Radr1311 Final

98 Questions | Total Attempts: 199

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Radiography Quizzes & Trivia

Final review for RADR 1311 Basic Radiographic Procedures


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The primary controlling factor of radiography contrast is:
    • A. 

      MA

    • B. 

      Time

    • C. 

      KVp

    • D. 

      SID

  • 2. 
    The ability to visualize very small structures on a radiograph is termed:
    • A. 

      Contrast

    • B. 

      Density

    • C. 

      Distortion

    • D. 

      Recorded detail

  • 3. 
    Radiographs of the hands, wrists, feet, and toes are routinely displayed on the view box with the digits:
    • A. 

      Positional toward the ceiling

    • B. 

      Positional toward the floor

    • C. 

      Horizontal and pointed to the left

    • D. 

      Horizontal and pointed to the right

  • 4. 
    The total destruction of microorganisms is accomplised through the use of:
    • A. 

      Disinfectants

    • B. 

      Sterilization

    • C. 

      Germicides

    • D. 

      Antiseptics

  • 5. 
    Voluntary motion resulting from lack of control can be caused by: 1) fear 2) age (child) 3) tremors
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 6. 
    Radiographers can control voluntary motion by:
    • A. 

      Using a high kVp

    • B. 

      Increasing the length of exposure time

    • C. 

      Performing the examination in the recumbent position

    • D. 

      Giving clear instructions to the patient

  • 7. 
    All radiographs must be identified with which of the following?  1) radiographer's name 2) patient's name or ID number 3) right or left marker
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 8. 
    The metric conversion of 40 inches is:
    • A. 

      16 cm

    • B. 

      18 cm

    • C. 

      90 cm

    • D. 

      102 cm

  • 9. 
    Collimation of the x-ray beam prompts which of the following:  1) an increase in radiographic contrast 2) reduction of scatter and secondary radiation 3) reduction in radiation to the patient
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 10. 
    Federal guidelines require gonad shielding for which of the following: 1) when the gonads lie in the primary beam 2) if the clinical objective of the exam is not compromised 3) when the patient has resonable reproductive potential
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 11. 
    Which of the following devices are considered image receptors? 1) television monitor 2) IR with phosphor plate 3) IR with film
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 12. 
    Recorded detail is primarily controlled by 1) mA 2) screens 3) focal spot size
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 13. 
    The phosphors in computed radiography IRs are very sensitive to:
    • A. 

      KVp

    • B. 

      Dust

    • C. 

      Collimation

    • D. 

      Scatter radiation

  • 14. 
    Radiographers receive approximately how much radiation per year?
    • A. 

      50 mrad

    • B. 

      60 mrad

    • C. 

      50 rad

    • D. 

      70 rad

  • 15. 
    The unit of radiation absorbed dose is the:
    • A. 

      Roentgen

    • B. 

      Rad

    • C. 

      Rem

    • D. 

      Coulomb

  • 16. 
    Occupational exposure is measured in which of the following units?
    • A. 

      Rad

    • B. 

      Rem

    • C. 

      Currie

    • D. 

      Roentgen

  • 17. 
    During the course of normal x-ray examinations, the radiographer receives at least 95% of occupational exposure from: 1) fluoroscopy 2) portable radiography 3) stomach and upper GI examinations
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 18. 
    The minimum amount of aluminum equivalent filtration that must be present at the port of all fluoroscopic tubes and all radiographic tubes operating above 70 kVp is:
    • A. 

      1.0 mm

    • B. 

      1.5 mm

    • C. 

      2.5 mm

    • D. 

      3.0 mm

  • 19. 
    The radiographic technique that will produce the lowest patient dose is
    • A. 

      High kVp, low mAs

    • B. 

      Low kVp, high mAs

    • C. 

      High mA, short exposure time

    • D. 

      Low mA, long exposure time

  • 20. 
    When a pregnant patient must be examined, the examination should be done using which of the following?  1) precisely collimated beams 2) carefully positioned protective shields 3) use of a high kVp technique
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 21. 
    The cardinal principles of radiation protection include which of the following? 1) time 2) distance 3) screen speed
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 22. 
    During fluoroscopy, the personnel monitor (radiation badge) should be worn:
    • A. 

      Outside the apron - at the collar

    • B. 

      Inside the apron - at the collar

    • C. 

      Outside the apron - at the waist

    • D. 

      Inside the apron - at the waist

  • 23. 
    In the anatomic position the palms of the hands are facing:
    • A. 

      Backward

    • B. 

      Forward

    • C. 

      Up

    • D. 

      Down

  • 24. 
    A plane passsing vertically through the body from side to side is termed:
    • A. 

      Oblique

    • B. 

      Sagittal

    • C. 

      Coronal

    • D. 

      Horizontal

  • 25. 
    Which of the following would not be located in the thoracic cavity?
    • A. 

      Trachea

    • B. 

      Spleen

    • C. 

      Lungs

    • D. 

      Esophagus

  • 26. 
    How many regions is the abdomen divided into?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Nine

  • 27. 
    L4 and L5 are located at the level of the:
    • A. 

      Costal margin

    • B. 

      Superior iliac spine

    • C. 

      Level of the umbilicus

    • D. 

      Superior aspect of the iliac crests

  • 28. 
    Which of the following is not one of the four types of body habitus?
    • A. 

      Atrophic

    • B. 

      Sthenic

    • C. 

      Asthenic

    • D. 

      Hypersthenic

  • 29. 
    Approximately what percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus?
    • A. 

      5%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      35%

    • D. 

      50%

  • 30. 
    The adult skeleton is composed of how many bones?
    • A. 

      185

    • B. 

      200

    • C. 

      206

    • D. 

      208

  • 31. 
    Bones are composed of an outer layer of compact bony tissue called the:
    • A. 

      Compact bone

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Spongy tissue

    • D. 

      Medullary canal

  • 32. 
    How many specific types of synovial joints are there?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 33. 
    Which specific type of joint allows multiaxial movement?
    • A. 

      Pivot

    • B. 

      Gliding

    • C. 

      Ellipsoid

    • D. 

      Ball and socket

  • 34. 
    After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones.  Each end is called the:
    • A. 

      Diaphysis

    • B. 

      Epiphysis

    • C. 

      Epiphyseal line

    • D. 

      Epiphyseal plate

  • 35. 
    A hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves is called a:
    • A. 

      Groove

    • B. 

      Foramen

    • C. 

      Fissure

    • D. 

      Facet

  • 36. 
    A term that means the same as "anterior" is:
    • A. 

      Plantar

    • B. 

      Distal

    • C. 

      Dorsal

    • D. 

      Ventral

  • 37. 
    The term that refers to parts away from the head of the body, or angling away from the head of the body is:
    • A. 

      Caudad

    • B. 

      Cephalad

    • C. 

      Medial

    • D. 

      Proximal

  • 38. 
    The term that refers to parts nearer the point of attachment, or origin is:
    • A. 

      Distal

    • B. 

      Proximal

    • C. 

      Caudad

    • D. 

      Cephalad

  • 39. 
    The term used to describe the sole of the foot is:
    • A. 

      Ventral

    • B. 

      Posterior

    • C. 

      Plantar

    • D. 

      Dorsal

  • 40. 
    Which of the following terms are used to describe x-ray "projections"? 1) AP 2) PA axial 3) supine
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 41. 
    Which of the following terms are used to describe "body positions"? 1) upright 2) axial 3) prone
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3

  • 42. 
    If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed:
    • A. 

      PA

    • B. 

      AP

    • C. 

      Lateral

    • D. 

      Axiolateral

  • 43. 
    Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient placed "lying on the back"?
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Lateral

    • D. 

      Recumbent

  • 44. 
    "Oblique" positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is:
    • A. 

      Closest to the x-ray tube

    • B. 

      The source of pathology

    • C. 

      Closest to the IR

    • D. 

      Farthest from the IR

  • 45. 
    Which of the following positioning terms indicates that the patient is "lying down" and the "central ray is horizontal" ?
    • A. 

      Lateral

    • B. 

      Decubitus

    • C. 

      Recumbent

    • D. 

      Mediolateral

  • 46. 
    Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body or body part is termed:
    • A. 

      Adduction

    • B. 

      Abduction

    • C. 

      Extension

    • D. 

      Flexion

  • 47. 
    Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces up is termed:
    • A. 

      Pronation

    • B. 

      Supination

    • C. 

      Abduction

    • D. 

      Adduction

  • 48. 
    The term that refers to a part on the opposite side of the body is:
    • A. 

      Distal

    • B. 

      Proximal

    • C. 

      Ipsilateral

    • D. 

      Contralateral

  • 49. 
    Study of the bones of the body is known as:
    • A. 

      Physiology

    • B. 

      Radiology

    • C. 

      Osteology

    • D. 

      Orthopedics

  • 50. 
    Which plane specifically divides the body into equal right and left halves?
    • A. 

      Axial

    • B. 

      Transverse

    • C. 

      Midcoronal

    • D. 

      Midsagittal

  • 51. 
    For which type of body habitus will the lungs be very short?
    • A. 

      Sthenic

    • B. 

      Asthenic

    • C. 

      Hyposthenic

    • D. 

      Hypersthenic

  • 52. 
    The appendicular skeleton allows the body to move in various positions.  How many bones does it contain?
    • A. 

      14

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      126

    • D. 

      206

  • 53. 
    What is the name of the tough, fibrous tissue that covers all bony surfaces?
    • A. 

      Endosteum

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Compact bone

    • D. 

      Spongy bone

  • 54. 
    The piece of cartilage that separates the end of a developing long bone from the central shaft is called the:
    • A. 

      Diaphysis

    • B. 

      Epiphysis

    • C. 

      Epiphyseal line

    • D. 

      Epiphyseal plate

  • 55. 
    The study of joints or articulations is known as:
    • A. 

      Arthrology

    • B. 

      Osteology

    • C. 

      Radiology

    • D. 

      Radiography

  • 56. 
    Which specific type of joint only permits flexion and extension?
    • A. 

      Hinge

    • B. 

      Gliding

    • C. 

      Pivot

    • D. 

      Saddle

  • 57. 
    Which of the following terms refers to the back part of a body or organ?
    • A. 

      Ventral

    • B. 

      Dorsal

    • C. 

      Distal

    • D. 

      Proximal

  • 58. 
    Reference toward the head of the body is termed:
    • A. 

      External

    • B. 

      Proximal

    • C. 

      Caudad

    • D. 

      Cephalad

  • 59. 
    A fracture that does not break through the skin is called a/an:
    • A. 

      Open fracture

    • B. 

      Closed fracture

    • C. 

      Displaced fracture

    • D. 

      Nondisplaced fracture

  • 60. 
    A serious fracture in which the bones arenot in anatomic alignment is called:
    • A. 

      Impacted

    • B. 

      Compression

    • C. 

      Displaced

    • D. 

      Nondisplaced

  • 61. 
    Which radiographic term refers to the degree of blackness between two adjacent areas on a radiograph?
    • A. 

      Density

    • B. 

      Contrast

    • C. 

      Magnification

    • D. 

      Recorded detail

  • 62. 
    Who is responsible for obtaining a necessary clinical history when the radiologist is unable to see the patient?
    • A. 

      Radiographer

    • B. 

      Radiology nurse

    • C. 

      Chief technologist

    • D. 

      Department receptionist

  • 63. 
    Which type of muscle tissue produces peristalsis?
    • A. 

      Cardiac

    • B. 

      Striated

    • C. 

      Smooth

  • 64. 
    Which changed in exposure factors should be used to control voluntary motion that is a result of the patient's age or mental illness?
    • A. 

      Increase the milliamperage

    • B. 

      Decrease the milliamperage

    • C. 

      Increase the exposure time

    • D. 

      Decrease the exposure time

  • 65. 
    Which piece of information is not required as part of the identification of radiographs?
    • A. 

      Name of the patient

    • B. 

      Date of the examination

    • C. 

      Name of the radiographer

    • D. 

      Name of the medical facility

  • 66. 
    Why is it desirable to collimate to the area of interest?
    • A. 

      Lengthens the scale of contrast

    • B. 

      Reduces the required milliamperage

    • C. 

      Reduces the amount of scatter radiation produced

    • D. 

      Compensates for an increase in object-to-image receptor distance (OID)

  • 67. 
    Which computed radiography accessory houses the image storage phosphors that acquire the latent image?
    • A. 

      Image reader

    • B. 

      Control panel

    • C. 

      Imaging plate

    • D. 

      Video monitor

  • 68. 
    How is a radiographic image affected when the radiation beam is restricted to the area under examination only?
    • A. 

      Improved recorded detail and increased radiographic density

    • B. 

      Improved recorded detail and increased radiographic contrast

    • C. 

      Reduction in part magnification and increased radiographic density

    • D. 

      Reduction in part magnification and increased radiographic contrast

  • 69. 
    How many rads equal 1 gray (Gy)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      1000

  • 70. 
    What is the basic difference between the rem and other radiation units?
    • A. 

      The rem is the SI unit for radiation dose

    • B. 

      The rem is used only for radiation protection purposes

    • C. 

      The rem is used to indicate the activity level of radionuclides

    • D. 

      The rem is used to indicate the exposure rate for a given exposure

  • 71. 
    Which radiation unit refers to the amount of occupational exposure received by radiographers?
    • A. 

      Millirads (or mGy)

    • B. 

      Milliroentgens (or C/kg)

    • C. 

      Millicuries (or mBq)

    • D. 

      Millirems (or mSv)

  • 72. 
    Which condition is considered an early effect of radiation exposure?
    • A. 

      Cancer

    • B. 

      Leukemia

    • C. 

      Cataracts

    • D. 

      Skin erythema

  • 73. 
    Which radiation injury exhibits a threshold type of dose-response relationship?
    • A. 

      Cancer

    • B. 

      Leukemia

    • C. 

      Skin erythema

    • D. 

      Solid tumor neoplasia

  • 74. 
    Which area of the body can best withstand the effects of radiation exposure?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Hands

    • C. 

      Forearms

    • D. 

      Lenses of the eyes

  • 75. 
    Which radiographic examination produces the greatest exposure to the radiographer?
    • A. 

      Skull

    • B. 

      Fluoroscopy

    • C. 

      Excretory urography

    • D. 

      Lumbar vertebral column

  • 76. 
    Where should the radiographer wear a TLD during fluoroscopic procedures?
    • A. 

      Under the lead apron, at the level of the waist

    • B. 

      Under the lead apron, at the level of the collar

    • C. 

      Outside the lead apron, at the level of the waist

    • D. 

      Outside the lead apron, at the level of the collar

  • 77. 
    Where should a pregnant radiographer wear a "baby badge" (fetal monitor) during fluoroscopic procedures?
    • A. 

      Under the lead apron, at the level of the waist

    • B. 

      Under the lead apron, at the level of the collar

    • C. 

      Outside the lead apron, at the level of the waist

    • D. 

      Outside the lead apron, at the level of the collar

  • 78. 
    Which term refers to the study of the function of the body organs?
    • A. 

      Anatomy

    • B. 

      Osteology

    • C. 

      Physiology

  • 79. 
    Which are the four fundamental body planes?
    • A. 

      Sagittal, coronal, horizontal, and oblique

    • B. 

      Sagittal, coronal, midaxillary, and transverse

    • C. 

      Midsagittal, midcoronal, horizontal, and oblique

    • D. 

      Midsagittal, midcoronal, midaxillary,and transverse

  • 80. 
    In which quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located?
    • A. 

      Right upper quadrant

    • B. 

      Right lower quadrant

    • C. 

      Left upper quadrant

    • D. 

      Left lower quadrant

  • 81. 
    Which vertebra is located at the level of the xiphoid process?
    • A. 

      C7

    • B. 

      T7

    • C. 

      T10

    • D. 

      L3

  • 82. 
    Which body habitus represents a person of large, massive stature in whom the stomach is located high and clearly horizontal within the abdomen?
    • A. 

      Sthenic

    • B. 

      Asthenic

    • C. 

      Hyposthenic

    • D. 

      Hypersthenic

  • 83. 
    Bones are classified according to their:
    • A. 

      Size

    • B. 

      Shape

    • C. 

      Function

    • D. 

      Origination

  • 84. 
    Which bone classifications are vertebrae?
    • A. 

      Flat

    • B. 

      Long

    • C. 

      Short

    • D. 

      Irregular

  • 85. 
    Which term specifically refers to the study of the joints?
    • A. 

      Anatomy

    • B. 

      Osteology

    • C. 

      Arthrology

    • D. 

      Physiology

  • 86. 
    Which functional classification of articulations refers to joints that have only linited or slight movement?
    • A. 

      Diarthroses

    • B. 

      Synarthroses

    • C. 

      Amphiarthroses

  • 87. 
    Which structural classification of articulations are cranial sutures?
    • A. 

      Fibrous

    • B. 

      Synovial

    • C. 

      Cartilaginous

  • 88. 
    Which of the following joints is an example of a condyloid joint?
    • A. 

      Hip

    • B. 

      Intercarpal

    • C. 

      Interphalangeal

    • D. 

      Metacarpophalangeal

  • 89. 
    Which term refers to a body part on the opposite side of the body?
    • A. 

      Ipsilateral

    • B. 

      Contralateral

    • C. 

      Proximal

    • D. 

      Distal

  • 90. 
    The hand consists of how many bones?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      27

    • D. 

      32

  • 91. 
    How many phalanges are there in the hand?
    • A. 

      14

    • B. 

      27

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      32

  • 92. 
    At the lateral (thumb) side of the hand, the digit is called the:
    • A. 

      Lateral digit

    • B. 

      First digit

    • C. 

      Medial digit

    • D. 

      Fifth digit

  • 93. 
    The palm of the hand is formed by:
    • A. 

      Five carpals

    • B. 

      Five metacarpals

    • C. 

      Eight carpals

    • D. 

      Eight metacarpals

  • 94. 
    Which of the following bones make up the wrist?
    • A. 

      Five carpals

    • B. 

      Five metacarpals

    • C. 

      Eight carpals

    • D. 

      Eight metacarpals

  • 95. 
    The first bone located on the proximal row and lateral side of the wrist is called the:
    • A. 

      Trapezoid

    • B. 

      Trapezium

    • C. 

      Lunate

    • D. 

      Scaphoid

  • 96. 
    Which of the following is the largest carpal bone?
    • A. 

      Capitate

    • B. 

      Hamate

    • C. 

      Scaphoid

    • D. 

      Triquetrum

  • 97. 
    The third metacarpal of the hand articulates with the:
    • A. 

      Lunate

    • B. 

      Scaphoid

    • C. 

      Hamate

    • D. 

      Capitate

  • 98. 
    The forearm consists of which of the following bones?  1) ulna  2) radius  3) humerus
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      1 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, and 3