Psm Past All India Questions

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PSM


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    All of the following is true about the Herd Immunity for infectious diseases EXCEPT: (AI 2005)

    • A.

      It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by protection of immunized individuals

    • B.

      It is likely to be more for infectious diseases that do not have subclinical phase

    • C.

      It is affected by the presence and distribution of alterative animal hosts

    • D.

      In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual.

    Correct Answer
    A. It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by protection of immunized individuals
    Explanation
    Herd immunity refers to the protection of a group or community from a contagious disease when a large percentage of individuals in that group are immune to the disease, either through vaccination or prior infection. It is not solely dependent on the protection of immunized individuals, but rather the collective immunity of the entire group. Therefore, the given answer is incorrect.

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  • 2. 

    Herd immunity is not important in: (JIPMER 1993, AI 1995)

    • A.

      Tetanus

    • B.

      Pertussis

    • C.

      Diphtheria

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanus
    Explanation
    Herd immunity is not important in tetanus because tetanus is not a communicable disease. It is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, which enters the body through wounds or cuts. It does not spread from person to person, so herd immunity does not play a significant role in preventing the transmission of tetanus.

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  • 3. 

    Maternal antibodies are not protective in: (SGPGI 2002)

    • A.

      Tetanus

    • B.

      Pertussis

    • C.

      Diphtheria

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanus
    Explanation
    Maternal antibodies are not protective in tetanus because tetanus is caused by the toxin produced by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, rather than by the bacteria itself. Maternal antibodies are only effective against the bacteria, not the toxin. Therefore, even if a mother has antibodies against the bacteria, her baby can still be susceptible to tetanus if exposed to the toxin.

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  • 4. 

    The usual incubation period of Pertussis is: (AIIMS 2005 Nov)

    • A.

      7-14 days

    • B.

      3-5 days

    • C.

      21-25 days

    • D.

      Less than 3 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 7-14 days
    Explanation
    The usual incubation period of Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is 7-14 days. This refers to the time it takes for symptoms to appear after exposure to the bacteria that causes the infection. It is important to note that the incubation period can vary from person to person, and some individuals may develop symptoms earlier or later than the average timeframe.

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  • 5. 

    First in sequence is: (MH PGM CET 2002)

    • A.

      Impairment

    • B.

      Disease

    • C.

      Disability

    • D.

      Rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Impairment
    Explanation
    The given sequence starts with "Impairment" which refers to any loss or abnormality in body structure or function. This is followed by "Disease" which is a specific illness or disorder. Next is "Disability" which is the consequence of impairment and refers to activity limitations or participation restrictions. Finally, "Rehabilitation" is the process of restoring or improving functional ability and participation in society for individuals with disabilities. Therefore, the correct answer is "Impairment" as it is the first step in the sequence.

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  • 6. 

    Primary level of prevention includes all EXCEPT: (CMC 2001; AI2000)

    • A.

      Health promotion

    • B.

      Specific protection

    • C.

      Early diagnosis and treatment

    • D.

      Immunization

    Correct Answer
    A. Health promotion
    Explanation
    Primary level of prevention includes various strategies and interventions aimed at preventing the occurrence of diseases and promoting overall health. Health promotion is an essential component of primary prevention as it focuses on educating individuals and communities about healthy behaviors and lifestyle choices. It aims to empower individuals to make informed decisions regarding their health and well-being. Therefore, health promotion should not be excluded from the primary level of prevention.

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  • 7. 

    Supplementation of iron and folic acid to a pregnant woman is an example of: (ESIS 2005)

    • A.

      Health promotion

    • B.

      Specific protection

    • C.

      Disability limitation

    • D.

      Rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Health promotion
    Explanation
    Supplementation of iron and folic acid to a pregnant woman is an example of health promotion because it aims to improve the health of the pregnant woman and her unborn child. Iron and folic acid are essential nutrients that are crucial for the proper development of the fetus and the prevention of certain birth defects. By providing these supplements, the health of both the mother and the baby is promoted, leading to a healthier pregnancy and potentially reducing the risk of complications.

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  • 8. 

    Level of prevention that includes Specific protection: (MP 2004)

    • A.

      Primordial

    • B.

      Primary

    • C.

      Secondary

    • D.

      Tertiary

    Correct Answer
    A. Primordial
    Explanation
    Primordial prevention focuses on addressing the underlying social, economic, and environmental determinants of health to prevent the development of risk factors and diseases in the first place. It aims to promote healthy lifestyles, create supportive environments, and tackle social inequalities. Specific protection, which is a component of primordial prevention, involves targeted interventions to protect individuals from specific risk factors or hazards. Therefore, the correct answer is Primordial.

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  • 9. 

    Primordial prevention is for: (AI 2000)

    • A.

      Persons without risk factors

    • B.

      Persons with risk factors

    • C.

      Cure of disease

    • D.

      Treatment of complications

    Correct Answer
    A. Persons without risk factors
    Explanation
    Primordial prevention refers to actions taken to prevent the development of risk factors for a disease or condition in individuals who do not currently have any risk factors. It aims to address the root causes of diseases and promote healthy behaviors and environments. By targeting individuals without risk factors, primordial prevention strategies can help reduce the overall burden of disease in a population and promote long-term health and well-being.

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  • 10. 

    Primordial prevention is the: (UPSC 1999)

    • A.

      Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal people

    • B.

      Prolongation of human life span to the maximum extent

    • C.

      Promotion of health, well-being and efficiency

    • D.

      Prevention of disease through avoiding emergence of risk factors

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal people
    Explanation
    Primordial prevention refers to preventing the occurrence of risk factors that can lead to the development of diseases. In this context, the answer "Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal people" aligns with the concept of primordial prevention as it aims to prevent diseases specifically among a particular group of people, in this case, the hill dwelling and tribal population. This answer focuses on addressing the health needs and challenges faced by this specific population, which is an important aspect of primordial prevention.

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  • 11. 

    Checking of sputum for AFB comes under: (AIIMS 1995)

    • A.

      Primary prevention

    • B.

      Secondary prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary prevention

    • D.

      Quaternary prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary prevention
    Explanation
    Checking of sputum for AFB is a diagnostic test used to detect tuberculosis (TB) infection. Primary prevention refers to measures taken to prevent the occurrence of a disease or condition. In the case of TB, primary prevention includes interventions such as vaccination, health education, and early detection through screening tests like sputum examination. Therefore, checking of sputum for AFB falls under primary prevention as it helps in identifying individuals with TB infection at an early stage, allowing for prompt treatment and reducing the spread of the disease.

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  • 12. 

    Prevention of coronary artery disease by changing life style by education is referred as: (SGPGI 2002)

    • A.

      Primary prevention

    • B.

      Secondary prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary prevention

    • D.

      Primordial prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary prevention
    Explanation
    Primary prevention refers to the measures taken to prevent the occurrence of a disease or condition before it develops. In the context of coronary artery disease, primary prevention involves adopting a healthy lifestyle and educating individuals about the risk factors and ways to prevent the disease. This may include promoting regular exercise, maintaining a healthy diet, quitting smoking, and managing stress. By focusing on primary prevention, the aim is to reduce the incidence of coronary artery disease in the population and prevent it from occurring in the first place.

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  • 13. 

    Inculcating healthy life-style is a type of: (UP 1996)

    • A.

      Primary preventionTertiary level of prevention

    • B.

      Secondary prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary prevention

    • D.

      Quaternary prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary preventionTertiary level of prevention
    Explanation
    Inculcating a healthy lifestyle can be considered a form of primary prevention because it aims to prevent the development of diseases or health issues before they occur. By promoting healthy habits such as regular exercise, balanced diet, and avoiding harmful substances, individuals can reduce their risk of developing chronic conditions. Additionally, it can also be seen as a form of tertiary prevention because it focuses on managing and improving the health of individuals who already have existing health conditions, by encouraging them to adopt a healthy lifestyle to prevent further complications.

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  • 14. 

    Immunization is which level of prevention? (MP 2002)

    • A.

      Primary level of prevention

    • B.

      Secondary level of prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary level of prevention

    • D.

      Primordial level of prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary level of prevention
    Explanation
    Immunization is considered a primary level of prevention because it aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it happens. By administering vaccines, individuals develop immunity to specific diseases, reducing the risk of infection and subsequent complications. This proactive approach is crucial in preventing the spread of infectious diseases and protecting the overall population's health.

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  • 15. 

    The chronic diseases, which are seen in elderly, are all EXCEPT: (ESIS 2005)

    • A.

      Degenerative disease if heart and blood vessels

    • B.

      Cancer of prostate

    • C.

      Accidents

    • D.

      Acute diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Degenerative disease if heart and blood vessels
    Explanation
    The given answer states that "Degenerative disease of heart and blood vessels" is not a chronic disease seen in the elderly. This implies that degenerative diseases of the heart and blood vessels are indeed chronic diseases that are commonly observed in elderly individuals.

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  • 16. 

    INTERNATIONAL NOTIFICATION is a must in all the following EXCEPT: (TN 2003)

    • A.

      Plague

    • B.

      Cholera

    • C.

      Yellow fever

    • D.

      Paralytic polio

    Correct Answer
    A. Plague
    Explanation
    International notification is not required for plague. The other diseases mentioned, such as cholera, yellow fever, and paralytic polio, require international notification.

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  • 17. 

    Selective screening refers to screening tests applied to a: (UPSC2005)

    • A.

      Volunteer group

    • B.

      Randomly selected group

    • C.

      High risk group

    • D.

      Non-randomized group

    Correct Answer
    A. Volunteer group
    Explanation
    Selective screening refers to screening tests that are applied to a volunteer group. This means that individuals willingly participate in the screening process and are not randomly selected or part of a high risk or non-randomized group. The key characteristic of selective screening is that it is based on the voluntary participation of individuals who are interested in being screened for a particular condition or disease.

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  • 18. 

    The continuous scrutiny of factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease” is known as: (JIPMER 2002)

    • A.

      Maintenance

    • B.

      Monitoring

    • C.

      Surveillance

    • D.

      Screening

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance
  • 19. 

    True about Sentinel surveillance: (AIIMS 1999)

    • A.

      It is a method of identifying the missing cases

    • B.

      Supplementing the notified cases is difficult

    • C.

      Total numbers of cases cannot be identified

    • D.

      It is performance and analysis of routine measurement aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status of population

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a method of identifying the missing cases
    Explanation
    Sentinel surveillance is a method of identifying the missing cases. This means that it is a system that focuses on specific individuals or groups who are more likely to be affected by a certain disease or condition. By monitoring these individuals or groups, any missing cases can be identified and appropriate actions can be taken. This type of surveillance is particularly useful in detecting outbreaks or changes in the health status of a population.

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  • 20. 

    . Following is/are the notifiable diseases as well as under surveillance: (DNB 1992)

    • A.

      Epidemic typhus

    • B.

      Relapsing fever

    • C.

      Plague

    • D.

      Cholera

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidemic typhus
    Explanation
    The given answer, Epidemic typhus, is correct because it is one of the notifiable diseases that are under surveillance. Notifiable diseases are those that health authorities require to be reported when diagnosed in order to track and monitor their occurrence and spread. Epidemic typhus is a bacterial infection transmitted by body lice and can cause severe illness and outbreaks in crowded and unsanitary conditions. Therefore, it is important to monitor and report cases of epidemic typhus to prevent its spread and implement control measures.

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  • 21. 

    All of the following is true about the Herd Immunity for infectious diseases EXCEPT: (AI 2005)

    • A.

      It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by protection of immunized individuals

    • B.

      It is likely to be more for infectious diseases that do not have subclinical phase

    • C.

      It is affected by the presence and distribution of alterative animal hosts

    • D.

      In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual.

    Correct Answer
    A. It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by protection of immunized individuals
    Explanation
    Herd immunity refers to the protection of a group or community against infectious diseases, which is achieved when a large portion of the population becomes immune through vaccination or previous infection. This immunity not only protects the immunized individuals but also provides indirect protection to those who are not immune. Therefore, the given statement is incorrect as it suggests that herd immunity does not extend beyond the protection of immunized individuals.

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  • 22. 

    Herd immunity is not important in: (JIPMER 1993, AI 1995)

    • A.

      Tetanus

    • B.

      Pertussis

    • C.

      Diphtheria

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanus
    Explanation
    Tetanus is not a communicable disease that can be spread from person to person. It is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which enters the body through wounds or cuts. Therefore, herd immunity is not important in tetanus because it is not a disease that can be prevented through vaccination or through the immunity of a population.

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  • 23. 

    Maternal antibodies are not protective in: (SGPGI 2002)

    • A.

      Tetanus

    • B.

      Pertussis

    • C.

      Diphtheria

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanus
    Explanation
    Maternal antibodies are not protective in tetanus because tetanus is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, which produces a toxin that affects the nervous system. Maternal antibodies, which are passed from the mother to the baby during pregnancy, do not provide immunity against this specific bacteria and its toxin. Therefore, the baby is not protected against tetanus through maternal antibodies.

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  • 24. 

    The usual incubation period of Pertussis is: (AIIMS 2005 Nov)

    • A.

      7-14 days

    • B.

      3-5 days

    • C.

      21-25 days

    • D.

      Less than 3 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 7-14 days
    Explanation
    The usual incubation period of Pertussis is 7-14 days. This means that after being exposed to the bacteria that causes Pertussis, it takes an average of 7-14 days for symptoms to develop. This period allows the bacteria to multiply and spread in the body before the characteristic symptoms of Pertussis, such as severe coughing fits, begin to appear. Understanding the incubation period is important for diagnosing and managing the disease, as well as for implementing preventive measures to control its spread.

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  • 25. 

    First in sequence is: (MH PGM CET 2002)

    • A.

      Impairment

    • B.

      Disease

    • C.

      Disability

    • D.

      Rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Impairment
    Explanation
    The given sequence starts with "Impairment" and is followed by "Disease", "Disability", and "Rehabilitation". This sequence represents a progression or a logical order of events related to a medical condition. Impairment refers to a loss or reduction in physical or mental function. It is followed by the development of a disease or a medical condition. This disease then leads to a disability, which is a limitation or restriction in performing certain activities. Finally, the process of rehabilitation is undertaken to restore or improve the functioning and quality of life of the individual.

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  • 26. 

    Primary level of prevention includes all EXCEPT: (CMC 2001; AI2000)

    • A.

      Health promotion

    • B.

      Specific protection

    • C.

      Early diagnosis and treatment

    • D.

      Immunization

    Correct Answer
    A. Health promotion
    Explanation
    Primary level of prevention focuses on preventing diseases and promoting overall health. Health promotion activities aim to educate and empower individuals and communities to adopt healthy behaviors and lifestyles. Specific protection involves measures such as providing clean water, sanitation, and safe housing to prevent the spread of diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment refer to identifying and treating diseases at an early stage to prevent further complications. Immunization is a key component of primary prevention as it helps to protect individuals from infectious diseases. Therefore, health promotion is the exception as it falls under the category of primary prevention.

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  • 27. 

    Supplementation of iron and folic acid to a pregnant woman is an example of: (ESIS 2005)

    • A.

      Health promotion

    • B.

      Specific protection

    • C.

      Disability limitation

    • D.

      Rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Health promotion
    Explanation
    Supplementation of iron and folic acid to a pregnant woman is an example of health promotion because it aims to enhance the overall health and well-being of the pregnant woman and her fetus. Iron and folic acid are essential nutrients that help prevent anemia and neural tube defects, respectively. By providing these supplements, the healthcare system is promoting the health of the pregnant woman and her baby, thereby reducing the risk of complications and promoting a healthy pregnancy.

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  • 28. 

    Level of prevention that includes Specific protection: (MP 2004)

    • A.

      Primordial

    • B.

      Primary

    • C.

      Secondary

    • D.

      Tertiary

    Correct Answer
    A. Primordial
    Explanation
    Primordial prevention focuses on addressing the underlying social, economic, and environmental determinants of health to prevent the development of risk factors and diseases. It aims to promote healthy behaviors and lifestyles from early stages of life, before any risk factors are present. Specific protection refers to measures taken to protect individuals from specific risk factors or diseases. Therefore, primordial prevention aligns with the concept of specific protection, making it the correct answer.

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  • 29. 

    Primordial prevention is for: (AI 2000)

    • A.

      Persons without risk factors

    • B.

      Persons with risk factors

    • C.

      Cure of disease

    • D.

      Treatment of complications

    Correct Answer
    A. Persons without risk factors
    Explanation
    Primordial prevention refers to taking proactive measures to prevent the development of risk factors for disease in individuals who do not currently have any risk factors. This approach aims to address the root causes of diseases and promote overall health and well-being. By targeting individuals without risk factors, primordial prevention aims to reduce the incidence of diseases and improve population health in the long term. This can be achieved through lifestyle modifications, education, and public health interventions that promote healthy behaviors and environments.

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  • 30. 

    Primordial prevention is the: (UPSC 1999)

    • A.

      Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal people

    • B.

      Prolongation of human life span to the maximum extent

    • C.

      Promotion of health, well-being and efficiency

    • D.

      Prevention of disease through avoiding emergence of risk factors

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal people
    Explanation
    Primordial prevention refers to the prevention of diseases among specific populations, in this case, the hill dwelling and tribal people. This approach aims to address the unique health challenges and risk factors faced by these communities. By implementing targeted interventions and promoting health awareness, primordial prevention seeks to prevent diseases from occurring in the first place. This approach recognizes the importance of addressing social, economic, and environmental factors that contribute to health disparities among marginalized populations.

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  • 31. 

    Checking of sputum for AFB comes under: (AIIMS 1995)

    • A.

      Primary prevention

    • B.

      Secondary prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary prevention

    • D.

      Quaternary prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary prevention
    Explanation
    Checking of sputum for AFB comes under primary prevention because it is a measure taken to prevent the occurrence of tuberculosis (TB) in individuals who are at risk. By identifying and treating individuals with active TB early through sputum testing, the spread of the disease can be minimized and further transmission can be prevented. This is an important strategy in controlling the spread of TB within communities and reducing the burden of the disease.

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  • 32. 

    Prevention of coronary artery disease by changing life style by education is referred as: (SGPGI 2002)

    • A.

      Primary prevention

    • B.

      Secondary prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary prevention

    • D.

      Primordial prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary prevention
    Explanation
    Primary prevention refers to measures taken to prevent the development of a disease or condition before it occurs. In the context of coronary artery disease, primary prevention involves educating individuals about lifestyle changes that can reduce their risk of developing the disease, such as maintaining a healthy diet, engaging in regular physical activity, not smoking, and managing stress. By promoting these healthy behaviors, primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of coronary artery disease in the first place.

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  • 33. 

    Inculcating healthy life-style is a type of: (UP 1996)

    • A.

      Primary preventionTertiary level of prevention

    • B.

      Secondary prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary prevention

    • D.

      Quaternary prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary preventionTertiary level of prevention
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Primary prevention. Inculcating a healthy lifestyle is a proactive approach to preventing diseases and promoting overall well-being. It focuses on educating and encouraging individuals to make healthy choices and adopt behaviors that reduce their risk of developing health problems. This type of prevention aims to address the root causes of diseases and prevent them from occurring in the first place. Tertiary level of prevention, on the other hand, focuses on managing and reducing the impact of existing diseases or disabilities.

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  • 34. 

    Immunization is which level of prevention? (MP 2002)

    • A.

      Primary level of prevention

    • B.

      Secondary level of prevention

    • C.

      Tertiary level of prevention

    • D.

      Primordial level of prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary level of prevention
    Explanation
    Immunization is considered a primary level of prevention because it aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or condition before it occurs. By administering vaccines, individuals develop immunity to specific diseases, reducing the risk of infection and subsequent illness. This proactive approach helps to protect individuals and communities from the initial onset of diseases, ultimately reducing their impact on public health.

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  • 35. 

    The chronic diseases, which are seen in elderly, are all EXCEPT: (ESIS 2005)

    • A.

      Degenerative disease if heart and blood vessels

    • B.

      Cancer of prostate

    • C.

      Accidents

    • D.

      Acute diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Degenerative disease if heart and blood vessels
    Explanation
    The given answer is "Degenerative disease of heart and blood vessels". This is the correct answer because the question asks for chronic diseases that are seen in the elderly, and degenerative diseases of the heart and blood vessels are commonly associated with aging. The other options, such as cancer of the prostate, accidents, and acute diarrhea, are not necessarily chronic diseases that are commonly seen in the elderly population.

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  • 36. 

    INTERNATIONAL NOTIFICATION is a must in all the following EXCEPT: (TN 2003)

    • A.

      Plague

    • B.

      Cholera

    • C.

      Yellow fever

    • D.

      Paralytic polio

    Correct Answer
    A. Plague
    Explanation
    International notification is required for diseases that have the potential to spread across borders and pose a global health risk. Plague is a highly infectious disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis and it can spread rapidly if not controlled. Cholera, yellow fever, and paralytic polio are also highly infectious diseases that can spread internationally and therefore require international notification. However, the question asks for an exception, and the correct answer is plague, indicating that international notification is not required for this particular disease.

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  • 37. 

    Selective screening refers to screening tests applied to a: (UPSC2005)

    • A.

      Volunteer group

    • B.

      Randomly selected group

    • C.

      High risk group

    • D.

      Non-randomized group

    Correct Answer
    A. Volunteer group
    Explanation
    Selective screening refers to the application of screening tests to a volunteer group. This means that individuals willingly participate in the screening process, rather than being randomly selected or belonging to a high-risk or non-randomized group. The term "selective" implies that the screening is done based on the individual's choice to participate, rather than being imposed on them. This approach allows for a more targeted and focused screening process, as it is specifically tailored to the needs and preferences of the participants.

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  • 38. 

    The continuous scrutiny of factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease” is known as: (JIPMER 2002)

    • A.

      Maintenance

    • B.

      Monitoring

    • C.

      Surveillance

    • D.

      Screening

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance
  • 39. 

    True about Sentinel surveillance: (AIIMS 1999)

    • A.

      It is a method of identifying the missing cases

    • B.

      Supplementing the notified cases is difficult

    • C.

      Total numbers of cases cannot be identified

    • D.

      It is performance and analysis of routine measurement aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status of population

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a method of identifying the missing cases
    Explanation
    Sentinel surveillance is a method of identifying the missing cases. This means that it focuses on actively searching for cases that may not have been reported through routine surveillance systems. By targeting specific populations or locations, sentinel surveillance can provide valuable information about the occurrence and spread of diseases that may otherwise go undetected. It complements routine surveillance by providing additional data and helping to identify gaps in reporting.

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  • 40. 

    . Following is/are the notifiable diseases as well as under surveillance: (DNB 1992)

    • A.

      Epidemic typhus

    • B.

      Relapsing fever

    • C.

      Plague

    • D.

      Cholera

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidemic typhus
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Epidemic typhus," is correct because it is one of the notifiable diseases that are under surveillance. This means that cases of epidemic typhus must be reported to the appropriate authorities for monitoring and control purposes.

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  • 41. 

    Disease under WHO surveillance are all EXCEPT: (SGPGI 2002)

    • A.

      Diphtheria

    • B.

      Relapsing fever

    • C.

      Polio

    • D.

      Malaria

    Correct Answer
    A. Diphtheria
    Explanation
    The question asks for the disease that is NOT under WHO surveillance. The correct answer is Diphtheria. This means that Diphtheria is not being monitored or tracked by the World Health Organization. The other diseases listed - Relapsing fever, Polio, and Malaria - are all under WHO surveillance, meaning that they are being monitored and tracked by the organization.

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  • 42. 

    Isolation is not carried in one of the following: (JIPMER 2003)

    • A.

      Plague

    • B.

      Cholera

    • C.

      AIDS

    • D.

      Chicken pox

    Correct Answer
    A. Plague
    Explanation
    Isolation is not carried out for Plague. Plague is a highly contagious and potentially deadly infectious disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. It spreads through the bites of infected fleas which live on small mammals such as rats. Isolation is an important measure to prevent the spread of infectious diseases, but in the case of Plague, it is not effective as the disease is primarily transmitted through vectors rather than direct human-to-human contact.

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  • 43. 

    All are true about Typhoid EXCEPT: (JIPMER 2004)

    • A.

      Incubation period 10 to 14 years

    • B.

      Most common among males

    • C.

      Carrier are treated by Ampicillin

    • D.

      Highest incidence occurs in 30-40 years age group

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation period 10 to 14 years
    Explanation
    The given statement "Incubation period 10 to 14 years" is not true about Typhoid. The incubation period for Typhoid fever is typically 1 to 3 weeks, not 10 to 14 years.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is true of Chicken pox? (AI 1989)

    • A.

      Virus not found in scab

    • B.

      Virus can be grown on chick embryo

    • C.

      Caused by RNA virus

    • D.

      Does not cross the placental barrier

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus not found in scab
    Explanation
    Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which is known to be present in the scabs of the skin lesions. Therefore, the statement "Virus not found in scab" is incorrect. The virus can be grown on chick embryo, making the statement "Virus can be grown on chick embryo" true. Chickenpox is caused by a DNA virus, not an RNA virus, so the statement "Caused by RNA virus" is false. Lastly, the virus can cross the placental barrier and cause congenital varicella syndrome, making the statement "Does not cross the placental barrier" false.

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  • 45. 

    Infectivity of chicken pox is seen up to: (UP 2002)

    • A.

      As long as patient has fever

    • B.

      3 days after the appearance of rash

    • C.

      6 days after the appearance of rash

    • D.

      Till the scab falls

    Correct Answer
    A. As long as patient has fever
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As long as patient has fever". This means that the infectivity of chicken pox is seen as long as the patient has a fever. Once the fever subsides, the infectivity decreases. It is important to note that chicken pox is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with the rash. Therefore, it is crucial to take precautions and avoid contact with infected individuals until they are no longer contagious.

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  • 46. 

    No subclinical infection exists in (JIPMER 2003)

    • A.

      Polio

    • B.

      Mumps

    • C.

      Chicken pox

    • D.

      Hepatitis A

    Correct Answer
    A. Polio
    Explanation
    Polio is the correct answer because subclinical infection refers to an infection that does not cause any noticeable symptoms. Polio is known to cause symptoms such as fever, headache, muscle weakness, and paralysis, making it unlikely to have a subclinical infection. On the other hand, mumps, chickenpox, and hepatitis A can all have subclinical infections where individuals may not display any symptoms but still carry the virus.

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  • 47. 

    In which of the following Subclinical infection is not seen in: (Delhi 2002)

    • A.

      Chicken pox

    • B.

      Measles

    • C.

      Polio

    • D.

      Diphtheria

    Correct Answer
    A. Chicken pox
    Explanation
    Subclinical infection refers to an infection that does not cause any noticeable symptoms in the infected individual. In the case of chickenpox, it is a highly contagious viral infection that typically causes a characteristic rash and other symptoms. Therefore, chickenpox does not fall under the category of subclinical infections. Measles, polio, and diphtheria can all have subclinical presentations, where individuals may be infected without showing obvious signs of illness.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 23, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 23, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Fmgs India
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