FMGE Mock Test Questions And Answers

Lipoprotein (a) is the best marker for stratification of cardiovascular disease risk because it is a type of lipoprotein that is similar to LDL cholesterol and has been found to be strongly associated with an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Elevated levels of lipoprotein (a) in the blood can lead to the formation of blood clots and the development of atherosclerosis, which are both major contributors to cardiovascular disease. Therefore, measuring lipoprotein (a) levels can provide valuable information about an individual's risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

The urogenital diaphragm is a muscular structure located in the pelvic floor. It plays a role in supporting the pelvic organs and maintaining continence. The sphincter urethra, perineal body, and perineal membrane are all components of the urogenital diaphragm. However, Colles' fascia is not a part of the urogenital diaphragm. Colles' fascia is a layer of connective tissue located in the perineum, but it is not directly involved in the formation of the urogenital diaphragm.

Mitochondria play a pivotal role in apoptosis because they are responsible for regulating cell death. During apoptosis, mitochondria release certain proteins that trigger a series of events leading to cell death. These proteins, such as cytochrome c, activate enzymes called caspases, which break down cellular components and ultimately lead to cell death. Therefore, the correct answer is mitochondria.

Infusion of insulin + glucose is the fastest way to reduce hyperkalemia in this case. Insulin helps to move potassium from the extracellular space into the cells, while glucose prevents hypoglycemia caused by insulin administration. This combination effectively lowers serum potassium levels. Kayexalate enema is used to treat chronic hyperkalemia, but it is not the fastest option. IV calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the myocardium in severe hyperkalemia but does not lower potassium levels. IV NaCHO3 is not a recommended treatment for hyperkalemia.

The correct answer is "Vascular invasion." This means that the main difference between follicular adenoma and carcinoma is the presence of vascular invasion. In follicular adenoma, there is no invasion of blood vessels by the abnormal cells, whereas in carcinoma, there is invasion of blood vessels by the cancerous cells. This distinction is important in determining the aggressiveness and potential for metastasis of the tumor.

Herpes Zoster is the correct answer because it is a viral infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It typically presents with painful skin lesions in a dermatomal distribution, which can occur in neonates. Hypoplastic limbs, however, are not commonly associated with Herpes Zoster.

The presence of MSU crystals in the synovial fluid of a young man with gout indicates a diagnosis of gout. Gout is a form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. These crystals can cause severe pain, inflammation, and swelling. Removing synovial fluid and identifying the presence of MSU crystals confirms the diagnosis of gout.

Angiotensin II is a hormone that is primarily known for its vasoconstrictive effects, meaning it causes blood vessels to narrow. This narrowing of blood vessels leads to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that angiotensin II would not cause vasodilation, as this would contradict its vasoconstrictive properties.

The oxygen demand of the heart increases proportionately with heart rate because as the heart beats faster, it needs to pump more blood to meet the body's demand for oxygen. This increased pumping requires more energy and therefore more oxygen.

After a pancreatic transplant, the patient may have a urinary drainage system in place. Monitoring urine amylase levels is important in this case because it can indicate any complications or rejection of the transplant. Elevated levels of urine amylase may suggest pancreatic injury or dysfunction. Blood amylase, serum glucose levels, and serum lipase levels may also be monitored, but urine amylase is specifically mentioned in the question as the correct answer for monitoring in a patient with pancreatic transplant and urinary drainage.

Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to fatty acids, ketone bodies, and cholesterol through various metabolic pathways. However, it cannot be directly converted to glucose. Glucose is primarily synthesized through a process called gluconeogenesis, which involves the conversion of non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids and lactate into glucose. Acetyl CoA is an important molecule in energy metabolism, but it cannot be converted back into glucose.

In surgical staging of ovarian cancer, various procedures are performed to determine the extent of the disease. These include peritoneal washing, omental biopsy, and palpation of organs. However, a liver biopsy is not typically part of the staging process for ovarian cancer. This is because the primary focus of staging is to assess the spread of the cancer within the pelvis and abdomen, and the liver is not a common site for ovarian cancer metastasis. Therefore, a liver biopsy is not necessary for surgical staging of ovarian cancer.

The characteristic of HbS that is not true is the increase in sticky patch due to substitution of a nonpolar residue by a polar residue. HbS is a variant of hemoglobin where there is a single base substitution, changing glutamine to valine. Heterozygotes with HbS are actually protected against malaria. The substitution of a nonpolar residue by a polar residue does not lead to an increase in sticky patch, but rather affects the overall structure and function of the protein.

The bulging of the tricuspid valve is indicated by a C wave in the jugular venous pulse (JVP). This occurs during ventricular systole when the right ventricle contracts and forces blood against the closed tricuspid valve, causing it to bulge into the right atrium. This bulging can be observed as a prominent upward deflection in the JVP waveform.

Bleomycin toxicity primarily affects Type-II pneumocytes. These cells are found in the alveoli of the lungs and are responsible for producing surfactant, a substance that helps to reduce surface tension and maintain the integrity of the alveoli. Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication that can cause lung damage by inducing oxidative stress and inflammation. It specifically targets Type-II pneumocytes, leading to their injury and dysfunction. This can result in pulmonary fibrosis, a condition characterized by the excessive accumulation of scar tissue in the lungs.

Positive hepatojugular reflux is a physical finding that indicates increased venous pressure in the liver. It is commonly seen in conditions such as tricuspid regurgitation and right heart failure, where there is impaired blood flow from the right side of the heart. However, decreased afterload refers to a decrease in the resistance that the heart must overcome to eject blood. This would not cause increased venous pressure in the liver and therefore would not be associated with positive hepatojugular reflux.

Mifepristone is used in the management of ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. Mifepristone is a medication that blocks the action of progesterone, a hormone necessary for pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone can help to terminate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to diagnose and treat ectopic pregnancies promptly, as they can be life-threatening if left untreated.

Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis for the 29-year-old person is DM Type II. This is because the person is known to be diabetic, has been on oral hypoglycemic agents (OHA) for 3 years, and has a family history of diabetes (grandfather). Additionally, the fact that the person has lost weight and never had diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) suggests that they are not experiencing the more severe symptoms typically associated with DM Type I or pancreatic diabetes. Therefore, the most likely explanation is DM Type II.

When a patient with severe hyperglycemia is given IV insulin, it can cause a shift of potassium from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular fluid. This shift of potassium can lead to decreased serum potassium levels, resulting in hypokalemia. Insulin stimulates the uptake of glucose and potassium into cells, therefore, as glucose enters the cells, so does potassium. This can be further exacerbated by insulin's ability to stimulate the activity of the sodium-potassium pump, leading to increased potassium uptake by cells and subsequent hypokalemia.

Leprosy is a disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium leprae that primarily affects the skin and peripheral nerves. It can lead to permanent changes in the skin, including thickening, discoloration, and loss of sensation. In some cases, leprosy can cause damage to the sweat glands and oil glands, which can result in changes to the fingerprints. Therefore, leprosy is the correct answer as it is the only disease listed that can permanently alter fingerprints.

The statement "5% cardiac output is received by kidney" is incorrect. The kidneys actually receive approximately 20-25% of the cardiac output. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in filtering blood and maintaining fluid balance in the body. The high blood flow to the kidneys allows for efficient filtration and excretion of waste products.

DMPA, or depot medroxyprogesterone acetate, is a form of birth control that is administered through injection. It has a failure rate of 0.3%, meaning that it is highly effective in preventing pregnancy. It does not have a protective effect on the cervical and endometrial cancer. However, it can be given to patients with seizures as it does not increase the risk of seizures. Additionally, DMPA can be used in the treatment of menorrhagia, a condition characterized by heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding.

Finnish type of nephritic syndrome is associated with nephrin. Nephrin is a protein that plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure and function of the glomerular filtration barrier in the kidneys. Mutations in the nephrin gene can lead to a disruption of this barrier, resulting in increased permeability of the glomerulus and the development of nephritic syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, leading to symptoms such as proteinuria, hematuria, and decreased renal function.

Young women often have denser breast tissue, which can make it difficult to detect abnormalities on a mammogram. Dense glandular tissue appears white on a mammogram, similar to tumors or other abnormalities, making it harder to distinguish between them. This can lead to false-negative results, where breast cancer may go undetected. Regular breast exams and other imaging techniques may be recommended for young women with dense breast tissue to ensure early detection of any abnormalities.

Ifosfamide is classified as an alkylating agent. Alkylating agents are a class of chemotherapy drugs that work by attaching alkyl groups to DNA molecules, which prevents the DNA from replicating and ultimately leads to cell death. Ifosfamide is commonly used in the treatment of various types of cancer, including testicular, ovarian, and lung cancer. It is often used in combination with other chemotherapy drugs to enhance its effectiveness.

The structure that is just lateral to the anterior perforated substance is the limen insulae.

The structure that is just lateral to the anterior perforated substance is the Limen insulae.

The sigmoid shape of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is due to the cooperative binding of oxygen molecules to hemoglobin. When one oxygen molecule binds to a subunit of hemoglobin, it induces conformational changes that increase the affinity of the remaining subunits for oxygen. This allows hemoglobin to bind more oxygen molecules more easily, resulting in a steep increase in oxygen saturation at higher oxygen partial pressures. This cooperative binding behavior is responsible for the sigmoid shape of the curve. The Bohr effect and Haldane effect are related to the regulation of oxygen binding and release by factors such as pH and carbon dioxide, but they do not directly explain the sigmoid shape of the curve.

The D-Xylose test is a diagnostic test used to assess the mucosal function of the gastrointestinal tract (GIT). It involves administering a dose of D-Xylose, a sugar that is normally absorbed by the small intestine. The test measures the levels of D-Xylose in the urine or blood to determine if the small intestine is properly absorbing nutrients. If the levels are low, it may indicate malabsorption or mucosal damage in the GIT. Therefore, the D-Xylose test is an appropriate choice for assessing mucosal function in the GIT.

HIV infection can lead to various complications, including cardiac tamponade, pericardial effusion, and cardiomyopathy. However, aortic aneurysm is not typically associated with HIV infection. Aortic aneurysms are more commonly caused by atherosclerosis, hypertension, and genetic factors. Therefore, the correct answer is aortic aneurysm.

In simple random sampling, all individuals in the population have an equal chance of being selected. This means that every member of the population has the same probability of being chosen as a sample. This method ensures that the sample is representative of the entire population and reduces bias. It is suitable for large and heterogeneous populations where there is no need to consider individual characteristics or when a complete sampling frame is not available.

The probable tympanometry finding in this case would be an Ad type tympanogram. This is because the tympanic membrane is intact, but there is a loss of hearing in the right ear. An Ad type tympanogram indicates a normal middle ear pressure with reduced compliance, which could be caused by a stiffened or immobilized tympanic membrane. This finding is consistent with the intact tympanic membrane and the loss of hearing in the right ear.

The medulla is supplied by several arteries, including the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, basilar artery, and anterior spinal artery. However, the bulbar artery does not supply the medulla.

In obstructive azoospermia, the obstruction in the reproductive tract prevents the release of sperm, but it does not affect the production of hormones by the pituitary gland. Therefore, the levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) remain normal.

Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is the excessive bleeding that occurs after childbirth. It is a life-threatening condition that can lead to death if not promptly treated. The minimum duration between the onset of symptoms (excessive bleeding) and death is likely to be shorter in PPH compared to the other options listed. This is because PPH involves rapid and significant blood loss, which can quickly lead to severe complications and death if not managed urgently.

The Maltese cross is a symbol associated with Babesia microti. Babesia microti is a parasitic protozoan that causes babesiosis, a tick-borne illness. The Maltese cross is often used to represent this parasite because its shape resembles the cross used by the Knights of Malta, who were known for their efforts in treating and caring for those affected by the disease.

The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus minimus, gluteus medius, and tensor fascia lata muscles. However, it does not supply the gluteus maximus muscle.

The symptoms described in the question, such as a lump in the throat, pruritis (itching), dyspnea (difficulty breathing), cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin), and not being able to breathe, are consistent with an allergic or hypersensitivity reaction. Angioneurotic edema is a type of allergic reaction that can cause swelling in various parts of the body, including the throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Therefore, the most probable cause of the symptoms described in the question is a hypersensitivity reaction. MI (myocardial infarction) and food stuck in the larynx are not likely causes based on the symptoms provided.

Neuropeptide Y is not an appetite suppressor. It is actually a neurotransmitter that stimulates appetite and increases food intake. Therefore, it is not included in the list of appetite suppressors.

The correct answer is "Margins are irregular." In heat hematoma, the margins or edges of the hematoma are irregular, meaning they are not smooth or uniform. This is in contrast to blunt trauma, where the margins of the hematoma are typically smooth. The irregular margins in heat hematoma may be indicative of underlying tissue damage or inflammation caused by the heat.

Splicing is a process in molecular biology where introns (non-coding regions) are removed from pre-mRNA and exons (coding regions) are joined together to form mature mRNA. This process is specifically associated with Sn RNA (small nuclear RNA). Sn RNA molecules are involved in the formation of spliceosomes, which are complexes responsible for the splicing of pre-mRNA. Therefore, the correct answer is Sn RNA.

CAP (catabolite activator protein) in the Lac Operon is an example of a positive regulator. CAP binds to a specific DNA sequence upstream of the lac operon, known as the CAP site, and enhances the transcription of the operon. In the absence of glucose, CAP is activated by binding to cyclic AMP (cAMP), which allows it to bind to the CAP site and facilitate RNA polymerase binding and transcription of the lac operon. Therefore, CAP acts as a positive regulator by increasing gene expression in the presence of cAMP.

Genomic imprinting refers to the phenomenon where certain genes are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner. This means that the expression of these genes is determined by whether they are inherited from the mother or the father. In other words, when one gene is inherited from one parent only, it is known as genomic imprinting. This process plays a crucial role in regulating gene expression and can have important implications for development and disease.

The Sternberg canal is a small canal located in the sphenoid bone of the skull. It is anterior and medial to the foramen rotundum, which is a passage for a nerve called the maxillary nerve. The canal is not posterior and lateral to the foramen rotundum. The other statements are true about the Sternberg canal: it can be a cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele, it can carry infection to the sphenoidal sinus, and it is located anterior and medial to the foramen rotundum.

Coagulative necrosis is a type of cell death characterized by the preservation of tissue architecture due to the denaturation of structural proteins. It is commonly found in tuberculosis (TB) infection. TB is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which primarily affects the lungs. The infection leads to the formation of granulomas, which are composed of necrotic tissue surrounded by a wall of immune cells. Within these granulomas, coagulative necrosis occurs, resulting in the characteristic caseous necrotic material. Therefore, TB is the correct answer for the infection associated with coagulative necrosis.

Bradycardia is a common sign of acute hypoxia in neonates. When the body is deprived of oxygen, the heart rate slows down as a compensatory mechanism. This is because the body tries to conserve oxygen by reducing the heart's workload. Therefore, bradycardia is a reliable indicator of hypoxia in neonates.

Raynaud's phenomenon is not true about JRA. JRA, or Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis, is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects children. Common symptoms include fever, rheumatoid nodules, and uveitis, which is inflammation of the middle layer of the eye. However, Raynaud's phenomenon, which is characterized by episodes of color changes in the fingers and toes due to cold or stress, is not typically associated with JRA.

The NCCT head of a 40-year-old patient who is unconscious after a blunt head injury is suggestive of an extradural hematoma. This is because an extradural hematoma is characterized by a collection of blood between the skull and the outermost layer of the brain, known as the dura mater. The CT scan would typically show a biconvex or lens-shaped hematoma that is located between the skull and the brain, causing compression of the brain tissue. This finding is consistent with an extradural hematoma rather than other types of bleeding such as subdural hematoma, subarachnoid bleed, or intracerebral bleed.

After 48 hours of fasting, insulin receptors are downregulated in adipocytes. This means that the number of insulin receptors on the surface of adipocytes decreases. Insulin receptors are responsible for binding to insulin and allowing it to exert its effects on cells. Downregulation of insulin receptors in adipocytes suggests that these cells become less responsive to insulin signaling. This may be a mechanism to conserve energy during fasting, as insulin promotes the uptake and storage of glucose and fatty acids in adipocytes.

In a standard distribution curve, the mean represents the average value of the data set, while the median represents the middle value. The fact that the mean is equal to the median suggests that the data is symmetrically distributed around the center. This means that the values on both sides of the distribution are balanced, resulting in the mean and median being the same.

CD 117 is specific for GIST. This means that CD 117 is a marker or protein that is commonly found in gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST). It is used as a diagnostic tool to identify and differentiate GIST from other types of tumors. CD 117 is a receptor tyrosine kinase protein that is expressed on the surface of GIST cells. Its presence helps in confirming the diagnosis of GIST and can also be used as a target for certain treatments, such as tyrosine kinase inhibitors.

HbS (Hemoglobin S) refers to a genetic variant of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. This variant is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin, resulting in a change in the structure of the protein. Specifically, in HbS, the mutation causes the amino acid glutamic acid to be replaced by valine. This change in structure affects the solubility of hemoglobin, causing it to form insoluble fibers when deoxygenated. These fibers can distort the shape of red blood cells, leading to their sickling and causing various health problems associated with sickle cell disease.

The triple assessment for Ca breast involves three components: clinical examination, mammogram, and FNAC/biopsy. Clinical examination allows for a physical examination of the breast to detect any abnormalities. Mammogram is a radiographic examination that uses X-rays to identify any suspicious changes in breast tissue. FNAC (fine-needle aspiration cytology) or biopsy involves the collection of cells or tissue from the breast for laboratory analysis to determine if cancer is present. Therefore, the correct answer is clinical examination, mammogram, and FNAC/biopsy.

Rifampicin should not be given to a patient who is taking tacrolimus. Rifampicin is known to induce the activity of liver enzymes, which can lead to a decrease in the blood levels of tacrolimus. This can result in reduced effectiveness of tacrolimus in preventing organ rejection in transplant patients. Therefore, it is important to avoid the concomitant use of rifampicin and tacrolimus.

Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressive medication used to prevent organ rejection after transplantation. It works by suppressing the immune system, but it can also cause various side effects. Hepatoxicity refers to liver damage, nephrotoxicity refers to kidney damage, and neurotoxicity refers to damage to the nervous system. These are known side effects of tacrolimus. However, ototoxicity, which refers to damage to the ears and hearing loss, is not commonly associated with tacrolimus use. Therefore, ototoxicity is the correct answer as it is not a known side effect of tacrolimus.

Blood culture is not more sensitive than stool culture for detecting nontyphoidal Salmonella. Stool culture is the preferred method for diagnosing nontyphoidal Salmonella infections as the bacteria is typically shed in the feces. Blood culture may be used in severe cases or in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not more sensitive than stool culture.

The status of fluid in the distal convoluted tubule is not always hypotonic. The distal convoluted tubule is responsible for the reabsorption of water and electrolytes from the filtrate. The amount of water reabsorbed varies depending on the body's needs and hormonal signals such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Therefore, the fluid in the distal convoluted tubule can be hypotonic, hypertonic, or isotonic depending on the circumstances.

Primary peristalsis is the initial wave of muscular contractions that occurs in the esophagus after swallowing. It is an involuntary process that helps propel the food bolus from the mouth to the stomach. This wave is initiated by the swallowing reflex and is essential for the normal movement of food through the esophagus. Secondary peristalsis occurs when there is a blockage or incomplete clearance of the esophagus, and it serves as a backup mechanism to clear the obstruction. Tertiary and quarternary peristalsis are not recognized terms in relation to the esophagus.

The best material for an inguinal arterial graft is the saphenous vein used in an upside-down position. This is because the saphenous vein has good long-term patency rates and is readily available in the patient's own body. By using it in an upside-down position, the valves within the vein are eliminated, reducing the risk of graft failure. PTFE, Dacron carmustine, and Teflon are alternative graft materials, but they do not offer the same advantages as the saphenous vein.

The patient is experiencing intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of chronic arterial obstruction. Intermittent claudication refers to pain or cramping in the muscles of the legs that occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. This is a common symptom of peripheral artery disease (PAD), which is caused by a narrowing or blockage of the arteries that supply blood to the legs. Gangrene and rest pains are also associated with chronic arterial obstruction, but the patient specifically presents with intermittent claudication.

Coombs positive hemolytic anemia is a condition characterized by the destruction of red blood cells due to the presence of antibodies that target these cells. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that can cause the production of these antibodies, leading to the development of hemolytic anemia. Therefore, SLE is associated with Coombs positive hemolytic anemia.

The paravertebral black can extend into the sub-arachnoid space, epidural space, and intercostal space. However, it cannot extend into the sub and inferior paravertebral space.

Modafinil is approved by the FDA for the treatment of narcolepsy. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep. Modafinil helps to promote wakefulness and reduce excessive sleepiness in individuals with narcolepsy. It is not approved for the treatment of major depression, obstructive sleep apnea, or shift work disorder.

Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) commonly used in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for breast cancer patients. It has been found to significantly reduce the risk of developing contralateral breast cancer, which refers to cancer occurring in the opposite breast. This is because tamoxifen acts by blocking the estrogen receptors in breast tissue, inhibiting the growth of cancer cells. Therefore, the use of tamoxifen in HRT does not lead to an increased risk of developing cancer in the contralateral breast.

Primary skin lesions are the initial or basic skin abnormalities that arise from a specific disease or disorder. Bowen's disease is a type of skin condition characterized by the presence of squamous cell carcinoma in situ. Reiter's syndrome, psoriasis, and lichen planus are all examples of conditions that can present with primary skin lesions. Therefore, Bowen's disease is the exception in this list as it is a primary skin lesion itself.

Cell-cell interaction can occur through various mechanisms such as hormones, gap junctions, and neurotransmitters released at the synapse. G-protein receptors, however, are not involved in direct cell-cell communication. G-protein receptors are membrane proteins that are activated by ligands, such as hormones or neurotransmitters, and initiate intracellular signaling pathways. While they play a crucial role in transmitting signals within a cell, they do not directly mediate interactions between cells.

An objective refers to the end point of all activities in a program, even those that may not be operationally measurable. It represents the desired outcome or result that the program aims to achieve. Objectives provide a clear direction and purpose for the program, guiding the actions and decisions made throughout its implementation. They help to define the overall vision and establish the criteria for success.

Myodesis is a surgical procedure that involves suturing or anchoring muscles to adjacent structures. It is contraindicated in cases of ischemia, which refers to inadequate blood supply to a particular organ or tissue. Ischemia can lead to tissue damage or death, and performing myodesis in such cases could exacerbate the ischemic condition and cause further harm. Therefore, it is important to avoid myodesis in patients with ischemia to prevent potential complications.

Thallium scan is used to assess the potential for reperfusion of the tissue post-infarct. Thallium is a radioactive substance that is injected into the bloodstream and taken up by the heart muscle. Areas of the heart that have reduced blood flow due to a blockage or infarction will show decreased thallium uptake. This can indicate areas of irreversible damage where reperfusion may not be possible. On the other hand, areas with normal or increased thallium uptake suggest viable tissue that may benefit from reperfusion therapy. Therefore, a Thallium scan is a useful tool for evaluating the potential for tissue reperfusion after an infarct.

This statement is not true because in adrenal adenoma on CT, the contrast typically appears early and washes out early, not late. Adrenal adenomas have a characteristic imaging pattern known as "rapid washout," where the contrast enhancement is high in the arterial phase and rapidly decreases in the venous and delayed phases. This is in contrast to other adrenal lesions like adrenal carcinomas, which show persistent enhancement in the delayed phases.

Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. It promotes the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. This leads to increased sodium levels in the blood (hypernatremia) and decreased potassium levels (hypokalemia). Additionally, aldosterone causes water retention, which can contribute to hypertension (HTN). However, aldosterone does not directly cause metabolic acidosis, which is characterized by an imbalance of acid and base in the body.

The posterior superior alveolar nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. The maxillary nerve is one of the three main branches of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for sensory innervation of the face. The maxillary nerve supplies sensory information to the upper teeth and gums, as well as the upper lip, cheek, and part of the nasal cavity. Therefore, it makes sense that the posterior superior alveolar nerve, which innervates the upper molars and premolars, would be a branch of the maxillary nerve.

The correct answer is "MC indication for liver transplant." This means that Hepatitis C is the most common indication or reason for a liver transplant. This suggests that Hepatitis C can severely damage the liver to the point where a transplant is necessary for survival.

Sorbitol MacConkey agar is not used for culturing E.coli 0157 because this specific strain of E.coli does not ferment sorbitol, which is a sugar present in the agar. This agar is selective for other types of E.coli that can ferment sorbitol, allowing them to grow and produce pink colonies. However, E.coli 0157 cannot ferment sorbitol, so it does not grow on this agar.

Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation and blood clot formation in a superficial vein near the surface of the skin. One of the main causes of this condition is IV injections, which can cause irritation and damage to the vein, leading to inflammation and clot formation. The insertion of a needle and the administration of medication or fluids through an IV can disrupt the normal blood flow in the vein and trigger the inflammatory response. Therefore, IV injections are a common cause of superficial thrombophlebitis.

The Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative promotes practices that support and encourage breastfeeding. Initiating breastfeeding within 4 hours of delivery is not a recommended practice as it may interfere with the natural process of breastfeeding and bonding between the mother and baby immediately after birth. It is recommended to initiate breastfeeding as soon as possible after birth, ideally within the first hour, to ensure successful breastfeeding initiation and establish a good milk supply.

The cochlear aqueduct is a small canal that connects the inner ear to the subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Meningitis, an infection that affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, can spread from the central nervous system (CNS) to the inner ear through this pathway. This allows the infection to reach the structures responsible for hearing, such as the cochlea, leading to potential hearing loss or other auditory symptoms.

GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is present in the lamina propria. The lamina propria is a layer of loose connective tissue found directly beneath the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract. It contains numerous lymphocytes, plasma cells, and other immune cells, making it an important component of the body's immune defense system in the gut. GALT plays a crucial role in monitoring and responding to antigens present in the gut, helping to maintain immune homeostasis and protect against pathogens.

The popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because it is deep seated. This means that the pulse is located deep within the tissues and is not easily accessible or detectable by touch. Unlike other pulses that are more superficial and can be felt more easily, the popliteal pulse is not as prominent and requires more pressure or skill to be felt.

Dengue hemorrhagic fever can occur when a person who has previously been infected with one serotype of the dengue virus is infected with a different serotype. This is known as re-infection from other viruses. When a person is infected with a new serotype, their immune response may not be able to effectively fight off the virus, leading to more severe symptoms and potentially dengue hemorrhagic fever.

Gardnerella is the correct answer because it is a bacterium that can cause bacterial vaginosis, a common vaginal infection. One of the symptoms of bacterial vaginosis is a fishy odor, which is often described as creamy. Trichomonas is a parasite that can also cause a fishy odor, but it is not creamy. Candida is a fungus that can cause a yeast infection, but it does not typically cause a fishy odor. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that does not typically cause a fishy odor.

Pasturella multocida infection is caused by the bacteria Pasturella multocida, which is commonly found in the mouths of animals. When an animal bites a human, the bacteria can be transferred into the wound, leading to an infection. This infection is commonly known as a "bite wound infection" and can cause symptoms such as redness, swelling, and pain at the site of the bite. Therefore, the correct answer is animal bite.

During exercise, the muscles require more oxygen and nutrients to function properly. As a result, there is an increased production of active metabolites such as lactic acid. These metabolites act as vasodilators, causing the blood vessels in the muscles to widen or dilate. This dilation allows for more blood to flow through the muscles, delivering the necessary oxygen and nutrients. Therefore, the accumulation of active metabolites is the reason why the muscle's blood supply increases during exercise.

In resting state, the body requires energy to perform basic functions such as breathing, circulating blood, and maintaining body temperature. Lean body mass refers to the weight of muscles, organs, and bones, which are metabolically active tissues that require energy even at rest. Therefore, the energy expenditure in resting state is dependent on lean body mass. Adipose tissue (fat) does not require as much energy at rest, and heart rate alone does not directly determine energy expenditure.

The given statement is incorrect because the crude birth rate is not a better measure of fertility than the general fertility rate. The general fertility rate takes into account the age distribution of women in the population, which is important in understanding fertility patterns. The crude birth rate, on the other hand, does not consider age distribution and only provides a simple measure of the number of births in a population. Therefore, the statement that it is a better measure of fertility than the general fertility rate is not true.

Aedes aegypti is a species of mosquito that is known to transmit diseases such as dengue. It is also known for its repeated biting behavior. However, the statement that eggs can survive without water for more than 7-8 days is false. Mosquito eggs, including those of Aedes aegypti, require water to hatch and develop. Without water, the eggs will not be able to survive and will not hatch.

CT (computed tomography) is the best diagnostic tool for calcification of the posterior spinal ligament. CT scans provide detailed images of the bones and soft tissues, allowing for the detection and evaluation of calcifications. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) is useful for visualizing soft tissues, but it may not be as effective in detecting calcifications. X-ray imaging can show bony changes, but it may not provide sufficient detail for diagnosing calcification in the posterior spinal ligament. USG (ultrasound) is not the preferred imaging modality for evaluating calcifications in this area.

Psammoma bodies are calcified structures that can be seen in certain types of tumors, such as papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and meningioma. However, they are not typically seen in follicular carcinoma of the thyroid or serous cystadenoma.

Hypersensitive pneumonitis is classically an immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. This means that it is caused by the formation of immune complexes in the lungs, leading to an inflammatory response. Immune complexes are formed when antigens and antibodies bind together, and they can deposit in the lungs and trigger an immune response. This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the activation of complement proteins and the recruitment of inflammatory cells, leading to tissue damage and inflammation in the lungs.

Angioneurotic edema is characterized by non-pitting edema, meaning that it does not leave an indentation when pressure is applied. This edema typically affects the face, including the lips, but it is not associated with pitting. The other options mentioned in the question are all true statements about angioneurotic edema.

Infections can cause DVT, but the question asks for the known causes of DVT that are NOT associated with hip replacement surgery. Therefore, the correct answer is infections, as they are not directly related to the surgery itself.

Infantile polycystic kidney disease is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of renal cysts at birth, hepatic cysts, and periportal fibrosis. The disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, not autosomal dominant. Therefore, the correct answer is autosomal dominant, as it is not true about infantile polycystic kidney disease.

Non-invasive diarrhea is a type of diarrhea that does not involve invasion or penetration of the intestinal wall by the causative agent. Shigella, EIEC, and Y. enterocolitica are all known to cause invasive diarrhea, meaning they are able to invade the intestinal wall and cause more severe symptoms. B. cereus, on the other hand, is known to cause non-invasive diarrhea. Therefore, B. cereus is the correct answer as it does not cause invasive diarrhea like the other options.

In a lady with bilateral superior temporal quadrantopia and galactorrhea, the most probable cause is a pituitary macroadenoma. Pituitary macroadenomas are large tumors that can compress the optic chiasm, leading to visual field defects such as quadrantopia. They can also cause hormonal imbalances, including hyperprolactinemia, which can result in galactorrhea. Craniopharyngiomas are another type of pituitary tumor but they typically present with different visual field defects and do not commonly cause galactorrhea. Sheehan's syndrome is a condition caused by postpartum pituitary necrosis and would not typically present with visual field defects. Pituitary hypophysitis is an inflammation of the pituitary gland and is not commonly associated with visual field defects or galactorrhea.

Primary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation by the age of 16 in girls who have otherwise developed secondary sexual characteristics. Sheehan's syndrome is a condition caused by severe postpartum hemorrhage, leading to pituitary gland infarction and subsequent hormonal deficiencies. Kallmann's syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by delayed or absent puberty and impaired sense of smell. Mayer Rokitsansky Kuster Hauser syndrome is a congenital disorder characterized by the absence or underdevelopment of the uterus and vagina. Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder in females characterized by the absence or underdevelopment of the ovaries, leading to infertility and other physical abnormalities. Sheehan's syndrome is not associated with primary amenorrhea.