Simulation Examination For Haad Labtech

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Lazada001
L
Lazada001
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 198
| Attempts: 198 | Questions: 104
Please wait...
Question 1 / 104
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity

Explanation

Packed RBCs, also known as packed red blood cells, are transfused to treat a deficiency in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. This is because packed RBCs contain a high concentration of hemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. By transfusing packed RBCs, the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is increased, helping to improve oxygen delivery to the body's organs and tissues. Therefore, the statement "Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity" is true.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Simulation Examination For Haad Labtech - Quiz

This is a Simulated Examination for Medical/ Laboratory Technology Examinations taken from Last Month's HAAD Feedbacks. This examination contains 100 of the most UPDATED EXAMS from Abu Dhabi,... see moreKSA, and UAE. Take this examination for 120 minutes. You need to get 86% to pass the HAAD. 60% to pass MOH, DHA, or Prometrics. Please text 0919-286-29-29 in the Philippines or visit our website www. Medtec. Weebly. Com THIS IS YOUR ASSESSMENT FOR ANY GULF see less

2. For disease testing, "RPR" is for testing 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Syphilis" because RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) is a type of blood test used to detect antibodies produced by the body in response to the bacteria that causes syphilis. This test is commonly used for screening and diagnosing syphilis infection. It is not used for testing Hepatitis C, Hepatitis B, or Zika virus.

Submit
3. Is [your statement here] true or false?

Explanation

The given answer is "True". This means that the statement mentioned in the question is true.

Submit
4. Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and non-life threateningTreat with benadryl

Explanation

The given symptoms of erythema, pruritis, and hives indicate an allergic reaction. The mention of IgE suggests that this reaction is mediated by immunoglobulin E antibodies. The fact that the symptoms are described as very mild and non-life threatening further supports the idea that this is an allergic reaction rather than a more severe condition. The recommended treatment with benadryl is commonly used for allergic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Allergic."

Submit
5. Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity. 

Explanation

Transfusion associated circulatory overload occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity due to a rapid or excessive transfusion of blood or blood products. This can lead to fluid overload in the lungs, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and pulmonary edema. It is important to monitor patients during transfusions and adjust the rate and volume of transfusion to prevent this complication.

Submit
6. The secretor gene is 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Se" because the secretor gene, also known as the FUT2 gene, is responsible for the production of enzymes that determine the presence of certain antigens in bodily fluids, including the ABO blood group antigens. The Se allele of the FUT2 gene produces the secretor phenotype, which means that individuals with this allele are able to secrete ABO antigens in their bodily fluids, such as saliva and tears. This is in contrast to individuals with the non-secretor phenotype, who do not have the ability to secrete these antigens. The Bombay phenotype, on the other hand, is a rare blood type that is characterized by the absence of ABO antigens and is caused by a different gene mutation.

Submit
7. For those who are platelet donors, they must.. 

Explanation

Platelet donors must avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation with HCT levels of 36%. This is because aspirin can affect platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding during the donation process. HCT levels below 36% may indicate anemia or low red blood cell count, which can also increase the risk of complications during donation. Therefore, it is important for platelet donors to abstain from taking aspirin and maintain HCT levels above 36% to ensure a safe and successful donation.

Submit
8. The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B is what?

Explanation

Hepadnaviridae is the correct answer for the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B. Hepadnaviridae is a family of viruses that includes the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). HBV is a DNA virus that primarily infects the liver and causes hepatitis. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids. Understanding the etiologic agent of a disease is crucial for the development of effective diagnostic tests, treatments, and prevention strategies.

Submit
9. CD4 count _____/ul patient has clinical AIDS

Explanation

A CD4 count of 200/ul indicates that the patient has clinical AIDS. CD4 count is a measure of the number of CD4 T-cells in the blood, which are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. A CD4 count below 200/ul is considered a threshold for the diagnosis of AIDS, as it indicates severe immune suppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Therefore, a CD4 count of 200/ul suggests that the patient's immune system is significantly compromised, leading to the diagnosis of clinical AIDS.

Submit
10. Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it: 

Explanation

Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devices. This means that by calibrating our measuring devices, we can ensure that they are providing accurate and reliable measurements. This is crucial in industries such as pharmaceuticals, where precise measurements are necessary for quality control and compliance with regulatory standards. Calibration helps us identify any discrepancies or errors in our measuring devices, allowing us to make the necessary adjustments or repairs to maintain accuracy in our measurements.

Submit
11. Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgbAnamnestic response - previously sensitized Extravascular No complement activation DAT positiveOccurs 3 - 7 days after transfusion

Explanation

The given symptoms of mild jaundice, fever, and decrease in hct/hgb indicate a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when the recipient has been previously sensitized to the donor's antigens and the immune system reacts to these antigens, leading to the destruction of the transfused red blood cells. The positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) further supports this diagnosis. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions typically occur 3-7 days after the transfusion.

Submit
12. The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white cells Complement is activatedSymptoms: chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distressX-ray would show pulmonary edemaGive leuko reduced 

Explanation

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is the correct answer because the symptoms described, such as chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress, and pulmonary edema on X-ray, are consistent with TRALI. TRALI occurs when antibodies present in the donor's blood react with the recipient's white blood cells, leading to an inflammatory response in the lungs. This can result in fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing symptoms of respiratory distress and pulmonary edema. Leuko reduction, or the removal of white blood cells from the transfusion product, can help prevent TRALI.

Submit
13. Bombay phenotypes..

Explanation

The Bombay phenotype lacks the H antigen, which is necessary for the expression of ABO antigens. As a result, individuals with the Bombay phenotype do not have ABO antigens on their red blood cells. This means that their blood type cannot be determined using the usual ABO blood typing system. However, since they lack ABO antigens, their blood can be transfused to individuals with any other blood type without any adverse reactions.

Submit
14. Testing for HDV not required for blood donations.

Explanation

Blood donations do not require testing for HDV (Hepatitis D Virus). HDV is a virus that can cause severe liver disease and can only infect individuals who are already infected with Hepatitis B. However, HDV is rare and not commonly found in blood donors. Therefore, testing for HDV is not necessary for blood donations, making the statement true.

Submit
15. When does GVHD occur?

Explanation

GVHD (Graft-versus-host disease) occurs when the donor's immune cells, present in the transplanted tissue or organ, recognize the recipient's body as foreign and attack it. This immune response is triggered when the donor is homozygous for one of the recipient's HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) haplotypes. HLA molecules play a crucial role in the immune system by distinguishing between self and non-self cells. When the donor's immune cells recognize the recipient's cells as foreign due to a matching HLA haplotype, they initiate an immune response that leads to GVHD.

Submit
16. The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is that 

Explanation

The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is based on the fact that fetal hemoglobin (hgb) resists acid elution. Acid elution is a technique used to identify and quantify fetal red cells in maternal blood. When a small amount of maternal blood is mixed with acid, adult red cells lose their hemoglobin and become colorless, while fetal red cells remain intact and retain their hemoglobin. By staining the cells and counting the fetal red cells, the test can determine the extent of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Therefore, the correct answer is that fetal hgb resists acid elution.

Submit
17. When whole blood is collected using CPDA-1, what is the expiration 

Explanation

Whole blood collected using CPDA-1 has an expiration of 35 days. CPDA-1 is an anticoagulant solution that is commonly used for the preservation of whole blood. It contains citrate, phosphate, dextrose, and adenine which help to prevent clotting and maintain the viability of red blood cells. The expiration period of 35 days indicates the maximum amount of time that the blood can be stored while still maintaining its quality and usefulness for transfusion purposes. After this period, the blood may start to deteriorate and lose its effectiveness, hence the need for proper storage and timely use.

Submit
18. Adsol would give RBCs a ___ expiration

Explanation

The correct answer is 42 days. This means that Adsol would give red blood cells (RBCs) an expiration period of 42 days. This suggests that Adsol is a solution or additive used to extend the shelf life of RBCs, allowing them to be stored and used for a longer period of time before they expire.

Submit
19. Leukocyte Reduction/filtration is done to 

Explanation

Leukocyte reduction/filtration is a process that removes white blood cells from blood products. This procedure is done to prevent CMV (Cytomegalovirus) infection and HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) alloimmunization. CMV is a common virus that can cause serious complications in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as transplant recipients or premature infants. By removing white blood cells, which can carry the virus, the risk of CMV infection is reduced. HLA alloimmunization refers to the development of antibodies against HLA antigens, which can occur during blood transfusions or organ transplants. Leukocyte reduction helps prevent this immune response, reducing the risk of complications.

Submit
20. Most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis

Explanation

Hepatitis C is the most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis. This is because the hepatitis C virus (HCV) is known to persist in the body for a long time, often leading to a chronic infection. Unlike hepatitis A and E, which are usually acute and self-limiting, hepatitis C can progress to chronic liver disease, cirrhosis, and even hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatitis B and D can also cause chronic hepatitis, but hepatitis C is more common globally. Hepatitis G is a less common virus and is not typically associated with chronic hepatitis.

Submit
21. Hepatitis G: Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction diagnoses _________ infection; anti-E2 and negative PCR indicates _____ infection.

Explanation

The given answer suggests that reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) can diagnose current Hepatitis G infection. If the RT-PCR test is positive for anti-E2, it indicates a current infection. However, if the RT-PCR test is negative for anti-E2, it suggests a past infection. Therefore, the correct answer is "current, past."

Submit
22. Prewarm testing is done to...

Explanation

Prewarm testing is done to determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody. This testing is important because it helps identify the presence of antibodies that can cause a reaction at body temperature. By prewarming the serum, any warm reacting antibodies present will bind to the red blood cells, indicating their presence. This information is crucial in determining compatibility for blood transfusions or identifying the cause of certain autoimmune diseases.

Submit
23. Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be characterized with NO FEVER & abdominal cramps. Symptoms also includes coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, chest pain.  

Explanation

Anaphylactic reactions occur when a person has a severe allergic response to a substance, in this case, donor IgA. Symptoms of anaphylaxis can include coughing, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), nausea, flushing, and chest pain. However, fever and abdominal cramps are not typically associated with anaphylactic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is anaphylactic.

Submit
24. Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is 

Explanation

When platelets are pooled without a sterile connecting device, there is an increased risk of contamination. Contamination can lead to bacterial growth, which can reduce the effectiveness and safety of the platelets. Therefore, the expiration time is reduced to 4 hours to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure the platelets are still viable and safe for use.

Submit
25. What blood group antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

Explanation

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is a condition characterized by the destruction of red blood cells in response to cold temperatures. The correct answer, Anti-P, refers to the antibody that is associated with this condition. This antibody targets the P antigen on red blood cells, leading to their destruction when exposed to cold temperatures. The presence of Anti-P in the blood is a diagnostic marker for paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.

Submit
26. RBCs that have been frozen are stored at which minimum temperature and maximum storage of time?

Explanation

RBCs that have been frozen are stored at a minimum temperature of -65°C and can be stored for a maximum of 10 years. This freezing temperature helps to preserve the RBCs and extend their shelf life. Freezing the RBCs at this temperature slows down their metabolic activity and prevents degradation, allowing them to be stored for a longer period of time.

Submit
27. Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for 

Explanation

Hydatid cyst fluid contains P1 antigen, which is a neutralizing substance for P1 antibodies. This means that if a person with P1 antibodies is exposed to hydatid cyst fluid, the P1 antibodies will be neutralized by the P1 antigen present in the fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is P1.

Submit
28. Which type of hemolysis is destroyed in the bloodstream releasing hemoglobin into plasma?_____

Explanation

Intravascular hemolysis refers to the destruction of red blood cells within the bloodstream, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. This can occur due to various factors such as infections, autoimmune disorders, or certain medications. In intravascular hemolysis, the red blood cells are directly destroyed within the blood vessels, causing the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. This can lead to various complications such as anemia and jaundice.

Submit
29. FFP is prepared within how many hours of collection?

Explanation

FFP, which stands for Fresh Frozen Plasma, is prepared within 8 hours of collection. This means that after the plasma is collected, it is processed and frozen within a time frame of 8 hours. This ensures that the plasma retains its freshness and is suitable for transfusion purposes. If the plasma is not processed and frozen within this time frame, it may not be considered fresh and may not be used for transfusion.

Submit
30. In U.S. only _____  is found the other is found in West Africa.

Explanation

HIV-1 is found in the U.S. and HIV-2 is found in West Africa. This suggests that HIV-1 is the only type of HIV found in the U.S., while HIV-2 is exclusive to West Africa.

Submit
31. After the "best" solution has been implemented in a Process Improvement undertaking, you should:

Explanation

After implementing the "best" solution in a Process Improvement undertaking, it is important to collect data to assess the impact. This is necessary to evaluate whether the solution has been effective in improving the process and achieving the desired outcomes. Collecting data allows for objective measurement and analysis of the impact, helping to identify any areas that may still need improvement or any unintended consequences that may have arisen. It also provides valuable information for future decision-making and continuous improvement efforts.

Submit
32. —64 yr old M admitted for GI bleed. Hx of intestinal cancer. Samples sent for T/S and 2 RBCs STAT.What is the discrepancy? 
Anti AAnti BA1 cellsB cells 
4+1+ 04+

Explanation

The correct answer is B acquired phenotype. This term refers to a situation where an individual's red blood cells (RBCs) acquire a different antigenic phenotype due to factors such as transfusion or bone marrow transplantation. In this case, the discrepancy may be that the patient's RBCs are showing a different antigenic phenotype than what is expected based on their blood type. This could be due to a recent transfusion or other medical intervention that has caused the patient's RBCs to acquire a different phenotype.

Submit
33. Reactivity up to 32 CIdiopathicSpontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C3 only Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased 

Explanation

The given answer "Pathologic" is correct because it refers to a condition or process that is abnormal or indicative of a disease. This is supported by the information provided in the question, such as "Reactivity up to 32 C," "Spontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C," and "Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased." These characteristics suggest that there is an abnormal or pathological response occurring in certain conditions, specifically related to heart surgery and temperature changes.

Submit
34. Which cells have the least amount of H antigens?

Explanation

A1B blood type has the least amount of H antigens. In the ABO blood group system, A1B is a subtype of the A blood type where both A and B antigens are present on the red blood cells. The presence of both A and B antigens means that there are fewer H antigens compared to other blood types. A2B, A2, and O blood types have more H antigens than A1B.

Submit
35. In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is 

Explanation

The correct order of centrifugation in preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood is to first perform a light spin, followed by a hard spin. This order allows for the separation of different components based on their density. During the light spin, the blood components with higher density, such as red blood cells, will settle at the bottom of the tube. The supernatant, which contains platelets and plasma, is then transferred to a new tube. The hard spin is then performed to further separate the platelets from the plasma. This order ensures a higher yield of platelets while minimizing contamination with other blood components.

Submit
36. A good Document Control Plan:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use." This is because a good Document Control Plan should focus on maintaining the accuracy and currency of documents. By ensuring that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use, it helps to prevent any potential errors or confusion that may arise from using outdated or incorrect documents. This practice promotes efficiency, accuracy, and compliance within the organization.

Submit
37. Shortens the life span of RBCs to 28 days 

Explanation

Irradiating red cells is a process that involves exposing the blood cells to radiation. This is done to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD), a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusions. Irradiation damages the DNA of the cells, preventing them from dividing and proliferating in the recipient's body. By shortening the life span of the red blood cells to 28 days, the risk of TA-GVHD is significantly reduced.

Submit
38. The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G is what?

Explanation

Gb virus C (GBV-C) is the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G. This virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family.

Submit
39. Hepatitis B: HBV DNA detected by PCR before or after HBsAg reaches detectable levels?

Explanation

HBV DNA can be detected by PCR before HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) reaches detectable levels. This is because HBV DNA is the genetic material of the virus, while HBsAg is a protein on the surface of the virus. During the early stages of infection, the virus replicates and HBV DNA can be detected in the blood before enough HBsAg is produced to be detected by standard tests. Therefore, PCR can be used to detect the presence of HBV DNA before HBsAg becomes detectable.

Submit
40. A single vial of RhIG can suppress how mL of fetal hemorrhage?

Explanation

A single vial of RhIG can suppress 30 mL of fetal hemorrhage.

Submit
41. Causes a positive DAT 3 - 6 months after tx Red cells are coated with IgGDAT diminishes after therapy is discontinued but can take 1 month to 2 years to clearimmune hemolysis antibodies are formed that reacts with intrinsic red cells antigens

Explanation

The correct answer is "Induction of autoimmunity". This is because the statement mentions that the drug causes a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) 3-6 months after treatment, indicating the presence of antibodies that react with intrinsic red cell antigens. This suggests that the drug is inducing an autoimmune response, where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own red blood cells.

Submit
42. An often fatal condition characterized by general edema that results from anemia is 

Explanation

Hydrops fetalis is an often fatal condition characterized by general edema that results from anemia. This condition occurs when there is severe fetal anemia, leading to an excessive accumulation of fluid in the fetus's body. The anemia can be caused by various factors, such as Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus, blood group incompatibility, or genetic disorders affecting red blood cell production. The excessive fluid accumulation can lead to complications and can be life-threatening for the fetus.

Submit
43. How does the indicator cells work in Fetal screens?

Explanation

Indicator cells in fetal screens are positive D cells that bind to the antibodies (abs) that are already coating the positive fetal cells. This binding helps in detecting the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that may cause complications during pregnancy, such as hemolytic disease of the newborn. By identifying these antibodies, appropriate medical interventions can be taken to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus.

Submit
44. The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-D is what?

Explanation

The correct answer is "defective, single-stranded RNA virus". This is because Hepatitis-D is caused by the Hepatitis-D virus (HDV), which is a defective, single-stranded RNA virus. HDV cannot replicate on its own and requires the presence of the Hepatitis-B virus (HBV) to complete its life cycle. Therefore, it is considered a "defective" virus.

Submit
45. Rouleaux can.. 

Explanation

Rouleaux refers to the stacking of red blood cells in a column-like formation, resembling stacked coins under microscopic examination. This phenomenon can be related to an increase in serum protein levels, as proteins in the blood can cause the red blood cells to stick together. To resolve rouleaux formation, a saline replacement can be used, which involves replacing the patient's plasma with a saline solution to disperse the red blood cells and break up the stacking.

Submit
46. Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with IgG

Explanation

The correct answer is "Extravascular." This means that intact red cells, which are coated with IgG, are removed from circulation by the reticuloendothelial (RE) system outside of the blood vessels. This process occurs outside of the bloodstream, suggesting that the removal of these red cells happens in tissues or organs outside of the blood vessels.

Submit
47. PCH reacts at less than _____ C

Explanation

The given statement suggests that PCH reacts at a temperature lower than 20 degrees Celsius.

Submit
48. After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a _____  % increase in hematocrit or _____  g increase in hemoglobin

Explanation

After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB, there should be a 3% increase in hematocrit or 1g increase in hemoglobin. This indicates that the transfusion has successfully increased the concentration of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the recipient's blood. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in the blood, while hemoglobin is the protein responsible for carrying oxygen. A 3% increase in hematocrit or 1g increase in hemoglobin is considered a standard response to a blood transfusion.

Submit
49. Storage lesion leads to _____ in pH_____ in lactic acid_____ of glucose concentration _____ in hemoglobin oxygen affinity _____ of ATP levels_____ of 2,3 DPG levels 

Explanation

Storage lesion refers to the changes that occur in blood products during storage, leading to a decrease in their quality and effectiveness. These changes include a decrease in pH, an increase in lactic acid levels, a decrease in glucose concentration, an increase in hemoglobin oxygen affinity, a decrease in ATP levels, and a decrease in 2,3 DPG levels. These alterations can affect the functionality and viability of the stored blood products, making them less suitable for transfusion.

Submit
50. FFP can be stored and kept for how long at its maximum?

Explanation

FFP, or Fresh Frozen Plasma, can be stored and kept at a temperature of -65°C for a maximum of 7 years. This means that the plasma can be preserved for a relatively long period of time while maintaining its quality and efficacy. The freezing temperature of -65°C helps to prevent the degradation of the plasma components and ensures its suitability for transfusion purposes for up to 7 years.

Submit
51. What is the normal range of Hgb levels for newborns?

Explanation

The normal range of Hgb (hemoglobin) levels for newborns is 14 - 20 g/dl. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Newborns typically have higher levels of hemoglobin compared to adults, as they require more oxygen for their rapid growth and development. Hemoglobin levels outside of this range may indicate anemia or other health conditions in newborns.

Submit
52. The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-E is what?

Explanation

The correct answer is Calcviridae. Calcviridae is a family of viruses that includes the etiologic agent of Hepatitis-E.

Submit
53. Caused by antibodies in the host to the donors WCsGive leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells Can be pretreated with anti-pyreticsIncrease in 1C without any causes

Explanation

Febrile reactions are characterized by an increase in body temperature (1C) without any apparent cause. They are caused by antibodies in the host reacting to leukocytes in the donated blood. To prevent febrile reactions, leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells can be used, and pretreatment with anti-pyretics can be done. Therefore, the correct answer is Febrile.

Submit
54. When are crossmatches done on neonates?

Explanation

Crossmatches are done on neonates when the mother has a known antibody. This is because the mother's antibodies can potentially cross the placenta and cause harm to the baby's red blood cells. By performing a crossmatch, healthcare professionals can determine if there is a compatibility issue between the mother's antibodies and the baby's blood. If a mismatch is found, appropriate interventions can be taken to prevent or manage any potential complications.

Submit
55. Match the immunodominant sugars to their allele
Submit
56. Deacetylating enzyme alters N-acetylgalactosamine(A-antigen) by removing the acetyl group, N-galactosamine resembles D-galactose (B-antigen) and cross reacts with B reagents

Explanation

The given explanation suggests that the correct answer is "Group A with acquired B Ag" because the deacetylating enzyme alters the N-acetylgalactosamine (A-antigen) by removing the acetyl group, causing it to resemble D-galactose (B-antigen). This alteration allows the N-galactosamine to cross-react with B reagents, leading to the presence of B antigen in Group A individuals.

Submit
57. Coinfection: _____ severe  acute disease; _____ risk of chronic infection.

Explanation

Coinfection refers to the simultaneous infection of an individual with two or more different pathogens. The given statement suggests that coinfection leads to a more severe acute disease, meaning that when two or more pathogens infect a person at the same time, the symptoms and severity of the disease are likely to be worse compared to a single infection. However, the statement also states that coinfection is associated with a lower risk of chronic infection. This means that despite the increased severity of the acute disease, the likelihood of the infection becoming a long-term or chronic condition is reduced when multiple pathogens are involved.

Submit
58. Complications that can occur with transfusing sickle cell patients include 

Explanation

Transfusing sickle cell patients can lead to complications such as iron overload. This occurs because each unit of blood transfused contains a significant amount of iron, which can accumulate in the body over time. Iron overload can cause damage to various organs, including the liver, heart, and endocrine system. Therefore, it is important to carefully monitor iron levels in sickle cell patients who require frequent transfusions. Sensitization of RBCs and rejection of RBCs are not mentioned as potential complications in the given options.

Submit
59. A fetal screen is done on 

Explanation

A fetal screen is done on every Rh negative woman who delivers a Rh positive baby or a baby of an unknown Rh. This is because Rh incompatibility can occur when a Rh negative mother carries a Rh positive baby, leading to potential complications such as hemolytic disease of the newborn. Therefore, it is important to screen Rh negative women in order to identify any potential risks and provide appropriate medical interventions if necessary.

Submit
60. The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-C is what?

Explanation

The correct answer is Flaviridae. Flaviridae is the family of viruses that includes the hepatitis C virus (HCV). HCV is a single-stranded RNA virus that causes hepatitis C. It is not classified under Picornaviridae, Hepadnaviridae, Calcviridae, or GB virus C (GBV-C).

Submit
61. What's the hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors?

Explanation

The hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors is 36%/12.5 g. This means that the hematocrit (hct) level should be 36% and the hemoglobin (hgb) level should be 12.5 g. This ratio is used as a measure of the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity, and donors must meet this requirement in order to be eligible for donation.

Submit
62. All of these components are stored at 20 - 24 C! Match them to their expirations
Submit
63. Transmission is fecal oral route

Explanation

Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E are both transmitted through the fecal-oral route. This means that the viruses causing these types of hepatitis are found in the feces of an infected individual and can be transmitted to another person through ingestion of contaminated food or water. This mode of transmission is common in areas with poor sanitation and hygiene practices. Hepatitis B, C, D, and G, on the other hand, are primarily transmitted through blood and other body fluids, such as semen and vaginal fluids.

Submit
64. _____ requres HBsAG in order to synthesize an evelope protein; ____ and HBV are contracted concurrently.

Explanation

Hepatitis D requires HBsAG in order to synthesize an envelope protein. This means that the virus needs the surface antigen of the hepatitis B virus (HBV) to be present in order to replicate. Therefore, if someone contracts hepatitis D, it means they are also concurrently infected with hepatitis B.

Submit
65. A patient is found to have anti-Kell. Four units of RBC's are requested for surgery tomorrow. How many units should you screen in order to fill this order?

Explanation

To fill the order of four units of RBC's, it is necessary to screen at least five units. This is because the patient has anti-Kell antibodies, which means they have developed an immune response against the Kell antigen. Screening involves testing the donor blood for compatibility with the patient's antibodies. Since each unit of RBC's may not be compatible due to the presence of Kell antigen, it is important to screen an additional unit to ensure that at least four units are suitable for transfusion. Therefore, screening five units will provide enough compatible units to fulfill the order.

Submit
66. Estimate 170 million chronic carriers worldwide

Explanation

Hepatitis C is the correct answer because it is estimated that there are 170 million chronic carriers of the virus worldwide. This suggests that Hepatitis C has a significant global prevalence and is a major public health concern.

Submit
67. Rz

Explanation

The answer "CDE" is the correct answer because it is the only option that includes all three letters "C", "D", and "E" in the correct order. The other options either miss one or more of these letters or have them in the incorrect order. Therefore, "CDE" is the only option that matches the given sequence.

Submit
68. Screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negativeHigh titer IgG - anti penicillin antibody is always present in the serumDAT is strong due to IgG coating

Explanation

The correct answer is drug adsorption. This is because the presence of high titer IgG antibodies against penicillin in the serum indicates that the antibodies are binding to the drug, leading to its adsorption. This can occur when the drug binds to proteins in the body, causing an immune response and the production of specific antibodies. The negative screening tests for unexpected antibodies suggest that there are no other antibodies present that could be causing the strong direct antiglobulin test (DAT) result. Therefore, the most likely explanation is that the antibodies are specifically binding to the drug, resulting in drug adsorption.

Submit
69. Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is acceptable for which of the following components?

Explanation

ABO compatibility refers to matching the blood types of the donor and recipient to minimize the risk of adverse reactions. However, in the case of cryoprecipitated AHF (Antihemophilic Factor), ABO incompatibility is acceptable. Cryoprecipitated AHF is a blood component used to treat patients with certain bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia A. It is derived from pooled plasma and contains high levels of clotting factors. Unlike other components, such as Apheresis PLTS (Platelets) or Apheresis Granulocytes, ABO compatibility is not crucial for cryoprecipitated AHF because it is primarily used for its clotting factor content rather than for its red blood cell component. PF24, on the other hand, is not a recognized blood component, so it is not relevant to this question.

Submit
70. RhIG should be administered within how many hours of delivery?

Explanation

RhIG should be administered within 72 hours of delivery because it is used to prevent the development of Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers who have given birth to Rh-positive infants. Rh sensitization can occur when the mother's immune system produces antibodies against the Rh factor in the baby's blood. Administering RhIG within 72 hours of delivery helps to prevent the mother's immune system from producing these antibodies, reducing the risk of complications in future pregnancies.

Submit
71. Symptoms: dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, restlessnessSystolic hypertension (>50)

Explanation

The given symptoms of dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, and restlessness are indicative of fluid overload in the lungs, which is a characteristic of Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO). TACO occurs when there is an excessive volume of blood or blood products transfused, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and causing symptoms such as shortness of breath and coughing. The mention of systolic hypertension (>50) further supports the diagnosis of TACO, as increased blood pressure is often observed in this condition.

Submit
72. Cryo contains

Explanation

Cryo contains Factor VIII (FVIII), von Willebrand factor (VWF), Factor XIII (FXIII), and fibrinogen. These components are important for blood clotting and are often used in the treatment of bleeding disorders or during surgical procedures to control bleeding. FVIII helps in the formation of blood clots, VWF helps in platelet adhesion, FXIII stabilizes the clot, and fibrinogen is converted into fibrin to form the clot. Therefore, Cryo is a valuable source of these clotting factors and proteins.

Submit
73. Which major types of AIHA has a non reactive eluate?

Explanation

The major types of AIHA that have a non-reactive eluate are COLD and PCH. COLD stands for Cold Agglutinin Disease, which is characterized by the presence of cold-reactive antibodies that cause red blood cell agglutination and hemolysis at low temperatures. PCH stands for Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria, which is a rare form of AIHA caused by the presence of a specific antibody that binds to red blood cells in cold temperatures and activates complement, leading to hemolysis. In both of these types, the eluate, which is the fluid obtained from washed red blood cells, does not show reactivity when tested with additional red blood cells.

Submit
74. Most common @ 4CLow titer @ 4C<64 Negative DAT Can interfere with ABO typing, Rh and DAT

Explanation

The given information suggests that the patient has a benign cold autoantibody. This type of antibody is commonly found at low titers and does not cause any significant harm or symptoms to the patient. It can interfere with ABO typing, Rh testing, and Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT). This interference can lead to incorrect results in these tests. Therefore, the correct answer is "Benign Cold Auto."

Submit
75. —57 yr old F was admitted for transfusion of 2 units to treat chronic anemia. Pt is multiply transfused (another facility). Samples were drawn and sent for T/S, 2 units of RBCs to be transfused tomorrow.What is most likely the cause of this discrepancy if the auto control is also positive?
Anti AAnti BA1 CellB cells
4+4+1+1+ 

Explanation

The most likely cause of the discrepancy, given that the auto control is also positive, is Cold auto antibodies. Cold auto antibodies are antibodies that react at temperatures below normal body temperature and can cause agglutination of red blood cells. This can lead to a positive auto control and interfere with the interpretation of the patient's blood type.

Submit
76. Select those that are associated with GVHD

Explanation

The correct answer options, bone marrow failure - asplasia, increased bilirubin & liver enzymes, skin rash, high fever, and gastrointestinal disturbances, are all associated with graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD is a complication that can occur after a stem cell or bone marrow transplant, where the donor's immune cells attack the recipient's tissues. Bone marrow failure - asplasia refers to the inability of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells. Increased bilirubin and liver enzymes indicate liver damage, which can occur in GVHD. Skin rash, high fever, and gastrointestinal disturbances are common symptoms of GVHD.

Submit
77. Objectives for performing an exchange transfusion include all of the following except to: 

Explanation

Exchange transfusion is a procedure used to remove and replace a patient's blood with donor blood. The objectives of performing an exchange transfusion include decreasing the level of maternal antibody, reducing the level of indirect bilirubin, and providing compatible RBCs to correct anemia. However, providing platelets to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation is not an objective of performing an exchange transfusion.

Submit
78. The greatest danger to the fetus (before delivery) affected by HDFN is 

Explanation

The greatest danger to the fetus affected by HDFN (Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn) before delivery is anemia. HDFN occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to their destruction and subsequent anemia. Anemia can cause a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, potentially leading to developmental issues, organ damage, and even fetal death. Therefore, anemia is the most significant danger to the fetus in this condition.

Submit
79. Which types of AIHA's show AHG reactivity

Explanation

Warm and mixed types of AIHA (Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia) show AHG (Anti-Human Globulin) reactivity. AHG reactivity refers to the ability of antibodies to bind to red blood cells and cause their destruction. In warm AIHA, the antibodies are typically IgG and can bind to red blood cells at body temperature. In mixed AIHA, both IgG and complement proteins can bind to red blood cells, leading to their destruction. Cold AIHA, represented by the term "COLD" in the options, is associated with IgM antibodies that agglutinate red blood cells at lower temperatures. PCH (Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria) is a rare type of AIHA caused by the Donath-Landsteiner antibody, which shows biphasic reactivity.

Submit
80. Platelet transfusions are indicated for 

Explanation

Platelet transfusions are indicated when platelet counts are below 20,000 and when there is bleeding due to thrombocytopenia. Platelet transfusions help to increase the number of platelets in the blood, which are responsible for blood clotting. When platelet counts are very low, there is an increased risk of bleeding and the body may not be able to effectively clot blood. Therefore, platelet transfusions are necessary in these situations to prevent excessive bleeding and promote proper clotting.

Submit
81. Match the antibody specificities to the type of AIHA
Submit
82. When the B gene transfers trace amounts of N-acetylgalactosamine and D-galactose to the H-Ag acceptor molecules The trace amounts react with Anti-A

Explanation

When the B gene transfers trace amounts of N-acetylgalactosamine and D-galactose to the H-Ag acceptor molecules, it results in the B(A) phenotype. This means that individuals with blood group A have acquired the B antigen on their red blood cells. This can happen when individuals with blood group A receive a blood transfusion from someone with blood group B or AB, as the B gene transfers small amounts of the B antigen to the H-Ag acceptor molecules on the recipient's red blood cells. This leads to the B(A) phenotype in individuals with blood group A.

Submit
83. Which antibodies are not a risk of HDFN

Explanation

Anti-Lea antibodies are not a risk of Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN) because the Lea antigen is not present on red blood cells. HDFN occurs when maternal antibodies recognize and attack antigens on fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. However, the Lea antigen is found on other cells and tissues in the body, but not on red blood cells. Therefore, the presence of anti-Lea antibodies in the maternal blood does not pose a risk of HDFN.

Submit
84. What are common to cause bacterial contamination in TRs?

Explanation

The common causes of bacterial contamination in TRs are Serratia species, Campylobacterm pseudomona, and Yersinia enterocolitica. These bacteria can contaminate TRs and lead to infections and illnesses if proper hygiene and sanitation practices are not followed. It is important to ensure that TRs are regularly cleaned and disinfected to prevent the growth and spread of these bacteria.

Submit
85. Washed red cells would most likely be given to patients who 

Explanation

Washed red cells would most likely be given to patients who are IgA deficient and have made anti-IgA. This is because washing the red cells helps remove any remaining plasma and IgA antibodies that could potentially cause an allergic reaction in patients who are IgA deficient and have developed antibodies against IgA. By providing washed red cells, the risk of an adverse reaction is minimized, making it a suitable option for these specific patients.

Submit
86. PCH can be associated with...

Explanation

PCH, or paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, is a rare autoimmune disorder that primarily affects children. It is often triggered by viral infections, leading to the destruction of red blood cells and hemolysis. Rapid intravascular hemolysis, which refers to the breakdown of red blood cells within blood vessels, is also associated with PCH. Therefore, PCH can be associated with children, viral infections, and rapid intravascular hemolysis.

Submit
87. HDFN occurs when

Explanation

HDFN, or Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn, occurs when maternal antibodies react with fetal antigens. This happens when the mother's immune system recognizes the fetal antigens as foreign and produces antibodies to attack them. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to hemolysis and potentially causing severe complications or even death for the newborn.

Submit
88. What is associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Explanation

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is associated with Pathologic cold auto. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that can cause respiratory infections, including pneumonia. Pathologic cold auto refers to the presence of cold agglutinins in the blood, which are antibodies that can cause red blood cells to clump together at low temperatures. Infections with Mycoplasma pneumoniae can sometimes lead to the production of these cold agglutinins, resulting in a condition known as pathologic cold auto.

Submit
89. Which antibodies are not effected by proteolytic enzymes?

Explanation

Kell antibodies are not affected by proteolytic enzymes. Proteolytic enzymes are enzymes that break down proteins, including antibodies. However, Kell antibodies have a unique structure that makes them resistant to proteolytic enzymes. Therefore, they remain unaffected even in the presence of these enzymes.

Submit
90. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ABO HDFN

Explanation

ABO Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDFN) is caused by incompatibility between the ABO blood types of the mother and fetus. It occurs when maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells. One characteristic of ABO HDFN is a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT), which detects the presence of antibodies on the surface of red blood cells. However, a strongly positive DAT is not typically associated with ABO HDFN. Instead, it is commonly seen in Rh HDFN, where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Therefore, a strongly positive DAT is not a characteristic of ABO HDFN.

Submit
91. Which one of these are naturally occuring Abs?

Explanation

Anti-M is a naturally occurring antibody. The presence of Anti-M in an individual's blood is a normal immune response to the presence of M antigen on red blood cells. This antibody is commonly found in the general population, with approximately 70-80% of individuals having Anti-M in their blood. It is important to note that Anti-M is considered a benign antibody and does not typically cause any clinical issues or complications.

Submit
92. Match the following
Submit
93. Match the following
Submit
94. R1

Explanation

The correct answer is "CDe" because it is the only option that appears in the given sequence. The pattern in the sequence is that the first letter is capitalized, the second letter is lowercase, and the third letter is uppercase. Therefore, "CDe" is the correct option that follows the pattern.

Submit
95. A cord blood workup consists of 

Explanation

A cord blood workup typically includes testing for Weak D, ABO/Rh - Forward, and DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test). Weak D testing is done to determine the presence of weak D antigen in the blood, which is important for blood compatibility and transfusions. ABO/Rh - Forward testing helps determine the blood type and Rh factor of the cord blood. The DAT is performed to detect the presence of antibodies attached to red blood cells, which can indicate a potential immune reaction or hemolytic disease.

Submit
96. When the drug alters the red cell membrane cause the membrane to absorb proteins including IgG and complement components. Causes a + DAT

Explanation

The correct answer is "Nonimmune adsorption of proteins." This means that the drug alters the red cell membrane, causing it to absorb proteins, including IgG and complement components. This process leads to a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT), indicating the presence of nonimmune adsorption of proteins on the red cell membrane.

Submit
97. Select the antibodies that are enhanced by proteolytic enzymes

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
98. Match the following
Submit
99. Match the following
Submit
100. What can aid in the detection of warm autoantibodies

Explanation

The detection of warm autoantibodies can be aided by several methods including DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test), panels, eluates, and adsorptions. The DAT is a test used to detect antibodies or complement proteins attached to red blood cells. Panels refer to a collection of different red blood cell samples that can be used for testing and identifying specific antibodies. Eluates are obtained by washing red blood cells to remove antibodies attached to them, which can then be tested separately. Adsorptions involve removing unwanted antibodies from a patient's serum by mixing it with appropriate red blood cells. These methods collectively help in detecting warm autoantibodies.

Submit
101. DAT positive + Eluate negative can be due to 

Explanation

DAT positive refers to a positive result in the Direct Antiglobulin Test, which detects antibodies or complement proteins bound to red blood cells. Eluate negative means that no antibodies were detected in the eluate, the liquid obtained after washing the red blood cells. The given answer suggests that the positive result in the DAT could be due to complement coating cells, nonspecific binding of proteins, cold antibodies, and antibodies to drugs. This means that the red blood cells could be coated with complement proteins, proteins could be binding nonspecifically to the cells, cold antibodies could be present, or antibodies specific to certain drugs could be causing the positive result.

Submit
102. Select the benefits of an exchange transfusion

Explanation

An exchange transfusion is a procedure in which blood is removed from the patient and replaced with donor blood. It is commonly used to treat conditions such as severe jaundice in newborns or hemolytic disease of the newborn. The benefits of an exchange transfusion include the removal of elevated bilirubin, which helps to reduce the risk of brain damage in newborns. It also removes maternal circulating antibodies and sensitized antibodies, which can cause harm to the baby's red blood cells. Additionally, the procedure allows for the replacement of incompatible red blood cells with compatible ones, which helps to improve the patient's overall blood compatibility and prevent further complications.

Submit
103. Match the following
Submit
104. List the three antigens that are not present on cord cells 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 05, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Lazada001
Cancel
  • All
    All (104)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity
For disease testing, "RPR" is for testing 
Is [your statement here] true or false?
Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and...
Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume...
The secretor gene is 
For those who are platelet donors, they must.. 
The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-B is what?
CD4 count _____/ul patient has clinical AIDS
Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it: 
Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgbAnamnestic response...
The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white...
Bombay phenotypes..
Testing for HDV not required for blood donations.
When does GVHD occur?
The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is that 
When whole blood is collected using CPDA-1, what is the...
Adsol would give RBCs a ___ expiration
Leukocyte Reduction/filtration is done to 
Most frequent cause of chronic hepatitis
Hepatitis G:...
Prewarm testing is done to...
Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be...
Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting...
What blood group antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold...
RBCs that have been frozen are stored at which minimum temperature and...
Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for 
Which type of hemolysis is destroyed in the bloodstream releasing...
FFP is prepared within how many hours of collection?
In U.S. only _____  is found the other is found in West Africa.
After the "best" solution has been implemented in a Process...
—64 yr old M admitted for GI bleed. Hx of intestinal cancer. Samples...
Reactivity up to 32 CIdiopathicSpontaneous agglutination that...
Which cells have the least amount of H antigens?
In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order...
A good Document Control Plan:
Shortens the life span of RBCs to 28 days 
The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-G is what?
Hepatitis B:...
A single vial of RhIG can suppress how mL of fetal hemorrhage?
Causes a positive DAT 3 - 6 months after tx Red cells are coated...
An often fatal condition characterized by general edema that results...
How does the indicator cells work in Fetal screens?
The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-D is what?
Rouleaux can.. 
Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with...
PCH reacts at less than _____ C
After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a...
Storage lesion leads to _____ in pH_____ in lactic acid_____ of...
FFP can be stored and kept for how long at its maximum?
What is the normal range of Hgb levels for newborns?
The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-E is what?
Caused by antibodies in the host to the donors WCsGive leuko reduced...
When are crossmatches done on neonates?
Match the immunodominant sugars to their allele
Deacetylating enzyme alters N-acetylgalactosamine(A-antigen) by...
Coinfection: _____ severe  acute disease; _____ risk of chronic...
Complications that can occur with transfusing sickle cell patients...
A fetal screen is done on 
The etiologic agent of Hepatitis-C is what?
What's the hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors?
All of these components are stored at 20 - 24 C! Match them to their...
Transmission is fecal oral route
_____ requres HBsAG in order to synthesize an evelope protein; ____...
A patient is found to have anti-Kell. Four units of RBC's are...
Estimate 170 million chronic carriers worldwide
Rz
Screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negativeHigh titer IgG -...
Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is...
RhIG should be administered within how many hours of delivery?
Symptoms: dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, restlessnessSystolic...
Cryo contains
Which major types of AIHA has a non reactive eluate?
Most common @ 4CLow titer @ 4C<64 Negative DAT Can...
—57 yr old F was admitted for transfusion of 2 units to treat chronic...
Select those that are associated with GVHD
Objectives for performing an exchange transfusion include all of the...
The greatest danger to the fetus (before delivery) affected by HDFN...
Which types of AIHA's show AHG reactivity
Platelet transfusions are indicated for 
Match the antibody specificities to the type of AIHA
When the B gene transfers trace amounts of N-acetylgalactosamine and...
Which antibodies are not a risk of HDFN
What are common to cause bacterial contamination in TRs?
Washed red cells would most likely be given to patients who 
PCH can be associated with...
HDFN occurs when
What is associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which antibodies are not effected by proteolytic enzymes?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ABO HDFN
Which one of these are naturally occuring Abs?
Match the following
Match the following
R1
A cord blood workup consists of 
When the drug alters the red cell membrane cause the membrane to...
Select the antibodies that are enhanced by proteolytic enzymes
Match the following
Match the following
What can aid in the detection of warm autoantibodies
DAT positive + Eluate negative can be due to 
Select the benefits of an exchange transfusion
Match the following
List the three antigens that are not present on cord cells 
Alert!

Advertisement