Simulation Examination For Haad Labtech

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  • 1/112 Questions

    What is a cold panel?

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About This Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Medical/ Laboratory Technology Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks. This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi, KSA, and UAE. Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics. Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or See morevisit our website www. Medtec. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF

Simulation Examination For Haad Labtech - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What are the four different mechanisms of drug induced red cell sensitization?

  • 3. 

    List those who are at risk for TA-GVHD

  • 4. 

    List the disease testing that is performed on ALL allogeneic donor units

  • 5. 

    If your patient is type AB, what type of plasma can they receive?

  • 6. 

    List 5 Different Factors that affect sensitization

  • 7. 

    List the three mechanisms that can cause weak D

  • 8. 

    What is the equation to calculate the number of RhIg needed?

  • 9. 

    The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B is what?

    • Picornaviridae

    • Hepadnaviridae

    • Flaviridae

    • Defective, single-stranded RNA virus

    • Calcviridae

    • Gb virus C(GBV-C)

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepadnaviridae
    Explanation
    Hepadnaviridae is the correct answer for the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B. Hepadnaviridae is a family of viruses that includes the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). HBV is a DNA virus that primarily infects the liver and causes hepatitis. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids. Understanding the etiologic agent of a disease is crucial for the development of effective diagnostic tests, treatments, and prevention strategies.

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  • 10. 

    The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-C is what?

    • Picornaviridae

    • Hepadnaviridae

    • Flaviridae

    • Defective, single-stranded RNA virus

    • Calcviridae

    • Gb virus C(GBV-C)

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaviridae
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Flaviridae. Flaviridae is the family of viruses that includes the hepatitis C virus (HCV). HCV is a single-stranded RNA virus that causes hepatitis C. It is not classified under Picornaviridae, Hepadnaviridae, Calcviridae, or GB virus C (GBV-C).

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  • 11. 

    The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-D is what?

    • Picornaviridae

    • Hepadnaviridae

    • Flaviridae

    • Defective, single-stranded RNA virus

    • Calcviridae

    • Gb virus C(GBV-C)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defective, single-stranded RNA virus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "defective, single-stranded RNA virus". This is because Hepatitis-D is caused by the Hepatitis-D virus (HDV), which is a defective, single-stranded RNA virus. HDV cannot replicate on its own and requires the presence of the Hepatitis-B virus (HBV) to complete its life cycle. Therefore, it is considered a "defective" virus.

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  • 12. 

    The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-E is what?

    • Picornaviridae

    • Hepadnaviridae

    • Flaviridae

    • Defective, single-stranded RNA virus

    • Calcviridae

    • Gb virus C(GBV-C)

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcviridae
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Calcviridae. Calcviridae is a family of viruses that includes the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-E.

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  • 13. 

    The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G is what?

    • Picornaviridae

    • Hepadnaviridae

    • Flaviridae

    • Defective, single-stranded RNA virus

    • Calcviridae

    • Gb virus C(GBV-C)

    Correct Answer
    A. Gb virus C(GBV-C)
    Explanation
    Gb virus C (GBV-C) is the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G. This virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family.

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  • 14. 

    Transmission is fecal oral route

    • Hepatitis-A

    • Hepatitis-B

    • Hepatitis-C

    • Hepatitis-D

    • Hepatitis-E

    • Hepatitis-G

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hepatitis-A
    A. Hepatitis-E
    Explanation
    Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E are both transmitted through the fecal-oral route. This means that the viruses causing these types of hepatitis are found in the feces of an infected individual and can be transmitted to another person through ingestion of contaminated food or water. This mode of transmission is common in areas with poor sanitation and hygiene practices. Hepatitis B, C, D, and G, on the other hand, are primarily transmitted through blood and other body fluids, such as semen and vaginal fluids.

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  • 15. 

    Most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hepatitis D

    • Hepatitis E

    • Hepatitis G

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis C
    Explanation
    Hepatitis C is the most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis. This is because the hepatitis C virus (HCV) is known to persist in the body for a long time, often leading to a chronic infection. Unlike hepatitis A and E, which are usually acute and self-limiting, hepatitis C can progress to chronic liver disease, cirrhosis, and even hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatitis B and D can also cause chronic hepatitis, but hepatitis C is more common globally. Hepatitis G is a less common virus and is not typically associated with chronic hepatitis.

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  • 16. 

    Estimate 170 million chronic carriers worldwide

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hepatitis D

    • Hepatitis E

    • Hepatitis G

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis C
    Explanation
    Hepatitis C is the correct answer because it is estimated that there are 170 million chronic carriers of the virus worldwide. This suggests that Hepatitis C has a significant global prevalence and is a major public health concern.

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  • 17. 

    Hepatitis B: HBV DNA detected by PCR before or after HBsAg reaches detectable levels?

    • After

    • Before

    Correct Answer
    A. Before
    Explanation
    HBV DNA can be detected by PCR before HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) reaches detectable levels. This is because HBV DNA is the genetic material of the virus, while HBsAg is a protein on the surface of the virus. During the early stages of infection, the virus replicates and HBV DNA can be detected in the blood before enough HBsAg is produced to be detected by standard tests. Therefore, PCR can be used to detect the presence of HBV DNA before HBsAg becomes detectable.

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  • 18. 

    _____ requres HBsAG in order to synthesize an evelope protein; ____ and HBV are contracted concurrently.

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hepatitis D

    • Hepatitis E

    • Hepatitis G

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis D
    Explanation
    Hepatitis D requires HBsAG in order to synthesize an envelope protein. This means that the virus needs the surface antigen of the hepatitis B virus (HBV) to be present in order to replicate. Therefore, if someone contracts hepatitis D, it means they are also concurrently infected with hepatitis B.

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  • 19. 

    Coinfection: _____ severe  acute disease; _____ risk of chronic infection.

    • Less, more

    • More, less

    • Less, less

    • More, more

    Correct Answer
    A. More, less
    Explanation
    Coinfection refers to the simultaneous infection of an individual with two or more different pathogens. The given statement suggests that coinfection leads to a more severe acute disease, meaning that when two or more pathogens infect a person at the same time, the symptoms and severity of the disease are likely to be worse compared to a single infection. However, the statement also states that coinfection is associated with a lower risk of chronic infection. This means that despite the increased severity of the acute disease, the likelihood of the infection becoming a long-term or chronic condition is reduced when multiple pathogens are involved.

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  • 20. 

    Testing for HDV not required for blood donations.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Blood donations do not require testing for HDV (Hepatitis D Virus). HDV is a virus that can cause severe liver disease and can only infect individuals who are already infected with Hepatitis B. However, HDV is rare and not commonly found in blood donors. Therefore, testing for HDV is not necessary for blood donations, making the statement true.

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  • 21. 

    In U.S. only _____  is found the other is found in West Africa.

    • HIV-1

    • HIV-2

    Correct Answer
    A. HIV-1
    Explanation
    HIV-1 is found in the U.S. and HIV-2 is found in West Africa. This suggests that HIV-1 is the only type of HIV found in the U.S., while HIV-2 is exclusive to West Africa.

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  • 22. 

    Hepatitis G: Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction diagnoses _________ infection; anti-E2 and negative PCR indicates _____ infection.

    • Current, past

    • Current, current

    • Past, current

    • Past, past

    Correct Answer
    A. Current, past
    Explanation
    The given answer suggests that reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) can diagnose current Hepatitis G infection. If the RT-PCR test is positive for anti-E2, it indicates a current infection. However, if the RT-PCR test is negative for anti-E2, it suggests a past infection. Therefore, the correct answer is "current, past."

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  • 23. 

    CD4 count _____/ul patient has clinical AIDS

    • 300

    • 100

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    A CD4 count of 200/ul indicates that the patient has clinical AIDS. CD4 count is a measure of the number of CD4 T-cells in the blood, which are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. A CD4 count below 200/ul is considered a threshold for the diagnosis of AIDS, as it indicates severe immune suppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Therefore, a CD4 count of 200/ul suggests that the patient's immune system is significantly compromised, leading to the diagnosis of clinical AIDS.

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  • 24. 

    Which major types of AIHA has a non reactive eluate?

    • WAIHA

    • COLD

    • MIXED

    • PCH

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. COLD
    A. PCH
    Explanation
    The major types of AIHA that have a non-reactive eluate are COLD and PCH. COLD stands for Cold Agglutinin Disease, which is characterized by the presence of cold-reactive antibodies that cause red blood cell agglutination and hemolysis at low temperatures. PCH stands for Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria, which is a rare form of AIHA caused by the presence of a specific antibody that binds to red blood cells in cold temperatures and activates complement, leading to hemolysis. In both of these types, the eluate, which is the fluid obtained from washed red blood cells, does not show reactivity when tested with additional red blood cells.

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  • 25. 

    Which types of AIHA's show AHG reactivity

    • WARM

    • COLD

    • MIXED

    • PCH

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. WARM
    A. MIXED
    Explanation
    Warm and mixed types of AIHA (Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia) show AHG (Anti-Human Globulin) reactivity. AHG reactivity refers to the ability of antibodies to bind to red blood cells and cause their destruction. In warm AIHA, the antibodies are typically IgG and can bind to red blood cells at body temperature. In mixed AIHA, both IgG and complement proteins can bind to red blood cells, leading to their destruction. Cold AIHA, represented by the term "COLD" in the options, is associated with IgM antibodies that agglutinate red blood cells at lower temperatures. PCH (Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria) is a rare type of AIHA caused by the Donath-Landsteiner antibody, which shows biphasic reactivity.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of hemolysis is destroyed in the bloodstream releasing hemoglobin into plasma?________

    Correct Answer(s)
    Intravascular
    Explanation
    Intravascular hemolysis refers to the destruction of red blood cells within the bloodstream, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. This can occur due to various factors such as infections, autoimmune disorders, or certain medications. In intravascular hemolysis, the red blood cells are directly destroyed within the blood vessels, causing the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. This can lead to various complications such as anemia and jaundice.

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  • 27. 

    Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with IgG

    • Intravascular

    • Extravascular

    Correct Answer
    A. Extravascular
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Extravascular." This means that intact red cells, which are coated with IgG, are removed from circulation by the reticuloendothelial (RE) system outside of the blood vessels. This process occurs outside of the bloodstream, suggesting that the removal of these red cells happens in tissues or organs outside of the blood vessels.

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  • 28. 

    Most common @ 4CLow titer @ 4C<64 Negative DAT Can interfere with ABO typing, Rh and DAT

    • Benign Cold Auto

    • Pathologic cold Auto

    • PCH

    Correct Answer
    A. Benign Cold Auto
    Explanation
    The given information suggests that the patient has a benign cold autoantibody. This type of antibody is commonly found at low titers and does not cause any significant harm or symptoms to the patient. It can interfere with ABO typing, Rh testing, and Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT). This interference can lead to incorrect results in these tests. Therefore, the correct answer is "Benign Cold Auto."

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  • 29. 

    Reactivity up to 32 CIdiopathicSpontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C3 only Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased 

    • Benign

    • Pathologic

    • PCH

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathologic
    Explanation
    The given answer "Pathologic" is correct because it refers to a condition or process that is abnormal or indicative of a disease. This is supported by the information provided in the question, such as "Reactivity up to 32 C," "Spontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C," and "Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased." These characteristics suggest that there is an abnormal or pathological response occurring in certain conditions, specifically related to heart surgery and temperature changes.

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  • 30. 

    What is associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • Benign cold auto

    • Pathologic cold auto

    • PCH

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathologic cold auto
    Explanation
    Mycoplasma pneumoniae is associated with Pathologic cold auto. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that can cause respiratory infections, including pneumonia. Pathologic cold auto refers to the presence of cold agglutinins in the blood, which are antibodies that can cause red blood cells to clump together at low temperatures. Infections with Mycoplasma pneumoniae can sometimes lead to the production of these cold agglutinins, resulting in a condition known as pathologic cold auto.

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  • 31. 

    PCH can be associated with...

    • Children

    • Viral infections

    • Age

    • Gender

    • Rapid intravascular hemolysis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Children
    A. Viral infections
    A. Rapid intravascular hemolysis
    Explanation
    PCH, or paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, is a rare autoimmune disorder that primarily affects children. It is often triggered by viral infections, leading to the destruction of red blood cells and hemolysis. Rapid intravascular hemolysis, which refers to the breakdown of red blood cells within blood vessels, is also associated with PCH. Therefore, PCH can be associated with children, viral infections, and rapid intravascular hemolysis.

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  • 32. 

    PCH reacts at less than ________ C

    Correct Answer(s)
    20
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that PCH reacts at a temperature lower than 20 degrees Celsius.

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  • 33. 

    What can aid in the detection of warm autoantibodies

    • DAT

    • Panels

    • Eluates

    • Adsorptions

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. DAT
    A. Panels
    A. Eluates
    A. Adsorptions
    Explanation
    The detection of warm autoantibodies can be aided by several methods including DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test), panels, eluates, and adsorptions. The DAT is a test used to detect antibodies or complement proteins attached to red blood cells. Panels refer to a collection of different red blood cell samples that can be used for testing and identifying specific antibodies. Eluates are obtained by washing red blood cells to remove antibodies attached to them, which can then be tested separately. Adsorptions involve removing unwanted antibodies from a patient's serum by mixing it with appropriate red blood cells. These methods collectively help in detecting warm autoantibodies.

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  • 34. 

    Prewarm testing is done to...

    • Remove the C3b

    • Determine whether there are leukocytes presesnt

    • Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody

    • Determines host versus graft

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody
    Explanation
    Prewarm testing is done to determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody. This testing is important because it helps identify the presence of antibodies that can cause a reaction at body temperature. By prewarming the serum, any warm reacting antibodies present will bind to the red blood cells, indicating their presence. This information is crucial in determining compatibility for blood transfusions or identifying the cause of certain autoimmune diseases.

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  • 35. 

    Caused by antibodies in the host to the donors WCsGive leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells Can be pretreated with anti-pyreticsIncrease in 1C without any causes

    • IHTR

    • TRALI

    • Febrile

    • DHTR

    Correct Answer
    A. Febrile
    Explanation
    Febrile reactions are characterized by an increase in body temperature (1C) without any apparent cause. They are caused by antibodies in the host reacting to leukocytes in the donated blood. To prevent febrile reactions, leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells can be used, and pretreatment with anti-pyretics can be done. Therefore, the correct answer is Febrile.

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  • 36. 

    Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and non-life threateningTreat with benadryl

    • Febrile

    • TRALI

    • TACO

    • Allergic

    Correct Answer
    A. Allergic
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of erythema, pruritis, and hives indicate an allergic reaction. The mention of IgE suggests that this reaction is mediated by immunoglobulin E antibodies. The fact that the symptoms are described as very mild and non-life threatening further supports the idea that this is an allergic reaction rather than a more severe condition. The recommended treatment with benadryl is commonly used for allergic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Allergic."

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  • 37. 

    Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgbAnamnestic response - previously sensitized Extravascular No complement activation DAT positiveOccurs 3 - 7 days after transfusion

    • Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    • Febrile

    • Transfusion related acute lung Injury

    • Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    Correct Answer
    A. Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of mild jaundice, fever, and decrease in hct/hgb indicate a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when the recipient has been previously sensitized to the donor's antigens and the immune system reacts to these antigens, leading to the destruction of the transfused red blood cells. The positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) further supports this diagnosis. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions typically occur 3-7 days after the transfusion.

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  • 38. 

    The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white cells Complement is activatedSymptoms: chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distressX-ray would show pulmonary edemaGive leuko reduced 

    • Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    • Delayed hemolytic transfusion rxn

    • Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury

    • Anaphylactic

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury
    Explanation
    Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is the correct answer because the symptoms described, such as chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress, and pulmonary edema on X-ray, are consistent with TRALI. TRALI occurs when antibodies present in the donor's blood react with the recipient's white blood cells, leading to an inflammatory response in the lungs. This can result in fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing symptoms of respiratory distress and pulmonary edema. Leuko reduction, or the removal of white blood cells from the transfusion product, can help prevent TRALI.

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  • 39. 

    Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be characterized with NO FEVER & abdominal cramps. Symptoms also includes coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, chest pain.  

    • TRALI

    • Anaphylactic

    • TACO

    • Bacterial contamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaphylactic
    Explanation
    Anaphylactic reactions occur when a person has a severe allergic response to a substance, in this case, donor IgA. Symptoms of anaphylaxis can include coughing, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), nausea, flushing, and chest pain. However, fever and abdominal cramps are not typically associated with anaphylactic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is anaphylactic.

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  • 40. 

    What are common to cause bacterial contamination in TRs?

    • Serratia specie

    • Pseudomonas aerguginosa

    • Campylobacterm pseudomona

    • Yersinia enterocolitica

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Serratia specie
    A. Campylobacterm pseudomona
    A. Yersinia enterocolitica
    Explanation
    The common causes of bacterial contamination in TRs are Serratia species, Campylobacterm pseudomona, and Yersinia enterocolitica. These bacteria can contaminate TRs and lead to infections and illnesses if proper hygiene and sanitation practices are not followed. It is important to ensure that TRs are regularly cleaned and disinfected to prevent the growth and spread of these bacteria.

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  • 41. 

    Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity. 

    • Transfusion related acute lung injury

    • Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

    • Bacterial contamination

    • Transfusion associated circulatory overload

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfusion associated circulatory overload
    Explanation
    Transfusion associated circulatory overload occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity due to a rapid or excessive transfusion of blood or blood products. This can lead to fluid overload in the lungs, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and pulmonary edema. It is important to monitor patients during transfusions and adjust the rate and volume of transfusion to prevent this complication.

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  • 42. 

    Symptoms: dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, restlessnessSystolic hypertension (>50)

    • TACO

    • TRALI

    • Allergic

    • Anaphylactic

    Correct Answer
    A. TACO
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, and restlessness are indicative of fluid overload in the lungs, which is a characteristic of Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO). TACO occurs when there is an excessive volume of blood or blood products transfused, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and causing symptoms such as shortness of breath and coughing. The mention of systolic hypertension (>50) further supports the diagnosis of TACO, as increased blood pressure is often observed in this condition.

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  • 43. 

    Screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negativeHigh titer IgG - anti penicillin antibody is always present in the serumDAT is strong due to IgG coating

    • Drug adsorption

    • Immune complex adsorption

    • Non-immune adsorption of proteins

    • Induction of autoimmunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug adsorption
    Explanation
    The correct answer is drug adsorption. This is because the presence of high titer IgG antibodies against penicillin in the serum indicates that the antibodies are binding to the drug, leading to its adsorption. This can occur when the drug binds to proteins in the body, causing an immune response and the production of specific antibodies. The negative screening tests for unexpected antibodies suggest that there are no other antibodies present that could be causing the strong direct antiglobulin test (DAT) result. Therefore, the most likely explanation is that the antibodies are specifically binding to the drug, resulting in drug adsorption.

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  • 44. 

    Causes a positive DAT 3 - 6 months after tx Red cells are coated with IgGDAT diminishes after therapy is discontinued but can take 1 month to 2 years to clearimmune hemolysis antibodies are formed that reacts with intrinsic red cells antigens

    • Drug adsorption

    • Immune complex adsorption

    • Nonimmune adsorption of proteins

    • Induction of autoimmunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Induction of autoimmunity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Induction of autoimmunity". This is because the statement mentions that the drug causes a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) 3-6 months after treatment, indicating the presence of antibodies that react with intrinsic red cell antigens. This suggests that the drug is inducing an autoimmune response, where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own red blood cells.

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  • 45. 

    When does GVHD occur?

    • When the donor and the recipient share the same blood type

    • When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes

    • When the blood has been sitting out for too long

    • When the unit is close to expiring

    Correct Answer
    A. When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes
    Explanation
    GVHD (Graft-versus-host disease) occurs when the donor's immune cells, present in the transplanted tissue or organ, recognize the recipient's body as foreign and attack it. This immune response is triggered when the donor is homozygous for one of the recipient's HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) haplotypes. HLA molecules play a crucial role in the immune system by distinguishing between self and non-self cells. When the donor's immune cells recognize the recipient's cells as foreign due to a matching HLA haplotype, they initiate an immune response that leads to GVHD.

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  • 46. 

    Select those that are associated with GVHD

    • Bone marrow failure - asplasia

    • Increased bilirubin & liver enzymes

    • Increased urination

    • Skin Rash

    • High fever

    • Gastrointestinal disturbances

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Bone marrow failure - asplasia
    A. Increased bilirubin & liver enzymes
    A. Skin Rash
    A. High fever
    A. Gastrointestinal disturbances
    Explanation
    The correct answer options, bone marrow failure - asplasia, increased bilirubin & liver enzymes, skin rash, high fever, and gastrointestinal disturbances, are all associated with graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD is a complication that can occur after a stem cell or bone marrow transplant, where the donor's immune cells attack the recipient's tissues. Bone marrow failure - asplasia refers to the inability of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells. Increased bilirubin and liver enzymes indicate liver damage, which can occur in GVHD. Skin rash, high fever, and gastrointestinal disturbances are common symptoms of GVHD.

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  • 47. 

    When the drug alters the red cell membrane cause the membrane to absorb proteins including IgG and complement components. Causes a + DAT

    • Drug adsorption

    • Immune complex adsorption

    • Nonimmune adsorption of proteins

    • Induction of autoimmunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonimmune adsorption of proteins
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Nonimmune adsorption of proteins." This means that the drug alters the red cell membrane, causing it to absorb proteins, including IgG and complement components. This process leads to a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT), indicating the presence of nonimmune adsorption of proteins on the red cell membrane.

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  • 48. 

    What's the hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors?

    • 36%/12.5 g

    • 42%/13.4 g

    • 38%/12.5 g

    • 50%/13.0 g

    Correct Answer
    A. 36%/12.5 g
    Explanation
    The hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors is 36%/12.5 g. This means that the hematocrit (hct) level should be 36% and the hemoglobin (hgb) level should be 12.5 g. This ratio is used as a measure of the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity, and donors must meet this requirement in order to be eligible for donation.

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  • 49. 

    After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a ________  % increase in hematocrit or ________  g increase in hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    3
    1
    Explanation
    After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB, there should be a 3% increase in hematocrit or 1g increase in hemoglobin. This indicates that the transfusion has successfully increased the concentration of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the recipient's blood. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in the blood, while hemoglobin is the protein responsible for carrying oxygen. A 3% increase in hematocrit or 1g increase in hemoglobin is considered a standard response to a blood transfusion.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 05, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Lazada001

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