on humans. This unit is important in assessing and managing the risks associated with occupational radiation exposure, ensuring that workers are not exposed to dangerous levels of radiation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
During the course of normal x-ray examinations, the radiographer receives at least 95% of occupational exposure from: 1) fluoroscopy 2) portable radiography 3) stomach and upper GI examinations
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2Explanation
The correct answer is 1 and 2. During normal x-ray examinations, the radiographer receives at least 95% of occupational exposure from fluoroscopy and portable radiography. These two procedures involve the use of continuous radiation and are more likely to result in higher radiation dose compared to stomach and upper GI examinations, which are typically shorter in duration. Therefore, the radiographer's exposure is primarily from fluoroscopy and portable radiography.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The minimum amount of aluminum equivalent filtration that must be present at the port of all fluoroscopic tubes and all radiographic tubes operating above 70 kVp is:
- A.
1.0 mm
- B.
1.5 mm
- C.
2.5 mm
- D.
3.0 mm
Correct Answer
C. 2.5 mmExplanation
The minimum amount of aluminum equivalent filtration that must be present at the port of all fluoroscopic tubes and all radiographic tubes operating above 70 kVp is 2.5 mm. This is because higher energy x-rays require more filtration to reduce the amount of scattered radiation and improve image quality. The 2.5 mm of aluminum equivalent filtration helps to absorb low-energy x-rays and reduces patient dose.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The radiographic technique that will produce the lowest patient dose is
- A.
High kVp, low mAs
- B.
Low kVp, high mAs
- C.
High mA, short exposure time
- D.
Low mA, long exposure time
Correct Answer
A. High kVp, low mAsExplanation
The correct answer is high kVp, low mAs. This technique refers to using a high kilovoltage peak (kVp) setting and a low milliampere-seconds (mAs) setting. High kVp allows for better penetration of the x-ray beam through the patient's body, reducing the amount of radiation absorbed by the patient. Low mAs means a shorter exposure time, further minimizing the radiation dose received by the patient. Therefore, using high kVp and low mAs settings in radiography helps to achieve the lowest patient dose.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When a pregnant patient must be examined, the examination should be done using which of the following? 1) precisely collimated beams 2) carefully positioned protective shields 3) use of a high kVp technique
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, and 3Explanation
During pregnancy, it is important to minimize radiation exposure to the fetus. Precisely collimated beams help to focus the radiation only on the area of interest, reducing scatter radiation to the abdomen. Carefully positioned protective shields can be used to further shield the fetus from unnecessary radiation. Using a high kVp technique allows for better penetration of the x-rays, reducing the need for higher doses and therefore minimizing the radiation exposure to the fetus. Therefore, using all three options - precisely collimated beams, carefully positioned protective shields, and a high kVp technique - is recommended when examining a pregnant patient.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The cardinal principles of radiation protection include which of the following? 1) time 2) distance 3) screen speed
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2Explanation
The cardinal principles of radiation protection include time and distance. Time refers to minimizing the duration of exposure to radiation, while distance involves increasing the distance between the source of radiation and the individual to reduce exposure. Screen speed is not a cardinal principle of radiation protection.Rate this question:
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- 22.
During fluoroscopy, the personnel monitor (radiation badge) should be worn:
- A.
Outside the apron - at the collar
- B.
Inside the apron - at the collar
- C.
Outside the apron - at the waist
- D.
Inside the apron - at the waist
Correct Answer
A. Outside the apron - at the collarExplanation
The personnel monitor (radiation badge) should be worn outside the apron at the collar during fluoroscopy. This is because the collar area is closest to the radiation source and is therefore the most likely area to receive the highest dose of radiation. Wearing the badge outside the apron ensures that it accurately measures the radiation exposure to the personnel's body. Wearing it inside the apron or at the waist would not provide an accurate measurement of radiation exposure.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In the anatomic position the palms of the hands are facing:
- A.
Backward
- B.
Forward
- C.
Up
- D.
Down
Correct Answer
B. ForwardExplanation
In the anatomical position, the palms of the hands are facing forward. This means that the palms are facing towards the front of the body, with the thumbs pointing away from the body. This position is commonly used as a reference point in anatomy to describe the positioning of various body parts.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A plane passsing vertically through the body from side to side is termed:
- A.
Oblique
- B.
Sagittal
- C.
Coronal
- D.
Horizontal
Correct Answer
C. CoronalExplanation
A plane passing vertically through the body from side to side is termed coronal. The term "coronal" refers to a plane that divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions. In this case, the plane is passing from side to side, dividing the body into left and right halves. This is different from sagittal planes, which divide the body into left and right portions, and horizontal planes, which divide the body into upper and lower portions. Oblique planes, on the other hand, are not parallel to any of the standard anatomical planes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following would not be located in the thoracic cavity?
- A.
Trachea
- B.
Spleen
- C.
Lungs
- D.
Esophagus
Correct Answer
B. SpleenExplanation
The spleen would not be located in the thoracic cavity because it is an organ that is part of the lymphatic system and is located in the abdominal cavity, specifically on the left side of the body. The thoracic cavity primarily contains the lungs, heart, and other structures related to respiration and circulation. Therefore, the spleen is the correct answer as it is not found in the thoracic cavity.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many regions is the abdomen divided into?
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
Nine
Correct Answer
D. NineExplanation
The correct answer is nine. The abdomen is divided into nine regions known as the abdominal quadrants. These regions are used to locate and describe specific areas of the abdomen for medical purposes. Each quadrant helps to identify the position of various organs and structures within the abdomen, aiding in diagnosis and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 27.
L4 and L5 are located at the level of the:
- A.
Costal margin
- B.
Superior iliac spine
- C.
Level of the umbilicus
- D.
Superior aspect of the iliac crests
Correct Answer
D. Superior aspect of the iliac crestsExplanation
L4 and L5 are located at the superior aspect of the iliac crests. The iliac crests are the highest points of the hip bones and can be felt on either side of the lower back. L4 and L5 refer to the fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae, which are the lowest vertebrae of the spine. Therefore, the superior aspect of the iliac crests is the correct location for L4 and L5.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following is not one of the four types of body habitus?
- A.
Atrophic
- B.
Sthenic
- C.
Asthenic
- D.
Hypersthenic
Correct Answer
A. Atrophic -
- 29.
Approximately what percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus?
- A.
5%
- B.
10%
- C.
35%
- D.
50%
Correct Answer
D. 50%Explanation
Approximately 50% of the population has a sthenic body habitus. This means that half of the population has a body type characterized by a well-balanced physique, with average height, weight, and muscle mass. This body habitus is considered to be the most common and is often associated with good overall health and physical fitness.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The adult skeleton is composed of how many bones?
- A.
185
- B.
200
- C.
206
- D.
208
Correct Answer
C. 206Explanation
The adult skeleton is composed of 206 bones. This is the correct answer because the human skeleton consists of various bones that provide support, protection, and enable movement. These bones include the skull, ribs, spine, arms, legs, and many others, totaling to a count of 206.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Bones are composed of an outer layer of compact bony tissue called the:
- A.
Compact bone
- B.
Periosteum
- C.
Spongy tissue
- D.
Medullary canal
Correct Answer
A. Compact boneExplanation
Bones are composed of different types of tissue, including compact bone. Compact bone is the outer layer of bone tissue that is dense and hard. It provides strength and protection to the bone. The other options, periosteum, spongy tissue, and medullary canal, are also parts of the bone but do not specifically refer to the outer layer of compact bone.Rate this question:
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- 32.
How many specific types of synovial joints are there?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
Correct Answer
D. 6Explanation
There are six specific types of synovial joints. These include hinge joints, pivot joints, condyloid joints, saddle joints, ball and socket joints, and gliding joints. Each type of joint has its own unique structure and range of motion, allowing for different movements and functions within the body.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which specific type of joint allows multiaxial movement?
- A.
Pivot
- B.
Gliding
- C.
Ellipsoid
- D.
Ball and socket
Correct Answer
D. Ball and socketExplanation
A ball and socket joint allows multiaxial movement because it consists of a rounded end of one bone fitting into a cup-like socket of another bone. This structure allows for movement in multiple directions, such as rotation, flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. The rounded end of the bone provides a wide range of motion, making it the most flexible type of joint in the body.Rate this question:
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- 34.
After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. Each end is called the:
- A.
Diaphysis
- B.
Epiphysis
- C.
Epiphyseal line
- D.
Epiphyseal plate
Correct Answer
B. EpiphysisExplanation
After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. This separate bone is called the epiphysis. The epiphysis is responsible for the growth and development of the long bone. It contains red bone marrow, which is responsible for producing blood cells. The epiphysis also plays a role in joint formation and provides a surface for the attachment of ligaments and tendons.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves is called a:
- A.
Groove
- B.
Foramen
- C.
Fissure
- D.
Facet
Correct Answer
B. ForamenExplanation
A hole in a bone that allows blood vessels and nerves to pass through is called a foramen. This opening serves as a pathway for these vital structures to supply nutrients and oxygen to the bone and surrounding tissues. Grooves, fissures, and facets are different types of bone surface features, but they do not specifically refer to a hole for the transmission of blood vessels and nerves.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A term that means the same as "anterior" is:
- A.
Plantar
- B.
Distal
- C.
Dorsal
- D.
Ventral
Correct Answer
D. VentralExplanation
The term "ventral" refers to the front or anterior side of an organism. Therefore, it is synonymous with "anterior" which also refers to the front or forward side. "Plantar" refers to the sole of the foot, "distal" refers to the farthest point from the center of the body, and "dorsal" refers to the back or posterior side. None of these terms have the same meaning as "anterior," making "ventral" the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The term that refers to parts away from the head of the body, or angling away from the head of the body is:
- A.
Caudad
- B.
Cephalad
- C.
Medial
- D.
Proximal
Correct Answer
A. CaudadExplanation
The term "caudad" refers to parts of the body that are located away from the head. It is used to describe the direction or position of a body part relative to the head. This term is often used in anatomical and medical contexts to indicate movement or orientation away from the head.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The term that refers to parts nearer the point of attachment, or origin is:
- A.
Distal
- B.
Proximal
- C.
Caudad
- D.
Cephalad
Correct Answer
B. ProximalExplanation
The term "proximal" refers to parts that are nearer the point of attachment or origin. This means that when describing the location or position of a body part, if it is closer to the point of attachment or origin, it would be referred to as proximal. This term is commonly used in anatomy to describe the relative positions of different body parts.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The term used to describe the sole of the foot is:
- A.
Ventral
- B.
Posterior
- C.
Plantar
- D.
Dorsal
Correct Answer
C. PlantarExplanation
The term "plantar" is used to describe the sole of the foot. This term refers specifically to the bottom surface of the foot, which is in contact with the ground when standing or walking. The plantar surface of the foot contains various structures, such as the plantar fascia and the plantar muscles, which play important roles in supporting the foot and facilitating movement.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following terms are used to describe x-ray "projections"? 1) AP 2) PA axial 3) supine
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2Explanation
AP and PA axial are the terms used to describe x-ray "projections". AP stands for anterior-posterior, which means the x-ray beam enters the front of the body and exits through the back. PA axial stands for posterior-anterior axial, which means the x-ray beam enters the back of the body at an angle and exits through the front. These two terms describe the direction and angle of the x-ray beam in relation to the patient's body position. The term "supine" is not used to describe x-ray projections.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following terms are used to describe "body positions"? 1) upright 2) axial 3) prone
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 3Explanation
The terms "upright" and "prone" are used to describe body positions. "Upright" refers to a standing or vertical position, while "prone" refers to a lying face down position. "Axial" does not specifically describe body positions, but instead refers to the central or main axis of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3.Rate this question:
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- 42.
If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed:
- A.
PA
- B.
AP
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Axiolateral
Correct Answer
B. APExplanation
If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed AP (Anteroposterior). This means that the x-ray beam is directed from the front of the body towards the back.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient placed "lying on the back"?
- A.
Supine
- B.
Prone
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Recumbent
Correct Answer
A. SupineExplanation
The term "supine" is used to describe a patient placed "lying on the back". This position is commonly used in medical settings for various procedures and examinations. The supine position allows for easy access to the front of the body and is often preferred for surgeries, X-rays, and physical examinations. It is characterized by the patient lying flat on their back with their face and chest facing upward.Rate this question:
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- 44.
"Oblique" positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is:
- A.
Closest to the x-ray tube
- B.
The source of pathology
- C.
Closest to the IR
- D.
Farthest from the IR
Correct Answer
C. Closest to the IRExplanation
In radiology, "oblique" positions refer to the positioning of the patient's body in a tilted or angled manner. In this case, the correct answer is "closest to the IR." This means that the oblique position is named based on the side of the patient's body that is closest to the image receptor (IR), which is the device that captures the x-ray image. This naming convention helps to accurately describe the positioning of the patient and the direction of the x-ray beam in relation to the IR.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following positioning terms indicates that the patient is "lying down" and the "central ray is horizontal" ?
- A.
Lateral
- B.
Decubitus
- C.
Recumbent
- D.
Mediolateral
Correct Answer
B. DecubitusExplanation
The term "decubitus" refers to the position where the patient is lying down, typically on their side, with the central ray of the X-ray machine being horizontal. This position is commonly used in medical imaging to capture specific views of the body, such as the lungs or abdomen. The other options, lateral, recumbent, and mediolateral, do not specifically indicate the patient lying down or the horizontal central ray.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body or body part is termed:
- A.
Adduction
- B.
Abduction
- C.
Extension
- D.
Flexion
Correct Answer
B. AbductionExplanation
Abduction is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of a body part away from the central axis of the body. This movement occurs in the frontal plane, such as when lifting the arm out to the side or spreading the fingers apart. Adduction, on the other hand, refers to the movement of a body part toward the central axis of the body. Extension refers to the straightening or increasing the angle of a joint, while flexion refers to the bending or decreasing the angle of a joint.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces up is termed:
- A.
Pronation
- B.
Supination
- C.
Abduction
- D.
Adduction
Correct Answer
B. SupinationExplanation
Supination is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of the forearm where the palm of the hand faces up or forward. This movement is commonly observed when turning a doorknob or holding a bowl of soup. Pronation, on the other hand, refers to the opposite movement where the palm faces down or backward. Abduction and adduction are terms used to describe movements in the frontal plane away from and towards the midline of the body, respectively, and are not relevant to this question.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The term that refers to a part on the opposite side of the body is:
- A.
Distal
- B.
Proximal
- C.
Ipsilateral
- D.
Contralateral
Correct Answer
C. IpsilateralExplanation
The term "ipsilateral" refers to a part on the same side of the body. This means that the correct answer is "ipsilateral."Rate this question:
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- 49.
Study of the bones of the body is known as:
- A.
Physiology
- B.
Radiology
- C.
Osteology
- D.
Orthopedics
Correct Answer
C. OsteologyExplanation
Osteology is the study of the bones of the body. It involves the examination of the structure, development, and function of bones, as well as their classification and identification. This field of study is important in understanding the skeletal system, its role in supporting the body, and its involvement in various diseases and conditions.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which plane specifically divides the body into equal right and left halves?
- A.
Axial
- B.
Transverse
- C.
Midcoronal
- D.
Midsagittal
Correct Answer
D. MidsagittalExplanation
The midsagittal plane specifically divides the body into equal right and left halves. This plane passes through the midline of the body, dividing it into symmetrical halves. It is also known as the median plane. The other options, such as the axial, transverse, and midcoronal planes, do not divide the body into equal right and left halves.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 02, 2009Quiz Created by
Bkbrogdon
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