Quiz #5 Additional Recording Sites And Other Procedures P68-129
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This quiz covers additional recording sites, cranial nerves, brainstem auditory evoked potentials, bone threshold studies, and anesthetic agents.
- 1.
Which of the following is NOT true about the intercostales externi?
- A.
There are 12 pairs
- B.
Needle placement should parallel the superior border of the ribs
- C.
The inferior border of the ribs can be easily injured due to neurovascular structures
- D.
The action aids in respiration
Correct Answer
A. There are 12 pairsExplanation
There are only 11 pairs of intercostales externi.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Innervation for the Obliquus Externus Abdominis is the ventral rami of the lower six thoracic nerves.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The innervation for the Obliquus Externus Abdominis is provided by the ventral rami of the lower six thoracic nerves. This means that the lower six thoracic nerves send branches to supply motor and sensory fibers to the Obliquus Externus Abdominis muscle. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The sartorius muscle group is innervated by L3 and L4.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The sartorius muscle group has innervation at L2 and L3.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What muscle group flexes the ankle joint?
- A.
The Vastus Lateralis
- B.
The Vastus Medialis
- C.
The Tibialis Anterior
- D.
The Extensor Hallucis Longus
Correct Answer
C. The Tibialis AnteriorExplanation
The Tibialis Anterior is the correct answer because it is the muscle responsible for flexing the ankle joint. It is located on the front of the lower leg and helps to lift the foot upwards and towards the body. This muscle is important for activities such as walking, running, and jumping, as it helps to control the movement of the ankle joint.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What muscle group everts and plantar flexes the foot?
- A.
The Abductor Hallucis
- B.
The Peroneus Longus
- C.
The Flexor Digitorum Brevis
- D.
The Tibial Anterior
Correct Answer
B. The Peroneus LongusExplanation
The Peroneus Longus is the correct answer because it is a muscle that is responsible for eversion and plantar flexion of the foot. Eversion refers to the movement of the foot turning outward, away from the midline of the body, while plantar flexion refers to the movement of pointing the foot downwards. The Peroneus Longus muscle runs along the outer side of the lower leg and connects to the foot, allowing it to perform these movements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The auditory or VIII cranial nerve may be monitored with auditory inserts and cochlear electrodes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because the auditory or VIII cranial nerve can indeed be monitored using auditory inserts and cochlear electrodes. These tools are commonly used in medical procedures to assess the function of the auditory nerve and detect any abnormalities or hearing impairments. By measuring the electrical activity in the auditory nerve, healthcare professionals can gather valuable information about a patient's hearing abilities and make appropriate treatment recommendations.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which cranial nerve is not monitored during cranial surgery?
- A.
Cranial Nerve X, Vagus
- B.
Cranial Nerve VII, Facial
- C.
Cranial Nerve II, Optic
- D.
Cranial Nerve I, Olfactory
Correct Answer
D. Cranial Nerve I, OlfactoryExplanation
The olfactory nerve is related to smell and can only be tested when the patient is awake.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which muscle or muscles elevate the mandible to close the mouth?
- A.
The Masseter
- B.
The Temporalis
- C.
The Orbicularis Oris
- D.
A & B above
Correct Answer
D. A & B aboveExplanation
The correct answer is A & B above. Both the Masseter and Temporalis muscles are responsible for elevating the mandible to close the mouth. The Masseter muscle is the primary muscle involved in the closing of the jaw, while the Temporalis muscle also contributes to this movement. The Orbicularis Oris muscle, on the other hand, is responsible for closing and puckering the lips, not for elevating the mandible.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The cricoid cartilage is involved in speech.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The cricoid cartilage is a ring-shaped structure located at the base of the larynx. It plays a crucial role in speech production by providing support and stability to the vocal cords. The vocal cords, which are stretched across the larynx, vibrate to produce sound when air passes through them. The cricoid cartilage helps maintain the tension and position of the vocal cords, allowing for the production of different pitches and tones during speech. Therefore, it is correct to say that the cricoid cartilage is involved in speech.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A brainstem auditory evoked potential procedure can be used for all of the following scenarios except:
- A.
To monitor the VIII cranial nerve during acoustic neuroma surgery
- B.
To monitor the VIII cranial nerve during craniotomies
- C.
To monitor the VIII cranial nerve during the removal of brainstem lesions.
- D.
To monitor patients who have no preoperative hearing function
Correct Answer
D. To monitor patients who have no preoperative hearing functionExplanation
A patient must be able to hear because an auditory evolked potential is accomplished by using stimulation to the nerve via rarefaction, condensation and/or alternating stimuli with masking of the contralateral ear with white noise which would not be perceived by a nonhearing patient.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Placement of electrodes over the Achilles tendon may be used for what type of study?
- A.
Bone threshold studies for pedicle screw placement
- B.
Bone density testing
- C.
H-Wave to the gastrocnemius nerve conduction study
- D.
Oxygen saturation monitoring
Correct Answer
C. H-Wave to the gastrocnemius nerve conduction studyExplanation
The placement of electrodes over the Achilles tendon may be used for an H-Wave to the gastrocnemius nerve conduction study. This type of study involves measuring the conduction of electrical signals along the gastrocnemius nerve in the calf muscle. The Achilles tendon is located near the gastrocnemius muscle and is commonly used as a reference point for electrode placement in this study. By measuring the conduction of nerve signals, this study can help evaluate the function and integrity of the gastrocnemius nerve and identify any abnormalities or damage.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Bone threshold studies are accomplished by stimulating the lamina next to the pedicle until a triggered response is achieved. In which of the following scenarios might this procedure be used?
- A.
To evaluate bone density
- B.
Before stimulating implants to determine the intensity of a triggered EMG response.
- C.
To assist with pedicle placement adjacent to the lamina
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
This procedure might be used in all of the above scenarios. Bone threshold studies are performed to evaluate bone density, determine the intensity of a triggered EMG response before stimulating implants, and assist with pedicle placement adjacent to the lamina.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Oxygen saturation monitoring may be used in which of the following:
- A.
Anterior procedures of the lumbar spine
- B.
Anterior lumbar discectomies
- C.
Disc Replacement surgery
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Oxygen saturation monitoring is a technique used to measure the percentage of oxygen in the blood. It is important in surgeries that involve the lumbar spine, such as anterior procedures and discectomies, as well as disc replacement surgeries. Monitoring oxygen saturation during these procedures helps ensure that the patient is receiving enough oxygen and can alert the medical team to any potential complications or issues with oxygen levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 14.
To determine if a neuromuscular blockade has worn off, the IOM technician may rely on information from all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
EMG response testing
- B.
Train of four
- C.
Finger twitch response
- D.
Toe twitch response
Correct Answer
A. EMG response testingExplanation
The IOM technician may rely on information from the train of four, finger twitch response, and toe twitch response to determine if a neuromuscular blockade has worn off. EMG response testing is not used for this purpose. EMG response testing measures the electrical activity of muscles and is typically used to diagnose nerve and muscle disorders, rather than to assess the level of neuromuscular blockade.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Benzodiazepines are intravenous anesthetic agents often used in pre-op to "take the edge off."
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Benzodiazepines are commonly used as intravenous anesthetic agents before surgical procedures to help patients relax and reduce anxiety. This statement is true because benzodiazepines are indeed used in pre-op settings to "take the edge off" and alleviate any nervousness or tension that patients may experience before undergoing surgery.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Muscle relaxants can cause which of the following:
- A.
Temporary paralyis
- B.
Enhances the exposure
- C.
Facilitates intubation
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Muscle relaxants can cause temporary paralysis, enhance exposure, and facilitate intubation. Temporary paralysis is a common effect of muscle relaxants, as they work by blocking the signals between the nerves and muscles, leading to muscle relaxation and temporary loss of movement. Muscle relaxation also enhances exposure during surgical procedures, allowing better access to the surgical site. Additionally, muscle relaxants can facilitate intubation by relaxing the muscles in the airway, making it easier to insert a breathing tube. Therefore, all of the given options are correct.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Large doses of brevital, a barbituate, can increase latency and decrease cortical amplitude.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Large doses of brevital, a barbiturate, can indeed increase latency and decrease cortical amplitude. Barbiturates like brevital are central nervous system depressants that slow down brain activity. When taken in large doses, they can significantly reduce the speed at which nerve signals travel, leading to increased latency. Additionally, they can also decrease the amplitude of cortical activity, resulting in a weaker and less pronounced brain wave pattern. Therefore, the statement "Large doses of brevital, a barbituate, can increase latency and decrease cortical amplitude" is true.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Amidate, a nonbarbituate, can inhibit MEPs but has no effect on EMGs.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Amidate may enhance the SSEP but has no effect on MEPs, but Precedex, another nonbarbituate, can inhibit MEPs.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Alfenta, Fentanyl, and Sufenta are narcotics that have no effecton EMGs or MEPs.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because narcotics like Alfenta, Fentanyl, and Sufenta do not have any effect on EMGs (electromyograms) or MEPs (motor evoked potentials). EMGs are used to measure the electrical activity of muscles, while MEPs are used to assess the function of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. Narcotics primarily act on the central nervous system to relieve pain and do not directly affect muscle activity or motor pathways.Rate this question:
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- 20.
An alveolar concentration of an inhalation agent is defined as the concentration of vapor in the lungs needed to prevent movement in what percentage of subjects?
- A.
25 percent
- B.
50 percent
- C.
75 percent
- D.
100 percent
Correct Answer
B. 50 percentExplanation
This is also sometimes called the mean alveolar concentration (MAC).Rate this question:
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May 04, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 16, 2012Quiz Created by
Richard Slepian
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