Radr1311 Final
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Final review for RADR 1311 Basic Radiographic Procedures
- 1.The primary controlling factor of radiography contrast is:
- A.
MA
- B.
Time
- C.
KVp
- D.
SID
- 2.The ability to visualize very small structures on a radiograph is termed:
- A.
Contrast
- B.
Density
- C.
Distortion
- D.
Recorded detail
- 3.Radiographs of the hands, wrists, feet, and toes are routinely displayed on the view box with the digits:
- A.
Positional toward the ceiling
- B.
Positional toward the floor
- C.
Horizontal and pointed to the left
- D.
Horizontal and pointed to the right
- 4.The total destruction of microorganisms is accomplised through the use of:
- A.
Disinfectants
- B.
Sterilization
- C.
Germicides
- D.
Antiseptics
- 5.Voluntary motion resulting from lack of control can be caused by: 1) fear 2) age (child) 3) tremors
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 6.Radiographers can control voluntary motion by:
- A.
Using a high kVp
- B.
Increasing the length of exposure time
- C.
Performing the examination in the recumbent position
- D.
Giving clear instructions to the patient
- 7.All radiographs must be identified with which of the following? 1) radiographer's name 2) patient's name or ID number 3) right or left marker
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 8.The metric conversion of 40 inches is:
- A.
16 cm
- B.
18 cm
- C.
90 cm
- D.
102 cm
- 9.Collimation of the x-ray beam prompts which of the following: 1) an increase in radiographic contrast 2) reduction of scatter and secondary radiation 3) reduction in radiation to the patient
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 10.Federal guidelines require gonad shielding for which of the following: 1) when the gonads lie in the primary beam 2) if the clinical objective of the exam is not compromised 3) when the patient has resonable reproductive potential
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 11.Which of the following devices are considered image receptors? 1) television monitor 2) IR with phosphor plate 3) IR with film
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 12.Recorded detail is primarily controlled by 1) mA 2) screens 3) focal spot size
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 13.The phosphors in computed radiography IRs are very sensitive to:
- A.
KVp
- B.
Dust
- C.
Collimation
- D.
Scatter radiation
- 14.Radiographers receive approximately how much radiation per year?
- A.
50 mrad
- B.
60 mrad
- C.
50 rad
- D.
70 rad
- 15.The unit of radiation absorbed dose is the:
- A.
Roentgen
- B.
Rad
- C.
Rem
- D.
Coulomb
- 16.Occupational exposure is measured in which of the following units?
- A.
Rad
- B.
Rem
- C.
Currie
- D.
Roentgen
- 17.During the course of normal x-ray examinations, the radiographer receives at least 95% of occupational exposure from: 1) fluoroscopy 2) portable radiography 3) stomach and upper GI examinations
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 18.The minimum amount of aluminum equivalent filtration that must be present at the port of all fluoroscopic tubes and all radiographic tubes operating above 70 kVp is:
- A.
1.0 mm
- B.
1.5 mm
- C.
2.5 mm
- D.
3.0 mm
- 19.The radiographic technique that will produce the lowest patient dose is
- A.
High kVp, low mAs
- B.
Low kVp, high mAs
- C.
High mA, short exposure time
- D.
Low mA, long exposure time
- 20.When a pregnant patient must be examined, the examination should be done using which of the following? 1) precisely collimated beams 2) carefully positioned protective shields 3) use of a high kVp technique
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 21.The cardinal principles of radiation protection include which of the following? 1) time 2) distance 3) screen speed
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 22.During fluoroscopy, the personnel monitor (radiation badge) should be worn:
- A.
Outside the apron - at the collar
- B.
Inside the apron - at the collar
- C.
Outside the apron - at the waist
- D.
Inside the apron - at the waist
- 23.In the anatomic position the palms of the hands are facing:
- A.
Backward
- B.
Forward
- C.
Up
- D.
Down
- 24.A plane passsing vertically through the body from side to side is termed:
- A.
Oblique
- B.
Sagittal
- C.
Coronal
- D.
Horizontal
- 25.Which of the following would not be located in the thoracic cavity?
- A.
Trachea
- B.
Spleen
- C.
Lungs
- D.
Esophagus
- 26.How many regions is the abdomen divided into?
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
Nine
- 27.L4 and L5 are located at the level of the:
- A.
Costal margin
- B.
Superior iliac spine
- C.
Level of the umbilicus
- D.
Superior aspect of the iliac crests
- 28.Which of the following is not one of the four types of body habitus?
- A.
Atrophic
- B.
Sthenic
- C.
Asthenic
- D.
Hypersthenic
- 29.Approximately what percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus?
- A.
5%
- B.
10%
- C.
35%
- D.
50%
- 30.The adult skeleton is composed of how many bones?
- A.
185
- B.
200
- C.
206
- D.
208
- 31.Bones are composed of an outer layer of compact bony tissue called the:
- A.
Compact bone
- B.
Periosteum
- C.
Spongy tissue
- D.
Medullary canal
- 32.How many specific types of synovial joints are there?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
- 33.Which specific type of joint allows multiaxial movement?
- A.
Pivot
- B.
Gliding
- C.
Ellipsoid
- D.
Ball and socket
- 34.After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. Each end is called the:
- A.
Diaphysis
- B.
Epiphysis
- C.
Epiphyseal line
- D.
Epiphyseal plate
- 35.A hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves is called a:
- A.
Groove
- B.
Foramen
- C.
Fissure
- D.
Facet
- 36.A term that means the same as "anterior" is:
- A.
Plantar
- B.
Distal
- C.
Dorsal
- D.
Ventral
- 37.The term that refers to parts away from the head of the body, or angling away from the head of the body is:
- A.
Caudad
- B.
Cephalad
- C.
Medial
- D.
Proximal
- 38.The term that refers to parts nearer the point of attachment, or origin is:
- A.
Distal
- B.
Proximal
- C.
Caudad
- D.
Cephalad
- 39.The term used to describe the sole of the foot is:
- A.
Ventral
- B.
Posterior
- C.
Plantar
- D.
Dorsal
- 40.Which of the following terms are used to describe x-ray "projections"? 1) AP 2) PA axial 3) supine
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 41.Which of the following terms are used to describe "body positions"? 1) upright 2) axial 3) prone
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
- 42.If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed:
- A.
PA
- B.
AP
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Axiolateral
- 43.Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient placed "lying on the back"?
- A.
Supine
- B.
Prone
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Recumbent
- 44."Oblique" positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is:
- A.
Closest to the x-ray tube
- B.
The source of pathology
- C.
Closest to the IR
- D.
Farthest from the IR
- 45.Which of the following positioning terms indicates that the patient is "lying down" and the "central ray is horizontal" ?
- A.
Lateral
- B.
Decubitus
- C.
Recumbent
- D.
Mediolateral
- 46.Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body or body part is termed:
- A.
Adduction
- B.
Abduction
- C.
Extension
- D.
Flexion
- 47.Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces up is termed:
- A.
Pronation
- B.
Supination
- C.
Abduction
- D.
Adduction
- 48.The term that refers to a part on the opposite side of the body is:
- A.
Distal
- B.
Proximal
- C.
Ipsilateral
- D.
Contralateral
- 49.Study of the bones of the body is known as:
- A.
Physiology
- B.
Radiology
- C.
Osteology
- D.
Orthopedics
- 50.Which plane specifically divides the body into equal right and left halves?
- A.
Axial
- B.
Transverse
- C.
Midcoronal
- D.
Midsagittal
- 51.For which type of body habitus will the lungs be very short?
- A.
Sthenic
- B.
Asthenic
- C.
Hyposthenic
- D.
Hypersthenic
- 52.The appendicular skeleton allows the body to move in various positions. How many bones does it contain?
- A.
14
- B.
80
- C.
126
- D.
206
- 53.What is the name of the tough, fibrous tissue that covers all bony surfaces?
- A.
Endosteum
- B.
Periosteum
- C.
Compact bone
- D.
Spongy bone
- 54.The piece of cartilage that separates the end of a developing long bone from the central shaft is called the:
- A.
Diaphysis
- B.
Epiphysis
- C.
Epiphyseal line
- D.
Epiphyseal plate
- 55.The study of joints or articulations is known as:
- A.
Arthrology
- B.
Osteology
- C.
Radiology
- D.
Radiography
- 56.Which specific type of joint only permits flexion and extension?
- A.
Hinge
- B.
Gliding
- C.
Pivot
- D.
Saddle
- 57.Which of the following terms refers to the back part of a body or organ?
- A.
Ventral
- B.
Dorsal
- C.
Distal
- D.
Proximal
- 58.Reference toward the head of the body is termed:
- A.
External
- B.
Proximal
- C.
Caudad
- D.
Cephalad
- 59.A fracture that does not break through the skin is called a/an:
- A.
Open fracture
- B.
Closed fracture
- C.
Displaced fracture
- D.
Nondisplaced fracture
- 60.A serious fracture in which the bones arenot in anatomic alignment is called:
- A.
Impacted
- B.
Compression
- C.
Displaced
- D.
Nondisplaced
- 61.Which radiographic term refers to the degree of blackness between two adjacent areas on a radiograph?
- A.
Density
- B.
Contrast
- C.
Magnification
- D.
Recorded detail
- 62.Who is responsible for obtaining a necessary clinical history when the radiologist is unable to see the patient?
- A.
Radiographer
- B.
Radiology nurse
- C.
Chief technologist
- D.
Department receptionist
- 63.Which type of muscle tissue produces peristalsis?
- A.
Cardiac
- B.
Striated
- C.
Smooth
- 64.Which changed in exposure factors should be used to control voluntary motion that is a result of the patient's age or mental illness?
- A.
Increase the milliamperage
- B.
Decrease the milliamperage
- C.
Increase the exposure time
- D.
Decrease the exposure time
- 65.Which piece of information is not required as part of the identification of radiographs?
- A.
Name of the patient
- B.
Date of the examination
- C.
Name of the radiographer
- D.
Name of the medical facility
- 66.Why is it desirable to collimate to the area of interest?
- A.
Lengthens the scale of contrast
- B.
Reduces the required milliamperage
- C.
Reduces the amount of scatter radiation produced
- D.
Compensates for an increase in object-to-image receptor distance (OID)
- 67.Which computed radiography accessory houses the image storage phosphors that acquire the latent image?
- A.
Image reader
- B.
Control panel
- C.
Imaging plate
- D.
Video monitor
- 68.How is a radiographic image affected when the radiation beam is restricted to the area under examination only?
- A.
Improved recorded detail and increased radiographic density
- B.
Improved recorded detail and increased radiographic contrast
- C.
Reduction in part magnification and increased radiographic density
- D.
Reduction in part magnification and increased radiographic contrast
- 69.How many rads equal 1 gray (Gy)?
- A.
1
- B.
10
- C.
100
- D.
1000
- 70.What is the basic difference between the rem and other radiation units?
- A.
The rem is the SI unit for radiation dose
- B.
The rem is used only for radiation protection purposes
- C.
The rem is used to indicate the activity level of radionuclides
- D.
The rem is used to indicate the exposure rate for a given exposure
- 71.Which radiation unit refers to the amount of occupational exposure received by radiographers?
- A.
Millirads (or mGy)
- B.
Milliroentgens (or C/kg)
- C.
Millicuries (or mBq)
- D.
Millirems (or mSv)
- 72.Which condition is considered an early effect of radiation exposure?
- A.
Cancer
- B.
Leukemia
- C.
Cataracts
- D.
Skin erythema
- 73.Which radiation injury exhibits a threshold type of dose-response relationship?
- A.
Cancer
- B.
Leukemia
- C.
Skin erythema
- D.
Solid tumor neoplasia
- 74.Which area of the body can best withstand the effects of radiation exposure?
- A.
Skin
- B.
Hands
- C.
Forearms
- D.
Lenses of the eyes
- 75.Which radiographic examination produces the greatest exposure to the radiographer?
- A.
Skull
- B.
Fluoroscopy
- C.
Excretory urography
- D.
Lumbar vertebral column
- 76.Where should the radiographer wear a TLD during fluoroscopic procedures?
- A.
Under the lead apron, at the level of the waist
- B.
Under the lead apron, at the level of the collar
- C.
Outside the lead apron, at the level of the waist
- D.
Outside the lead apron, at the level of the collar
- 77.Where should a pregnant radiographer wear a "baby badge" (fetal monitor) during fluoroscopic procedures?
- A.
Under the lead apron, at the level of the waist
- B.
Under the lead apron, at the level of the collar
- C.
Outside the lead apron, at the level of the waist
- D.
Outside the lead apron, at the level of the collar
- 78.Which term refers to the study of the function of the body organs?
- A.
Anatomy
- B.
Osteology
- C.
Physiology
- 79.Which are the four fundamental body planes?
- A.
Sagittal, coronal, horizontal, and oblique
- B.
Sagittal, coronal, midaxillary, and transverse
- C.
Midsagittal, midcoronal, horizontal, and oblique
- D.
Midsagittal, midcoronal, midaxillary,and transverse
- 80.In which quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located?
- A.
Right upper quadrant
- B.
Right lower quadrant
- C.
Left upper quadrant
- D.
Left lower quadrant
- 81.Which vertebra is located at the level of the xiphoid process?
- A.
C7
- B.
T7
- C.
T10
- D.
L3
- 82.Which body habitus represents a person of large, massive stature in whom the stomach is located high and clearly horizontal within the abdomen?
- A.
Sthenic
- B.
Asthenic
- C.
Hyposthenic
- D.
Hypersthenic
- 83.Bones are classified according to their:
- A.
Size
- B.
Shape
- C.
Function
- D.
Origination
- 84.Which bone classifications are vertebrae?
- A.
Flat
- B.
Long
- C.
Short
- D.
Irregular
- 85.Which term specifically refers to the study of the joints?
- A.
Anatomy
- B.
Osteology
- C.
Arthrology
- D.
Physiology
- 86.Which functional classification of articulations refers to joints that have only linited or slight movement?
- A.
Diarthroses
- B.
Synarthroses
- C.
Amphiarthroses
- 87.Which structural classification of articulations are cranial sutures?
- A.
Fibrous
- B.
Synovial
- C.
Cartilaginous
- 88.Which of the following joints is an example of a condyloid joint?
- A.
Hip
- B.
Intercarpal
- C.
Interphalangeal
- D.
Metacarpophalangeal
- 89.Which term refers to a body part on the opposite side of the body?
- A.
Ipsilateral
- B.
Contralateral
- C.
Proximal
- D.
Distal
- 90.The hand consists of how many bones?
- A.
8
- B.
14
- C.
27
- D.
32
- 91.How many phalanges are there in the hand?
- A.
14
- B.
27
- C.
30
- D.
32
- 92.At the lateral (thumb) side of the hand, the digit is called the:
- A.
Lateral digit
- B.
First digit
- C.
Medial digit
- D.
Fifth digit
- 93.The palm of the hand is formed by:
- A.
Five carpals
- B.
Five metacarpals
- C.
Eight carpals
- D.
Eight metacarpals
- 94.Which of the following bones make up the wrist?
- A.
Five carpals
- B.
Five metacarpals
- C.
Eight carpals
- D.
Eight metacarpals
- 95.The first bone located on the proximal row and lateral side of the wrist is called the:
- A.
Trapezoid
- B.
Trapezium
- C.
Lunate
- D.
Scaphoid
- 96.Which of the following is the largest carpal bone?
- A.
Capitate
- B.
Hamate
- C.
Scaphoid
- D.
Triquetrum
- 97.The third metacarpal of the hand articulates with the:
- A.
Lunate
- B.
Scaphoid
- C.
Hamate
- D.
Capitate
- 98.The forearm consists of which of the following bones? 1) ulna 2) radius 3) humerus
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
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