Simulation Examination For Haad Labtech

Reviewed by Editorial Team

The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.

Learn about Our Editorial Process

| By Lazada001

Lazada001

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 194

| Attempts: 194

Questions

Feedback

During the Quiz End of Quiz

Difficulty

Easy First Hard First Sequential

1/112 Questions

Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity
- True
- False

About This Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Medical/ Laboratory Technology Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks. This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE. Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics. Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or See morevisit our website www. Medtec. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF

Simulation Examination For Haad Labtech - Quiz

Quiz Preview

2.

For disease testing, "RPR" is for testing
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis B
- Syphilis
- Zika
Correct Answer

A. Syphilis

Explanation

The correct answer is "Syphilis" because RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) is a type of blood test used to detect antibodies produced by the body in response to the bacteria that causes syphilis. This test is commonly used for screening and diagnosing syphilis infection. It is not used for testing Hepatitis C, Hepatitis B, or Zika virus.

Rate this question:
3.

Is [your statement here] true or false?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The given answer is "True". This means that the statement mentioned in the question is true.

Rate this question:
4.

Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and non-life threateningTreat with benadryl
- Febrile
- TRALI
- TACO
- Allergic
Correct Answer

A. Allergic

Explanation

The given symptoms of erythema, pruritis, and hives indicate an allergic reaction. The mention of IgE suggests that this reaction is mediated by immunoglobulin E antibodies. The fact that the symptoms are described as very mild and non-life threatening further supports the idea that this is an allergic reaction rather than a more severe condition. The recommended treatment with benadryl is commonly used for allergic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Allergic."

Rate this question:
5.

Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity.
- Transfusion related acute lung injury
- Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
- Bacterial contamination
- Transfusion associated circulatory overload
Correct Answer

A. Transfusion associated circulatory overload

Explanation

Transfusion associated circulatory overload occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity due to a rapid or excessive transfusion of blood or blood products. This can lead to fluid overload in the lungs, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and pulmonary edema. It is important to monitor patients during transfusions and adjust the rate and volume of transfusion to prevent this complication.

Rate this question:
6.

The secretor gene is
- Rh null
- Se
- Those who have the Bombay phenotype
Correct Answer

A. Se

Explanation

The correct answer is "Se" because the secretor gene, also known as the FUT2 gene, is responsible for the production of enzymes that determine the presence of certain antigens in bodily fluids, including the ABO blood group antigens. The Se allele of the FUT2 gene produces the secretor phenotype, which means that individuals with this allele are able to secrete ABO antigens in their bodily fluids, such as saliva and tears. This is in contrast to individuals with the non-secretor phenotype, who do not have the ability to secrete these antigens. The Bombay phenotype, on the other hand, is a rare blood type that is characterized by the absence of ABO antigens and is caused by a different gene mutation.

Rate this question:
7.

For those who are platelet donors, they must..
- Take aspirin before the donation and have HCT levels of < 36%
- Avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation wit HCT levels of 36%
- Fast 48 hours before donation
- Have hematocrit levels greater than 38%
Correct Answer

A. Avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation wit HCT levels of 36%

Explanation

Platelet donors must avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation with HCT levels of 36%. This is because aspirin can affect platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding during the donation process. HCT levels below 36% may indicate anemia or low red blood cell count, which can also increase the risk of complications during donation. Therefore, it is important for platelet donors to abstain from taking aspirin and maintain HCT levels above 36% to ensure a safe and successful donation.

Rate this question:
8.

The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B is what?
- Picornaviridae
- Hepadnaviridae
- Flaviridae
- Defective, single-stranded RNA virus
- Calcviridae
- Gb virus C(GBV-C)
Correct Answer

A. Hepadnaviridae

Explanation

Hepadnaviridae is the correct answer for the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B. Hepadnaviridae is a family of viruses that includes the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). HBV is a DNA virus that primarily infects the liver and causes hepatitis. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids. Understanding the etiologic agent of a disease is crucial for the development of effective diagnostic tests, treatments, and prevention strategies.

Rate this question:
9.

CD4 count _____/ul patient has clinical AIDS
- 300
- 100
- 200
Correct Answer

A. 200

Explanation

A CD4 count of 200/ul indicates that the patient has clinical AIDS. CD4 count is a measure of the number of CD4 T-cells in the blood, which are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. A CD4 count below 200/ul is considered a threshold for the diagnosis of AIDS, as it indicates severe immune suppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Therefore, a CD4 count of 200/ul suggests that the patient's immune system is significantly compromised, leading to the diagnosis of clinical AIDS.

Rate this question:
10.

Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it:
- Provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devices
- Ensures that all procedures are up to date
- Documents the functionality of all blood bank equipment
- Gives us confidence that all staff have been adequately trained
Correct Answer

A. Provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devices

Explanation

Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devices. This means that by calibrating our measuring devices, we can ensure that they are providing accurate and reliable measurements. This is crucial in industries such as pharmaceuticals, where precise measurements are necessary for quality control and compliance with regulatory standards. Calibration helps us identify any discrepancies or errors in our measuring devices, allowing us to make the necessary adjustments or repairs to maintain accuracy in our measurements.

Rate this question:
11.

Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgbAnamnestic response - previously sensitized Extravascular No complement activation DAT positiveOccurs 3 - 7 days after transfusion
- Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
- Febrile
- Transfusion related acute lung Injury
- Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
Correct Answer

A. Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

Explanation

The given symptoms of mild jaundice, fever, and decrease in hct/hgb indicate a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when the recipient has been previously sensitized to the donor's antigens and the immune system reacts to these antigens, leading to the destruction of the transfused red blood cells. The positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) further supports this diagnosis. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions typically occur 3-7 days after the transfusion.

Rate this question:
12.

The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white cells Complement is activatedSymptoms: chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distressX-ray would show pulmonary edemaGive leuko reduced
- Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
- Delayed hemolytic transfusion rxn
- Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury
- Anaphylactic
Correct Answer

A. Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury

Explanation

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is the correct answer because the symptoms described, such as chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress, and pulmonary edema on X-ray, are consistent with TRALI. TRALI occurs when antibodies present in the donor's blood react with the recipient's white blood cells, leading to an inflammatory response in the lungs. This can result in fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing symptoms of respiratory distress and pulmonary edema. Leuko reduction, or the removal of white blood cells from the transfusion product, can help prevent TRALI.

Rate this question:
13.

Bombay phenotypes..
- Have H, ABO antigens
- Have Z antigens
- Lack H and therefore lacks ABO antigens
- Can be transfused with any other blood types
Correct Answer

A. Lack H and therefore lacks ABO antigens

Explanation

The Bombay phenotype lacks the H antigen, which is necessary for the expression of ABO antigens. As a result, individuals with the Bombay phenotype do not have ABO antigens on their red blood cells. This means that their blood type cannot be determined using the usual ABO blood typing system. However, since they lack ABO antigens, their blood can be transfused to individuals with any other blood type without any adverse reactions.

Rate this question:
14.

Testing for HDV not required for blood donations.
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Blood donations do not require testing for HDV (Hepatitis D Virus). HDV is a virus that can cause severe liver disease and can only infect individuals who are already infected with Hepatitis B. However, HDV is rare and not commonly found in blood donors. Therefore, testing for HDV is not necessary for blood donations, making the statement true.

Rate this question:
15.

When does GVHD occur?
- When the donor and the recipient share the same blood type
- When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes
- When the blood has been sitting out for too long
- When the unit is close to expiring
Correct Answer

A. When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes

Explanation

GVHD (Graft-versus-host disease) occurs when the donor's immune cells, present in the transplanted tissue or organ, recognize the recipient's body as foreign and attack it. This immune response is triggered when the donor is homozygous for one of the recipient's HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) haplotypes. HLA molecules play a crucial role in the immune system by distinguishing between self and non-self cells. When the donor's immune cells recognize the recipient's cells as foreign due to a matching HLA haplotype, they initiate an immune response that leads to GVHD.

Rate this question:
16.

The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is that
- Fetal hgb resists acid elution
- Adult hgb resists acid elution
- Fetal red cells lose hgb under alkaline conditions
- Adult red cells accept dye under alkaline conditions
Correct Answer

A. Fetal hgb resists acid elution

Explanation

The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is based on the fact that fetal hemoglobin (hgb) resists acid elution. Acid elution is a technique used to identify and quantify fetal red cells in maternal blood. When a small amount of maternal blood is mixed with acid, adult red cells lose their hemoglobin and become colorless, while fetal red cells remain intact and retain their hemoglobin. By staining the cells and counting the fetal red cells, the test can determine the extent of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Therefore, the correct answer is that fetal hgb resists acid elution.

Rate this question:
17.

When whole blood is collected using CPDA-1, what is the expiration
- 21 days
- 35 days
- 42 days
- 1 year
Correct Answer

A. 35 days

Explanation

Whole blood collected using CPDA-1 has an expiration of 35 days. CPDA-1 is an anticoagulant solution that is commonly used for the preservation of whole blood. It contains citrate, phosphate, dextrose, and adenine which help to prevent clotting and maintain the viability of red blood cells. The expiration period of 35 days indicates the maximum amount of time that the blood can be stored while still maintaining its quality and usefulness for transfusion purposes. After this period, the blood may start to deteriorate and lose its effectiveness, hence the need for proper storage and timely use.

Rate this question:
18.

Adsol would give RBCs a ___ expiration
- 42 day
- 30 day
- 7 day
- 21 day
Correct Answer

A. 42 day

Explanation

The correct answer is 42 days. This means that Adsol would give red blood cells (RBCs) an expiration period of 42 days. This suggests that Adsol is a solution or additive used to extend the shelf life of RBCs, allowing them to be stored and used for a longer period of time before they expire.

Rate this question:
19.

Leukocyte Reduction/filtration is done to
- Prevent CMV infection and HLA alloimmunization
- Prevent an overload of volume
- To prevent iron overload
- To prevent disease transmission
Correct Answer

A. Prevent CMV infection and HLA alloimmunization

Explanation

Leukocyte reduction/filtration is a process that removes white blood cells from blood products. This procedure is done to prevent CMV (Cytomegalovirus) infection and HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) alloimmunization. CMV is a common virus that can cause serious complications in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as transplant recipients or premature infants. By removing white blood cells, which can carry the virus, the risk of CMV infection is reduced. HLA alloimmunization refers to the development of antibodies against HLA antigens, which can occur during blood transfusions or organ transplants. Leukocyte reduction helps prevent this immune response, reducing the risk of complications.

Rate this question:
20.

Most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis D
- Hepatitis E
- Hepatitis G
Correct Answer

A. Hepatitis C

Explanation

Hepatitis C is the most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis. This is because the hepatitis C virus (HCV) is known to persist in the body for a long time, often leading to a chronic infection. Unlike hepatitis A and E, which are usually acute and self-limiting, hepatitis C can progress to chronic liver disease, cirrhosis, and even hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatitis B and D can also cause chronic hepatitis, but hepatitis C is more common globally. Hepatitis G is a less common virus and is not typically associated with chronic hepatitis.

Rate this question:
21.

Hepatitis G: Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction diagnoses _________ infection; anti-E2 and negative PCR indicates _____ infection.
- Current, past
- Current, current
- Past, current
- Past, past
Correct Answer

A. Current, past

Explanation

The given answer suggests that reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) can diagnose current Hepatitis G infection. If the RT-PCR test is positive for anti-E2, it indicates a current infection. However, if the RT-PCR test is negative for anti-E2, it suggests a past infection. Therefore, the correct answer is "current, past."

Rate this question:
22.

Prewarm testing is done to...
- Remove the C3b
- Determine whether there are leukocytes presesnt
- Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody
- Determines host versus graft
Correct Answer

A. Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody

Explanation

Prewarm testing is done to determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody. This testing is important because it helps identify the presence of antibodies that can cause a reaction at body temperature. By prewarming the serum, any warm reacting antibodies present will bind to the red blood cells, indicating their presence. This information is crucial in determining compatibility for blood transfusions or identifying the cause of certain autoimmune diseases.

Rate this question:
23.

Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be characterized with NO FEVER & abdominal cramps. Symptoms also includes coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, chest pain.
- TRALI
- Anaphylactic
- TACO
- Bacterial contamination
Correct Answer

A. Anaphylactic

Explanation

Anaphylactic reactions occur when a person has a severe allergic response to a substance, in this case, donor IgA. Symptoms of anaphylaxis can include coughing, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), nausea, flushing, and chest pain. However, fever and abdominal cramps are not typically associated with anaphylactic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is anaphylactic.

Rate this question:
24.

Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is
- 24 hours
- 6 hours
- 4 hours
- 2 hours
Correct Answer

A. 4 hours

Explanation

When platelets are pooled without a sterile connecting device, there is an increased risk of contamination. Contamination can lead to bacterial growth, which can reduce the effectiveness and safety of the platelets. Therefore, the expiration time is reduced to 4 hours to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure the platelets are still viable and safe for use.

Rate this question:
25.

What blood group antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
- Anti-P
- Anti-P1
- Anti - B
- Anti - lea
Correct Answer

A. Anti-P

Explanation

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is a condition characterized by the destruction of red blood cells in response to cold temperatures. The correct answer, Anti-P, refers to the antibody that is associated with this condition. This antibody targets the P antigen on red blood cells, leading to their destruction when exposed to cold temperatures. The presence of Anti-P in the blood is a diagnostic marker for paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.

Rate this question:
26.

RBCs that have been frozen are stored at which minimum temperature and maximum storage of time?
- - 65C for 5 years
- - 65 C for 10 years
- -85C for 10 years
- -80 C for 10 years
Correct Answer

A. - 65 C for 10 years

Explanation

RBCs that have been frozen are stored at a minimum temperature of -65°C and can be stored for a maximum of 10 years. This freezing temperature helps to preserve the RBCs and extend their shelf life. Freezing the RBCs at this temperature slows down their metabolic activity and prevents degradation, allowing them to be stored for a longer period of time.

Rate this question:
27.

Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for
- P1
- ABO
- Sda
- Chido
Correct Answer

A. P1

Explanation

Hydatid cyst fluid contains P1 antigen, which is a neutralizing substance for P1 antibodies. This means that if a person with P1 antibodies is exposed to hydatid cyst fluid, the P1 antibodies will be neutralized by the P1 antigen present in the fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is P1.

Rate this question:
28.

Which type of hemolysis is destroyed in the bloodstream releasing hemoglobin into plasma?________

Correct Answer
Intravascular

Explanation
Intravascular hemolysis refers to the destruction of red blood cells within the bloodstream, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. This can occur due to various factors such as infections, autoimmune disorders, or certain medications. In intravascular hemolysis, the red blood cells are directly destroyed within the blood vessels, causing the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. This can lead to various complications such as anemia and jaundice.

Rate this question:
29.

FFP is prepared within how many hours of collection?
- 16
- 24
- 48
- 8
Correct Answer

A. 8

Explanation

FFP, which stands for Fresh Frozen Plasma, is prepared within 8 hours of collection. This means that after the plasma is collected, it is processed and frozen within a time frame of 8 hours. This ensures that the plasma retains its freshness and is suitable for transfusion purposes. If the plasma is not processed and frozen within this time frame, it may not be considered fresh and may not be used for transfusion.

Rate this question:
30.

In U.S. only _____ is found the other is found in West Africa.
- HIV-1
- HIV-2
Correct Answer

A. HIV-1

Explanation

HIV-1 is found in the U.S. and HIV-2 is found in West Africa. This suggests that HIV-1 is the only type of HIV found in the U.S., while HIV-2 is exclusive to West Africa.

Rate this question:
31.

After the “best” solution has been implemented in a Process Improvement undertaking, you should:
- Pat yourself on the back
- Collect data to assess the impact
- Report your efforts to the FDA as soon as possible
- Apply the same solution to all blood bank procedures
Correct Answer

A. Collect data to assess the impact

Explanation

After implementing the "best" solution in a Process Improvement undertaking, it is important to collect data to assess the impact. This is necessary to evaluate whether the solution has been effective in improving the process and achieving the desired outcomes. Collecting data allows for objective measurement and analysis of the impact, helping to identify any areas that may still need improvement or any unintended consequences that may have arisen. It also provides valuable information for future decision-making and continuous improvement efforts.

Rate this question:
32.

64 yr old M admitted for GI bleed. Hx of intestinal cancer. Samples sent for T/S and 2 RBCs STAT.What is the discrepancy? Anti AAnti BA1 cellsB cells 4+1+ 04+
- A sub group
- B acquired phenotype
- Rouleaux
- Newborns
Correct Answer

A. B acquired phenotype

Explanation

The correct answer is B acquired phenotype. This term refers to a situation where an individual's red blood cells (RBCs) acquire a different antigenic phenotype due to factors such as transfusion or bone marrow transplantation. In this case, the discrepancy may be that the patient's RBCs are showing a different antigenic phenotype than what is expected based on their blood type. This could be due to a recent transfusion or other medical intervention that has caused the patient's RBCs to acquire a different phenotype.

Rate this question:
33.

Reactivity up to 32 CIdiopathicSpontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C3 only Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased
- Benign
- Pathologic
- PCH
Correct Answer

A. Pathologic

Explanation

The given answer "Pathologic" is correct because it refers to a condition or process that is abnormal or indicative of a disease. This is supported by the information provided in the question, such as "Reactivity up to 32 C," "Spontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C," and "Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased." These characteristics suggest that there is an abnormal or pathological response occurring in certain conditions, specifically related to heart surgery and temperature changes.

Rate this question:
34.

Which cells have the least amount of H antigens?
- A2B
- A1B
- A2
- O
Correct Answer

A. A1B

Explanation

A1B blood type has the least amount of H antigens. In the ABO blood group system, A1B is a subtype of the A blood type where both A and B antigens are present on the red blood cells. The presence of both A and B antigens means that there are fewer H antigens compared to other blood types. A2B, A2, and O blood types have more H antigens than A1B.

Rate this question:
35.

In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is
- Hard spin followed by hard spin
- Light spin followed by hard spin
- Hard spin followed by light spin
- Light spin followed by light spin
Correct Answer

A. Light spin followed by hard spin

Explanation

The correct order of centrifugation in preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood is to first perform a light spin, followed by a hard spin. This order allows for the separation of different components based on their density. During the light spin, the blood components with higher density, such as red blood cells, will settle at the bottom of the tube. The supernatant, which contains platelets and plasma, is then transferred to a new tube. The hard spin is then performed to further separate the platelets from the plasma. This order ensures a higher yield of platelets while minimizing contamination with other blood components.

Rate this question:
36.

A good Document Control Plan:
- Requires blood bank staff to carry copies of procedures in their lab coat pockets
- Includes storage locations for outdated versions of blood bank forms in case we run out of the current version
- Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use
- Allows all staff members to make hand-written corrections in written procedures
Correct Answer

A. Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use." This is because a good Document Control Plan should focus on maintaining the accuracy and currency of documents. By ensuring that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use, it helps to prevent any potential errors or confusion that may arise from using outdated or incorrect documents. This practice promotes efficiency, accuracy, and compliance within the organization.

Rate this question:
37.

Shortens the life span of RBCs to 28 days
- Washing red cells
- Irradiating red cells
- Creating an open system
- Sterilize connecting
Correct Answer

A. Irradiating red cells

Explanation

Irradiating red cells is a process that involves exposing the blood cells to radiation. This is done to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD), a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusions. Irradiation damages the DNA of the cells, preventing them from dividing and proliferating in the recipient's body. By shortening the life span of the red blood cells to 28 days, the risk of TA-GVHD is significantly reduced.

Rate this question:
38.

The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G is what?
- Picornaviridae
- Hepadnaviridae
- Flaviridae
- Defective, single-stranded RNA virus
- Calcviridae
- Gb virus C(GBV-C)
Correct Answer

A. Gb virus C(GBV-C)

Explanation

Gb virus C (GBV-C) is the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G. This virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family.

Rate this question:
39.

Hepatitis B: HBV DNA detected by PCR before or after HBsAg reaches detectable levels?
- After
- Before
Correct Answer

A. Before

Explanation

HBV DNA can be detected by PCR before HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) reaches detectable levels. This is because HBV DNA is the genetic material of the virus, while HBsAg is a protein on the surface of the virus. During the early stages of infection, the virus replicates and HBV DNA can be detected in the blood before enough HBsAg is produced to be detected by standard tests. Therefore, PCR can be used to detect the presence of HBV DNA before HBsAg becomes detectable.

Rate this question:
40.

A single vial of RhIG can suppress how mL of fetal hemorrhage?
- 40
- 10
- 30
- 100
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

A single vial of RhIG can suppress 30 mL of fetal hemorrhage.

Rate this question:
41.

Causes a positive DAT 3 - 6 months after tx Red cells are coated with IgGDAT diminishes after therapy is discontinued but can take 1 month to 2 years to clearimmune hemolysis antibodies are formed that reacts with intrinsic red cells antigens
- Drug adsorption
- Immune complex adsorption
- Nonimmune adsorption of proteins
- Induction of autoimmunity
Correct Answer

A. Induction of autoimmunity

Explanation

The correct answer is "Induction of autoimmunity". This is because the statement mentions that the drug causes a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) 3-6 months after treatment, indicating the presence of antibodies that react with intrinsic red cell antigens. This suggests that the drug is inducing an autoimmune response, where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own red blood cells.

Rate this question:
42.

An often fatal condition characterized by general edema that results from anemia is
- Kernicterus
- DIC
- Erythroblastosis fetalis
- Hydrops fetalis
Correct Answer

A. Hydrops fetalis

Explanation

Hydrops fetalis is an often fatal condition characterized by general edema that results from anemia. This condition occurs when there is severe fetal anemia, leading to an excessive accumulation of fluid in the fetus's body. The anemia can be caused by various factors, such as Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus, blood group incompatibility, or genetic disorders affecting red blood cell production. The excessive fluid accumulation can lead to complications and can be life-threatening for the fetus.

Rate this question:
43.

How does the indicator cells work in Fetal screens?
- They are D negative cells that bind to anti-D generated by the mother
- They are positive D cells that bind to antibodies made by the fetus
- They are positive D cells that bind to the abs that are already coating the positive fetal cells
- They are negative D cells that do not bind to anything
Correct Answer

A. They are positive D cells that bind to the abs that are already coating the positive fetal cells

Explanation

Indicator cells in fetal screens are positive D cells that bind to the antibodies (abs) that are already coating the positive fetal cells. This binding helps in detecting the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that may cause complications during pregnancy, such as hemolytic disease of the newborn. By identifying these antibodies, appropriate medical interventions can be taken to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus.

Rate this question:
44.

The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-D is what?
- Picornaviridae
- Hepadnaviridae
- Flaviridae
- Defective, single-stranded RNA virus
- Calcviridae
- Gb virus C(GBV-C)
Correct Answer

A. Defective, single-stranded RNA virus

Explanation

The correct answer is "defective, single-stranded RNA virus". This is because Hepatitis-D is caused by the Hepatitis-D virus (HDV), which is a defective, single-stranded RNA virus. HDV cannot replicate on its own and requires the presence of the Hepatitis-B virus (HBV) to complete its life cycle. Therefore, it is considered a "defective" virus.

Rate this question:
45.

Rouleaux can..
- Be related to increase serum protein levels
- Resemble stacked coins under microscopic examination
- Be resolved involving a saline replacement
- Be positive after a saline replacement
Correct Answer(s)

A. Be related to increase serum protein levels
A. Resemble stacked coins under microscopic examination
A. Be resolved involving a saline replacement

Explanation

Rouleaux refers to the stacking of red blood cells in a column-like formation, resembling stacked coins under microscopic examination. This phenomenon can be related to an increase in serum protein levels, as proteins in the blood can cause the red blood cells to stick together. To resolve rouleaux formation, a saline replacement can be used, which involves replacing the patient's plasma with a saline solution to disperse the red blood cells and break up the stacking.

Rate this question:
46.

Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with IgG
- Intravascular
- Extravascular
Correct Answer

A. Extravascular

Explanation

The correct answer is "Extravascular." This means that intact red cells, which are coated with IgG, are removed from circulation by the reticuloendothelial (RE) system outside of the blood vessels. This process occurs outside of the bloodstream, suggesting that the removal of these red cells happens in tissues or organs outside of the blood vessels.

Rate this question:
47.

PCH reacts at less than ________ C

Correct Answer
20

Explanation
The given statement suggests that PCH reacts at a temperature lower than 20 degrees Celsius.

Rate this question:
48.

After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a ________ % increase in hematocrit or ________ g increase in hemoglobin

Correct Answer
3
1

Explanation
After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB, there should be a 3% increase in hematocrit or 1g increase in hemoglobin. This indicates that the transfusion has successfully increased the concentration of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the recipient's blood. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in the blood, while hemoglobin is the protein responsible for carrying oxygen. A 3% increase in hematocrit or 1g increase in hemoglobin is considered a standard response to a blood transfusion.

Rate this question:
49.

Storage lesion leads to ________ in pH________ in lactic acid________ of glucose concentration ________ in hemoglobin oxygen affinity ________ of ATP levels________ of 2,3 DPG levels

Correct Answer
Decrease
Increase
Decrease
Increase
Decrease
Decrease

Explanation
Storage lesion refers to the changes that occur in blood products during storage, leading to a decrease in their quality and effectiveness. These changes include a decrease in pH, an increase in lactic acid levels, a decrease in glucose concentration, an increase in hemoglobin oxygen affinity, a decrease in ATP levels, and a decrease in 2,3 DPG levels. These alterations can affect the functionality and viability of the stored blood products, making them less suitable for transfusion.

Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Apr 05, 2018

Quiz Created by
Lazada001

Recent Quizzes

JIPMER PREVIOUS EXAM QUESTIONS JIPMER PREVIOUS EXAM QUESTIONS

Certified Gastroenterology RN Exam Quiz! Certified Gastroenterology RN Exam Quiz!

PSM PAST ALL INDIA QUESTIONS PSM PAST ALL INDIA QUESTIONS

Simulation Examination For Haad Labtech

Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity

Quiz Preview

For disease testing, "RPR" is for testing

Is [your statement here] true or false?

Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and non-life threateningTreat with benadryl

Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity.

The secretor gene is

For those who are platelet donors, they must..

The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B is what?

CD4 count _____/ul patient has clinical AIDS

Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it:

Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgbAnamnestic response - previously sensitized Extravascular No complement activation DAT positiveOccurs 3 - 7 days after transfusion

The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white cells Complement is activatedSymptoms: chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distressX-ray would show pulmonary edemaGive leuko reduced

Bombay phenotypes..

Testing for HDV not required for blood donations.

When does GVHD occur?

The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is that

When whole blood is collected using CPDA-1, what is the expiration

Adsol would give RBCs a ___ expiration

Leukocyte Reduction/filtration is done to

Most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis

Hepatitis G: Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction diagnoses _________ infection; anti-E2 and negative PCR indicates _____ infection.

Prewarm testing is done to...

Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be characterized with NO FEVER & abdominal cramps. Symptoms also includes coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, chest pain.

Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is

What blood group antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

RBCs that have been frozen are stored at which minimum temperature and maximum storage of time?

Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for

Which type of hemolysis is destroyed in the bloodstream releasing hemoglobin into plasma?________

FFP is prepared within how many hours of collection?

In U.S. only _____ is found the other is found in West Africa.

After the “best” solution has been implemented in a Process Improvement undertaking, you should:

64 yr old M admitted for GI bleed. Hx of intestinal cancer. Samples sent for T/S and 2 RBCs STAT.What is the discrepancy? Anti AAnti BA1 cellsB cells 4+1+ 04+

Reactivity up to 32 CIdiopathicSpontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C3 only Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased

Which cells have the least amount of H antigens?

In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is

A good Document Control Plan:

Shortens the life span of RBCs to 28 days

The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G is what?

Hepatitis B: HBV DNA detected by PCR before or after HBsAg reaches detectable levels?

A single vial of RhIG can suppress how mL of fetal hemorrhage?

Causes a positive DAT 3 - 6 months after tx Red cells are coated with IgGDAT diminishes after therapy is discontinued but can take 1 month to 2 years to clearimmune hemolysis antibodies are formed that reacts with intrinsic red cells antigens

An often fatal condition characterized by general edema that results from anemia is

How does the indicator cells work in Fetal screens?

The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-D is what?

Rouleaux can..

Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with IgG

PCH reacts at less than ________ C

After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a ________ % increase in hematocrit or ________ g increase in hemoglobin

Storage lesion leads to ________ in pH________ in lactic acid________ of glucose concentration ________ in hemoglobin oxygen affinity ________ of ATP levels________ of 2,3 DPG levels

Hepatitis G: Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction diagnoses _____ infection; anti-E2 and negative PCR indicates _ infection.

64 yr old M admitted for GI bleed. Hx of intestinal cancer. Samples sent for T/S and 2 RBCs STAT.What is the discrepancy? Anti AAnti BA1 cellsB cells 4+1+ 04+

After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a % increase in hematocrit or g increase in hemoglobin

Storage lesion leads to in pH in lactic acid of glucose concentration in hemoglobin oxygen affinity of ATP levels of 2,3 DPG levels