PSW Practice Test Questions And Answers!

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PSW Practice Test Questions And Answers! - Quiz

Get ready to ace your PSW certification with our PSW Practice Test Questions And Answers! This quiz is designed to help you prepare for the Personal Support Worker (PSW) certification exam by testing your knowledge on key concepts and skills required in the field.
This practice test is designed to simulate the actual PSW certification exam, allowing individuals to assess their knowledge and readiness before taking the real test. By answering a variety of questions covering topics such as patient care, communication skills, safety protocols, and more, aspiring PSWs can identify areas where they may need further study and practice. Read more


PSW Practice Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    You attend a dinner party and have a drink of water from the host. A few days later, you, as well as many of the guests, get very sick with diarrhea. The transmission route for this case is:

    • A.

      Vectorborne Transmission

    • B.

      Vehicle Transmission

    • C.

      Contact Transmission

    • D.

      Droplet Transmission

    Correct Answer
    B. Vehicle Transmission
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the transmission route for the illness is vehicle transmission. Vehicle transmission refers to the spread of a disease through contaminated food, water, or any other inanimate object. Since the guests got sick after having a drink of water from the host, it suggests that the water was contaminated with a pathogen that caused the illness. This supports the vehicle transmission route as the most likely explanation for the spread of the disease.

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  • 2. 

    All of the following are steps you should do when using a fire extinguisher, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Pull the Pin Out

    • B.

      Aim at the base of the fire

    • C.

      Squeeze the handle

    • D.

      Open the canister

    Correct Answer
    D. Open the canister
    Explanation
    When using a fire extinguisher, the steps include pulling the pin out, aiming at the base of the fire, and squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent. However, opening the canister is not a step that should be done when using a fire extinguisher. Fire extinguishers are designed to be used by simply squeezing the handle, which activates the extinguishing agent. Opening the canister would not be necessary and could potentially be dangerous.

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  • 3. 

    The term to describe "difficulty breathing" is:

    • A.

      Bradypnea

    • B.

      Dysuria

    • C.

      Orthopnea

    • D.

      Dyspnea

    Correct Answer
    D. Dyspnea
    Explanation
    Dyspnea is the correct term to describe "difficulty breathing." It is a medical term used to refer to the sensation of breathlessness or shortness of breath. It can be caused by various factors such as lung diseases, heart problems, or anxiety. Dyspnea is often associated with a feeling of tightness in the chest and can be a symptom of underlying medical conditions.

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  • 4. 

    The back-lying position is called:

    • A.

      Fowler's Position

    • B.

      Supine Position

    • C.

      Lateral Position

    • D.

      Prone Position

    Correct Answer
    B. Supine Position
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Supine Position. Supine position refers to lying flat on the back with the face and torso facing upward. This position is commonly used in medical settings for various procedures and examinations, as it allows for easy access to the front of the body. It is also a recommended sleeping position for individuals with certain medical conditions, as it helps maintain a neutral spine alignment.

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  • 5. 

    When transferring a client to bed, a chair, or the toilet:

    • A.

      The client's strong side is moved first.

    • B.

      The weak side is moved first.

    • C.

      Pillows are used for support.

    • D.

      The transfer belt cannot be used.

    Correct Answer
    A. The client's strong side is moved first.
    Explanation
    When transferring a client to bed, a chair, or the toilet, it is important to move the client's strong side first. This is because the strong side provides more stability and support during the transfer. By moving the strong side first, the client can maintain their balance and reduce the risk of falls or injuries. Additionally, moving the strong side first allows the client to actively participate in the transfer, promoting their independence and confidence.

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  • 6. 

    Your patient is "ambulating." This means:

    • A.

      He is getting transferred to another facility via ambulance.

    • B.

      He is walking.

    • C.

      He is in a wheelchair.

    • D.

      He is sitting on a walker.

    Correct Answer
    B. He is walking.
    Explanation
    The term "ambulating" refers to the act of walking. Therefore, if the patient is described as "ambulating," it means that they are able to walk on their own.

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  • 7. 

    Your client has "muscle atrophy." This means:

    • A.

      The loss of muscle strength from inactivity.

    • B.

      Moving a body part toward the midline of the body.

    • C.

      Excessive straightening of a body part.

    • D.

      A decrease in size or a wasting away of muscle.

    Correct Answer
    D. A decrease in size or a wasting away of muscle.
    Explanation
    Muscle atrophy refers to a decrease in size or a wasting away of muscle. This condition occurs when the muscles are not used or exercised regularly, leading to a loss of muscle strength. It can be caused by various factors such as immobility, lack of physical activity, or certain medical conditions. The term "muscle atrophy" does not refer to moving a body part toward the midline of the body or excessive straightening of a body part.

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  • 8. 

    "Orthostatic hypotension" refers to:

    • A.

      A drop in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits down.

    • B.

      A rise in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits down.

    • C.

      Blood pressure drops in the joint areas.

    • D.

      A loss of calcium in orthotics.

    Correct Answer
    A. A drop in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits down.
    Explanation
    Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits down. This condition occurs when there is a sudden change in body position, causing blood to pool in the lower extremities and resulting in a decrease in blood pressure. Symptoms may include dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting. It is important to monitor and manage orthostatic hypotension to prevent falls and other complications. The other options, a rise in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits down, blood pressure drops in the joint areas, and a loss of calcium in orthotics, do not accurately describe orthostatic hypotension.

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  • 9. 

    "Trochanter rolls" are used for:

    • A.

      A special bread is served to diabetic patients.

    • B.

      Preventing the abdomen and arms from turning outward.

    • C.

      Preventing the hips and legs from turning outward.

    • D.

      A special bread is served to people with Congestive heart failure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Preventing the hips and legs from turning outward.
    Explanation
    Trochanter rolls are used to prevent the hips and legs from turning outward. The trochanter is a bony prominence located on the upper part of the femur (thigh bone). By placing a roll or cushion along the outer side of the hip and thigh, it helps to maintain proper alignment and prevent the legs from rotating outward. This can be particularly beneficial for individuals who have undergone hip surgery or have conditions that affect their hip joint stability. By using trochanter rolls, the risk of hip dislocation or misalignment can be reduced, promoting better mobility and preventing further complications.

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  • 10. 

    You need to do laundry, dust surfaces, and mop the floor. In which order should you do these tasks?

    • A.

      Do laundry, dust, and mop.

    • B.

      Dust, mop, do laundry.

    • C.

      Mop, do laundry, dust.

    • D.

      Do laundry, mop, dust.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do laundry, dust, and mop.
    Explanation
    The correct order to do these tasks is to first do the laundry, then dust the surfaces, and finally mop the floor. This order makes sense because doing the laundry first allows you to have clean clothes to wear while you clean. Dusting should be done before mopping to avoid spreading dust particles onto the freshly cleaned floor. Therefore, the correct order is to do laundry, dust, and then mop.

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  • 11. 

    A "pathogen" :

    • A.

      It is a Disease-causing microbe.

    • B.

      It is an allergy.

    • C.

      Refers to the cell after it is swollen with water.

    • D.

      A substance that all human bodies need.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a Disease-causing microbe.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "It is a Disease-causing microbe." A pathogen refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that can cause disease in a host organism. These pathogens invade the body, multiply, and disrupt normal bodily functions, leading to various illnesses or infections. Understanding pathogens is crucial in diagnosing and treating diseases, as well as developing preventive measures such as vaccines and antibiotics.

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  • 12. 

    Exploring the unconscious conflicts and underlying reasons for a client's problems refers to:

    • A.

      Recreational Therapy

    • B.

      Occupational Therapy

    • C.

      Psychoanalysis

    • D.

      Behavioural Therapy

    Correct Answer
    C. Psychoanalysis
    Explanation
    Psychoanalysis refers to a therapeutic approach that focuses on exploring the unconscious conflicts and underlying reasons for a client's problems. This approach involves analyzing the client's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors to gain insight into their unconscious motivations and unresolved conflicts. By understanding and resolving these issues, psychoanalysis aims to bring about long-lasting changes in the client's psychological well-being.

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  • 13. 

    Mr. Lau has bipolar disorder. This means he:

    • A.

      Has delusions

    • B.

      Is Hostile

    • C.

      Is very suspicious

    • D.

      Has severe mood swings

    Correct Answer
    D. Has severe mood swings
    Explanation
    Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition characterized by extreme mood swings, ranging from manic episodes (elevated mood, high energy) to depressive episodes (low mood, lack of energy). These mood swings can be severe and can significantly impact a person's daily life. While delusions, hostility, and suspicion can be symptoms of other mental health conditions, they are not specific to bipolar disorder.

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  • 14. 

    Your client in the home you work in asks for your home phone number. You should:

    • A.

      Give her your cellphone number only.

    • B.

      Give your supervisor's cellphone number so she can deal with the issue.

    • C.

      Explain that you cannot give your phone number out to clients.

    • D.

      Ignore her and ask the nurse to give her a sedative.

    Correct Answer
    C. Explain that you cannot give your phone number out to clients.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to explain that you cannot give your phone number out to clients. This is the most appropriate response because it maintains professional boundaries and protects your privacy. Giving your cellphone number or your supervisor's cellphone number may blur the lines between personal and professional relationships and could lead to potential issues. Ignoring the client's request and asking the nurse to give her a sedative is not an appropriate response and does not address the client's request.

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  • 15. 

    Mr. Baldovino has to touch the doorknob three times before actually opening it. He probably has:

    • A.

      Panic Disorder

    • B.

      Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

    • C.

      Phobic Disorder

    • D.

      Post-traumatic Stress Disorder

    Correct Answer
    B. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
    Explanation
    Mr. Baldovino's behavior of touching the doorknob three times before opening it suggests that he has Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is characterized by recurring, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) that individuals feel compelled to perform in order to reduce anxiety or prevent a feared outcome. In this case, Mr. Baldovino's need to touch the doorknob three times is a compulsive behavior that he feels driven to do in order to alleviate his anxiety. This behavior is a manifestation of the repetitive and ritualistic nature of OCD.

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  • 16. 

    Agatha has major depression. You should avoid:

    • A.

      Telling her how lucky she is.

    • B.

      Encouraging periods of rest.

    • C.

      Encourage social activities.

    • D.

      Reporting to your supervisor for unusual behavior.

    Correct Answer
    A. Telling her how lucky she is.
    Explanation
    Telling someone with major depression how lucky they are can be insensitive and dismissive of their struggles. Depression is a serious mental health condition that affects a person's mood, thoughts, and daily functioning. It is important to show empathy and support rather than downplaying their experiences. Encouraging periods of rest and social activities can be beneficial for individuals with depression, as it helps in self-care and building a support network. Reporting to a supervisor for unusual behavior may be necessary if the person's safety or the safety of others is at risk, but it is not directly related to avoiding insensitive comments.

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  • 17. 

    The first phase in the healing process of wounds is:

    • A.

      Inflammatory Phase

    • B.

      Proliferative Phase

    • C.

      Maturation Phase

    • D.

      Trauma Phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammatory Phase
    Explanation
    The first phase in the healing process of wounds is the inflammatory phase. During this phase, the body responds to the injury by initiating an inflammatory response. This response involves the release of chemicals and the migration of immune cells to the site of the wound. The purpose of this phase is to clean the wound, remove any debris or bacteria, and initiate the process of tissue repair. It is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain at the site of the wound.

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  • 18. 

    All of the following are complications of wounds EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Shock

    • B.

      Hemorrhage

    • C.

      Dehiscence

    • D.

      Hypertension

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypertension
    Explanation
    Hypertension is not a complication of wounds. While shock, hemorrhage, and dehiscence are common complications that can occur after a wound, hypertension is a separate medical condition characterized by high blood pressure. It is not directly related to the healing process or the complications that can arise from wounds.

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  • 19. 

    Mr. Heron has an abdominal binder. The binder is used to:

    • A.

      Prevent blood clots

    • B.

      Prevent wound infection

    • C.

      Provide support and hold dressings in place

    • D.

      Encourage peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    C. Provide support and hold dressings in place
    Explanation
    The abdominal binder is used to provide support and hold dressings in place. It helps in stabilizing the abdominal area and keeps the dressings secure, preventing them from shifting or coming off. This support is essential for proper healing and recovery after abdominal surgery or injury.

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  • 20. 

    The movement of and contraction of muscles of the digestive tract refers to:

    • A.

      Indigestion

    • B.

      Atrophy

    • C.

      Edema

    • D.

      Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis refers to the movement and contraction of muscles in the digestive tract. It is responsible for pushing food through the digestive system, allowing for the process of digestion and absorption to occur. This coordinated muscle movement helps to break down food and propel it along the digestive tract, ensuring that nutrients are properly absorbed and waste is eliminated. Indigestion refers to discomfort or difficulty in digesting food, atrophy refers to the wasting away of tissues or organs, and edema refers to the accumulation of excess fluid in body tissues.

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  • 21. 

    When heat is applied to the skin, the blood vessels will:

    • A.

      Vasoconstrict

    • B.

      Vasodilate

    • C.

      Hypertense

    • D.

      Hypotenuse

    Correct Answer
    B. Vasodilate
    Explanation
    When heat is applied to the skin, the blood vessels vasodilate. This means that the blood vessels expand or widen in response to the heat. Vasodilation allows for increased blood flow to the skin, which helps to dissipate heat and regulate body temperature. This response is part of the body's natural cooling mechanism and helps to prevent overheating.

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  • 22. 

    The doctor rushes into your patient's room and inserts an artificial airway into the trachea. This is called:

    • A.

      Intratracheostomy

    • B.

      Intubation

    • C.

      Inner Cannula

    • D.

      Nasal Prongs

    Correct Answer
    B. Intubation
    Explanation
    Intubation refers to the medical procedure where a doctor inserts an artificial airway into the trachea of a patient. This is typically done in emergency situations to ensure that the patient can breathe properly. The other options mentioned, such as intratracheostomy, inner cannula, and nasal prongs, are not accurate terms for this specific procedure.

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  • 23. 

    A client has a pneumothorax. This is the collection of:

    • A.

      Air in the pleural space

    • B.

      Blood in the pleural space

    • C.

      Fluid in the pleural space

    • D.

      Respiratory secretions in the pleural space

    Correct Answer
    A. Air in the pleural space
    Explanation
    In a client with a pneumothorax, there is a collection of air in the pleural space. This condition occurs when air enters the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. The presence of air in the pleural space can lead to difficulty in breathing and can cause chest pain. Treatment for a pneumothorax may involve removing the air from the pleural space and re-expanding the lung.

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  • 24. 

    Suctioning requires:

    • A.

      Chest Tubes

    • B.

      Sterile Technique

    • C.

      An artificial airway

    • D.

      Mechanical ventilation

    Correct Answer
    B. Sterile Technique
    Explanation
    Suctioning requires sterile technique to prevent infection. When suctioning, a sterile catheter is inserted into the airway to remove secretions or blockages. Sterile technique involves using sterile gloves, sterile equipment, and maintaining a sterile field to minimize the risk of introducing bacteria into the airway. This is important because the airway is a vulnerable area and any contamination can lead to respiratory infections or complications. Therefore, sterile technique is essential during suctioning procedures.

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  • 25. 

    Adults of all ages often fear:

    • A.

      Dying Alone

    • B.

      Reincarnation

    • C.

      The five stages of grief

    • D.

      Advance Directives

    Correct Answer
    A. Dying Alone
    Explanation
    As adults age, the fear of dying alone becomes more prevalent. This fear stems from the natural desire for companionship and the fear of facing death without loved ones by their side. The thought of not having someone to support or comfort them during their final moments can be distressing. This fear highlights the importance of social connections and the need for individuals to feel loved and supported throughout their lives.

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  • 26. 

    A partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin is called:

    • A.

      Abrasion

    • B.

      Laceration

    • C.

      Ulcer

    • D.

      Dehiscence

    Correct Answer
    A. Abrasion
    Explanation
    An abrasion refers to a partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin. This type of injury typically occurs when the skin comes into contact with a rough surface, causing the top layer of skin to be removed. Unlike a laceration, which is a cut or tear in the skin, or an ulcer, which is a sore that develops on the skin, an abrasion is specifically caused by friction. Dehiscence, on the other hand, refers to the separation or bursting open of a surgical incision or wound.

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  • 27. 

    A "contusion" is:

    • A.

      Another word for "concussion."

    • B.

      An open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges.

    • C.

      A closed wound caused by a blow to the body (bruise).

    • D.

      An open wound made by a sharp object.

    Correct Answer
    C. A closed wound caused by a blow to the body (bruise).
    Explanation
    A "contusion" refers to a closed wound caused by a blow to the body, commonly known as a bruise. It occurs when small blood vessels under the skin break, causing blood to pool and create discoloration. Unlike an open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges, a contusion does not involve any external tearing or laceration. It is important to understand the different types of wounds to provide appropriate medical treatment.

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  • 28. 

    A collection of blood under the skin and tissues, forms and the area appears swollen and is reddish-blue in color is called:

    • A.

      Hematoma

    • B.

      Bruising

    • C.

      Contusion

    • D.

      Abrasion

    Correct Answer
    A. Hematoma
    Explanation
    A hematoma is a collection of blood that accumulates under the skin and tissues. This causes the affected area to appear swollen and have a reddish-blue color. Unlike bruising, which is caused by damage to blood vessels, a hematoma specifically refers to the pooling of blood in a localized area. A contusion is another term for bruising, while an abrasion refers to a superficial injury where the skin is scraped or rubbed off.

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  • 29. 

    Clear, watery drainage from a wound. This drainage is called:

    • A.

      Purulent Drainage

    • B.

      Serous Drainage

    • C.

      Seropurulent drainage

    • D.

      Serosanguineous drainage

    Correct Answer
    B. Serous Drainage
    Explanation
    Serous drainage refers to a clear, watery fluid that is commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing. It is typically a normal and healthy sign, indicating that the body is cleansing the wound and removing excess fluid. Serous drainage is usually transparent or slightly yellowish in color and does not contain pus or blood. It is important to monitor the drainage and seek medical attention if it becomes excessive or changes in color or consistency.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is used to hyperventilate the lungs?

    • A.

      Ambu Bag

    • B.

      Pulse Oximeter

    • C.

      Incentive Spirometer

    • D.

      Partial-rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Ambu Bag
    Explanation
    The Ambu Bag is used to hyperventilate the lungs. It is a hand-held device that is commonly used in emergency situations to provide positive pressure ventilation to patients who are not breathing adequately. By manually squeezing the bag, it delivers a high flow of oxygen to the patient's lungs, helping to increase the oxygen levels and remove carbon dioxide. This can be particularly useful in cases of respiratory distress or failure, where the patient's breathing is compromised.

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  • 31. 

    A blood clot, an air bubble, or a fat clot that travels through the vascular system and finally lodges in a distant blood vessel is called:

    • A.

      Thrombus

    • B.

      Embolus

    • C.

      Anesthesia

    • D.

      Enema

    Correct Answer
    B. Embolus
    Explanation
    An embolus refers to a blood clot, air bubble, or fat clot that travels through the vascular system and eventually gets lodged in a distant blood vessel. This can lead to a blockage of blood flow, potentially causing serious health complications depending on the location and size of the embolus.

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  • 32. 

    All of the following are types of Anesthesia except:

    • A.

      General Anesthesia

    • B.

      Local Anesthesia

    • C.

      Regional Anesthesia

    • D.

      Dorsal Recumbent Anesthesia

    Correct Answer
    D. Dorsal Recumbent Anesthesia
    Explanation
    Dorsal Recumbent Anesthesia is not a type of anesthesia. General anesthesia refers to the state of unconsciousness induced by medications to ensure a painless surgical procedure. Local anesthesia involves numbing a specific area of the body. Regional anesthesia blocks pain in a larger area, such as a limb or the lower half of the body. However, dorsal recumbent position refers to lying on the back with knees bent and so it is not a type of anesthesia.

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  • 33. 

    The two main respiratory complications that can follow after surgery are:

    • A.

      Pneumonia and Atelectasis

    • B.

      Pneumonia and Asthma

    • C.

      Bronchitis and Pneumothorax

    • D.

      Pneumonia and Bronchitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pneumonia and Atelectasis
    Explanation
    After surgery, two common respiratory complications that can occur are pneumonia and atelectasis. Pneumonia is an infection in the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. It can lead to symptoms such as cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Atelectasis, on the other hand, is the collapse or closure of a lung or part of a lung. It can occur when the air sacs in the lung become deflated or filled with fluid, causing difficulty in breathing. Both pneumonia and atelectasis can be serious complications that require medical attention and treatment.

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  • 34. 

    Pre-operatively, your patient should be:

    • A.

      NPO

    • B.

      Allowed only water

    • C.

      Given a tube feeding

    • D.

      Given a big hearty breakfast

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    Pre-operatively, it is important for the patient to be NPO, which stands for nil per os, meaning nothing by mouth. This is done to ensure that the patient's stomach is empty before undergoing surgery, reducing the risk of aspiration and complications during anesthesia. By not allowing the patient to eat or drink anything, the stomach remains empty, minimizing the chances of regurgitation and aspiration of stomach contents during the procedure.

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  • 35. 

    Mr. Long must do coughing and deep breathing exercises after surgery to prevent:

    • A.

      Bleeding

    • B.

      A pulmonary embolus

    • C.

      Respiratory complications

    • D.

      Pain and discomfort

    Correct Answer
    C. Respiratory complications
    Explanation
    After surgery, Mr. Long must do coughing and deep breathing exercises to prevent respiratory complications. These exercises help to clear the lungs of any accumulated mucus or secretions, preventing the risk of pneumonia or other respiratory infections. By promoting effective lung expansion and ventilation, these exercises also help to prevent atelectasis, which is the collapse of lung tissue. Therefore, by regularly performing these exercises, Mr. Long can maintain optimal respiratory function and reduce the chances of experiencing any complications related to his breathing.

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  • 36. 

    Mr. Lang is alert and oriented but has not slept well for weeks and has a decreased appetite. He most likely has:

    • A.

      Depression

    • B.

      Urinary Tract Infection

    • C.

      Bipolar Disorder

    • D.

      Dementia

    Correct Answer
    A. Depression
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as difficulty sleeping and decreased appetite, it is likely that Mr. Lang is experiencing depression. Depression is a mood disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, loss of interest or pleasure, and changes in sleep and appetite patterns. These symptoms align with Mr. Lang's presentation, suggesting that depression is the most probable diagnosis.

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  • 37. 

    Mrs. White has bitten off her intravenous line and has fallen several times out of bed. The nurse gives her a sedative. What kind of restraint is this?

    • A.

      Environmental Restraint

    • B.

      Physical Restraint

    • C.

      Chemical Restraint

    • D.

      Medical Restraint

    Correct Answer
    C. Chemical Restraint
    Explanation
    The nurse giving Mrs. White a sedative in response to her behavior suggests that the restraint being used is a chemical restraint. Chemical restraints involve the use of medication to control a person's behavior or movement. In this case, the sedative is being used to calm Mrs. White and prevent her from further harming herself by biting off her intravenous line or falling out of bed.

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  • 38. 

    What is the most common accident in all settings?

    • A.

      Burns

    • B.

      Suffocation

    • C.

      Falls

    • D.

      Poisoning

    Correct Answer
    C. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the most common accident in all settings. This is because falls can occur in various environments such as homes, workplaces, and public spaces. They can happen due to factors like slippery surfaces, uneven flooring, poor lighting, or lack of safety measures. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor bruises to fractures or head trauma, making them a frequent occurrence in accidents across different settings.

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  • 39. 

    AIDS stands for:

    • A.

      Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

    • B.

      Animal Immune Deficiency Syndrome

    • C.

      Anginal Immune Deficiency Syndrome

    • D.

      Alienated Immune Deficiency Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
    Explanation
    AIDS stands for Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome, which is a condition caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). It is acquired through the transmission of the virus, primarily through unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing needles, or from an infected mother to her child during childbirth or breastfeeding. AIDS weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and certain types of cancers. It is a chronic and life-threatening condition that currently has no cure, but can be managed with antiretroviral therapy.

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  • 40. 

    A nosocomial infection is:

    • A.

      An infection you get from staying in the hospital or healthcare facility.

    • B.

      An infection you get from a household.

    • C.

      An infection you get from insects.

    • D.

      An infection you get from water.

    Correct Answer
    A. An infection you get from staying in the hospital or healthcare facility.
    Explanation
    A nosocomial infection refers to an infection that is acquired during a hospital stay or in a healthcare facility. This type of infection is typically caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi that are present in the hospital environment or transmitted by healthcare workers. Nosocomial infections can occur due to various reasons such as invasive procedures, contaminated equipment, inadequate hand hygiene, or compromised immune systems of patients. It is important to prevent and control nosocomial infections through proper infection control measures to ensure patient safety and reduce the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

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  • 41. 

    A bacterium that causes diarrhea and colitis is called:

    • A.

      C. Difficile

    • B.

      ESBL

    • C.

      VRE

    • D.

      Hepatitis A

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Difficile
    Explanation
    C. Difficile is the correct answer because it is a bacterium known to cause diarrhea and colitis. It is a type of bacteria that can be found in the intestines and can cause infection when the normal balance of bacteria in the gut is disrupted. This infection can lead to symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and inflammation of the colon (colitis). C. Difficile infections are commonly associated with healthcare settings and can be difficult to treat.

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  • 42. 

    How can spores be destroyed?

    • A.

      Cleaning-

    • B.

      Disinfection

    • C.

      Sterilization

    • D.

      Scrubbing

    Correct Answer
    C. Sterilization
    Explanation
    Sterilization is the correct answer because it is the process of completely eliminating or killing all forms of microbial life, including spores. This method is achieved by using high temperatures, chemicals, or radiation to ensure that no viable spores or other microorganisms are present. Cleaning and disinfection may remove or kill some spores, but sterilization is the most effective method for destroying spores and ensuring a completely sterile environment. Scrubbing, on the other hand, is a physical action that can help remove spores but may not necessarily destroy them.

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  • 43. 

    All of the following terms mean "peeing" EXCEPT for:

    • A.

      Voiding

    • B.

      Urinating

    • C.

      Micturition

    • D.

      Impaction

    Correct Answer
    D. Impaction
    Explanation
    The term "impaction" refers to a condition where the stool becomes hardened and unable to pass through the intestines, causing a blockage. It is not related to the act of peeing or urination. On the other hand, "voiding," "urinating," and "micturition" are all synonyms for the process of eliminating urine from the body. Therefore, "impaction" is the only term that does not mean "peeing."

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  • 44. 

    Your patient, Mr. Jones, recently got his arm amputated. He states he feels pain in that missing body part. He has:

    • A.

      Chronic Pain

    • B.

      Acute Pain

    • C.

      Radiating Pain

    • D.

      Phantom Pain

    Correct Answer
    D. Phantom Pain
    Explanation
    Phantom pain refers to the sensation of pain experienced in a body part that has been amputated. Despite the absence of the limb, the patient still perceives pain as if it were present. This phenomenon is believed to occur due to the brain's inability to adjust to the loss of sensory input from the missing limb. The nerves that previously carried signals from the amputated limb continue to send messages to the brain, resulting in the perception of pain. Phantom pain is a common occurrence after limb amputation and can be challenging to manage.

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  • 45. 

    Bronchitis is:

    • A.

      Inflammation of the Bronchi

    • B.

      Inflammation of the Gallbladder

    • C.

      Inflammation of the Pancreas

    • D.

      Inflammation of the Alveoli

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the Bronchi
    Explanation
    Bronchitis is the inflammation of the bronchi, which are the air passages in the lungs. It is a respiratory condition that causes coughing, chest discomfort, and difficulty breathing. The inflammation is often caused by a viral or bacterial infection, although it can also be triggered by irritants such as smoke or pollutants. Treatment for bronchitis typically involves rest, fluids, and medication to relieve symptoms and manage the underlying cause of the inflammation.

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  • 46. 

    All of the following are from Erik Ericson's stages of psychosocial development EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt

    • B.

      Generativity versus Stagnation

    • C.

      Intimacy versus Isolation

    • D.

      Bargaining versus Grief

    Correct Answer
    D. Bargaining versus Grief
    Explanation
    Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development include Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt, Generativity versus Stagnation, and Intimacy versus Isolation. These stages focus on different aspects of an individual's development and the challenges they face. However, Bargaining versus Grief is not one of Erikson's stages. This suggests that the concept of bargaining versus grief is not a part of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development.

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  • 47. 

    All of the following refer to positions and locations of the body EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Distal

    • B.

      Proximal

    • C.

      Brachial

    • D.

      Dorsal

    Correct Answer
    C. Brachial
    Explanation
    The term "brachial" refers to the upper arm, specifically the area between the shoulder and elbow. It is a specific anatomical term used to describe a position or location of the body. Therefore, it does not fit the criteria of the question, which asks for an option that does not refer to positions and locations of the body.

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  • 48. 

    Phlebitis is:

    • A.

      Inflammation of the Vein

    • B.

      Inflammation of Phlegm

    • C.

      Inflammation of the Gall Bladder

    • D.

      Inflammation of the Pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the Vein
    Explanation
    Phlebitis refers to the inflammation of the vein. This condition occurs when a blood clot forms in a vein, causing it to become inflamed. Common symptoms of phlebitis include pain, redness, and swelling in the affected area. It can occur in both superficial veins (superficial phlebitis) and deep veins (deep vein thrombosis). Treatment for phlebitis typically involves pain management, anti-inflammatory medications, and in some cases, blood thinners.

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  • 49. 

    Who is responsible for protecting employees from injuries and accidents in the workplace?

    • A.

      Occupational Health and Safety Act

    • B.

      Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System

    • C.

      Material Safety Data Sheet

    • D.

      Ontario Ministry of Health

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational Health and Safety Act
    Explanation
    The Occupational Health and Safety Act is responsible for protecting employees from injuries and accidents in the workplace. This act establishes the legal framework for employers to provide a safe and healthy working environment for their employees. It outlines the rights and responsibilities of both employers and employees in ensuring workplace safety, including the requirement to identify and control hazards, provide training and information, and establish safety policies and procedures. The act also empowers government agencies to enforce compliance and impose penalties for violations, ultimately aiming to prevent workplace injuries and promote employee well-being.

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  • 50. 

    A person who is able to transfer a pathogen to others without getting an active infection himself is:

    • A.

      A carrier

    • B.

      A sender

    • C.

      A receiver

    • D.

      A messenger

    Correct Answer
    A. A carrier
    Explanation
    A carrier is a person who can transmit a pathogen to others without showing any symptoms or getting sick themselves. They may unknowingly spread the infection to others, making them a potential source of disease transmission. Carriers can play a significant role in the spread of infectious diseases, as they can pass on the pathogen to others while remaining unaffected themselves.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 01, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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