Fmge Mock Test Questions And Answers
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Are you preparing for a screening test for medical sciences? Have a look at this FMGE mock test questions and answers, and test your knowledge. This quiz is a mock test for your preparation for the final exam. So, take this quiz and prepare perfectly for all the upcoming tests and exams. Even if you miss out on something, we are here to help you with the correct answers. All the best for the best scores on this quiz. You can share it with other aspirants also.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
All is true about trochlear nerve except:
- A.
Longest intracranial course
- B.
Arise from dorsal aspect
- C.
Supplies ipsilateral superior oblique
- D.
Arises from out side the common tendinous ring
Correct Answer
C. Supplies ipsilateral superior obliqueExplanation
The trochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve that arises from the dorsal aspect of the brainstem, making the statement "Arise from dorsal aspect" true. It also has the longest intracranial course among all the cranial nerves. Additionally, it supplies the contralateral superior oblique muscle, not the ipsilateral one. Therefore, the statement "Supplies ipsilateral superior oblique" is false. Lastly, the trochlear nerve does arise from outside the common tendinous ring, which is a true statement.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Urogenital diaphragm is contributed by all except:
- A.
Sphincter urethra
- B.
Perineal body
- C.
Colles’ fascia
- D.
Perineal membrane
Correct Answer
C. Colles’ fasciaExplanation
The urogenital diaphragm is a muscular structure located in the pelvic floor. It plays a role in supporting the pelvic organs and maintaining continence. The sphincter urethra, perineal body, and perineal membrane are all components of the urogenital diaphragm. However, Colles' fascia is not a part of the urogenital diaphragm. Colles' fascia is a layer of connective tissue located in the perineum, but it is not directly involved in the formation of the urogenital diaphragm.Rate this question:
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- 3.
All are the contents of depp perineal pouch except:
- A.
Bulb/Root of penis
- B.
Dorsal nerve of penis
- C.
Sphincter urethra
- D.
Bulbourethral glands
Correct Answer
A. Bulb/Root of penisExplanation
The contents of the deep perineal pouch include the dorsal nerve of the penis, the sphincter urethra, and the bulbourethral glands. However, the bulb/root of the penis is not a content of the deep perineal pouch.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Neural tube begin to close from which region
- A.
Cranial
- B.
Cervical
- C.
Thoracic
- D.
Lumbar
Correct Answer
B. CervicalExplanation
The neural tube begins to close from the cervical region. The neural tube is a structure that eventually develops into the brain and spinal cord during embryonic development. Closure of the neural tube is a critical step in the formation of the central nervous system. It starts at the cervical region, which is the area of the spine located in the neck.Rate this question:
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- 5.
All is true for Sternberg canal except:
- A.
Anterior and medial to foramen rotundum
- B.
Posterior and lateral to foramen rotundum
- C.
Cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele
- D.
Can carry infection to sphenoidal sinus
Correct Answer
B. Posterior and lateral to foramen rotundumExplanation
The Sternberg canal is a small canal located in the sphenoid bone of the skull. It is anterior and medial to the foramen rotundum, which is a passage for a nerve called the maxillary nerve. The canal is not posterior and lateral to the foramen rotundum. The other statements are true about the Sternberg canal: it can be a cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele, it can carry infection to the sphenoidal sinus, and it is located anterior and medial to the foramen rotundum.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Posterior superior alveolar nerve is a branch of:
- A.
Mandibular
- B.
Facial
- C.
Lingual
- D.
Maxillary
Correct Answer
D. MaxillaryExplanation
The posterior superior alveolar nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. The maxillary nerve is one of the three main branches of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for sensory innervation of the face. The maxillary nerve supplies sensory information to the upper teeth and gums, as well as the upper lip, cheek, and part of the nasal cavity. Therefore, it makes sense that the posterior superior alveolar nerve, which innervates the upper molars and premolars, would be a branch of the maxillary nerve.Rate this question:
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- 7.
All of the following arteries supply medulla except:
- A.
Posterior inferior cerebellar
- B.
Basilar
- C.
Anterior spinal
- D.
Bulbar
Correct Answer
D. BulbarExplanation
The medulla is supplied by several arteries, including the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, basilar artery, and anterior spinal artery. However, the bulbar artery does not supply the medulla.Rate this question:
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- 8.
GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is present in:
- A.
Submucosa
- B.
Lamina propria
- C.
Muscularis mucosa
- D.
Adventitia/Serosa
Correct Answer
B. Lamina propriaExplanation
GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is present in the lamina propria. The lamina propria is a layer of loose connective tissue found directly beneath the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract. It contains numerous lymphocytes, plasma cells, and other immune cells, making it an important component of the body's immune defense system in the gut. GALT plays a crucial role in monitoring and responding to antigens present in the gut, helping to maintain immune homeostasis and protect against pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 9.
All are pain sensitive area of brain except:
- A.
Dural sinuses
- B.
Middle meningeal artery
- C.
Falx cerebri
- D.
Choroid plexus
Correct Answer
D. Choroid plexusExplanation
The choroid plexus is not a pain-sensitive area of the brain. It is a network of blood vessels located within the ventricles of the brain, responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid. While the dural sinuses, middle meningeal artery, and falx cerebri are pain-sensitive areas, the choroid plexus does not possess the necessary nerve endings to perceive pain.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is in part:
- A.
1st
- B.
2nd
- C.
3rd
- D.
Terminal
Correct Answer
A. 1stExplanation
The most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is in the 1st part.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Superior gluteal nerve supplies all except:
- A.
Gluteus minimus
- B.
Gluteus medius
- C.
Tensor fascia lata
- D.
Gluteus maximus
Correct Answer
D. Gluteus maximusExplanation
The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus minimus, gluteus medius, and tensor fascia lata muscles. However, it does not supply the gluteus maximus muscle.Rate this question:
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- 12.
All are branches of splenic artery except:
- A.
Short gastric
- B.
Hilar
- C.
Arteria pancreatica magna
- D.
Right gastroepiploic
Correct Answer
D. Right gastroepiploicExplanation
The right gastroepiploic artery is not a branch of the splenic artery. It is actually a branch of the gastroduodenal artery, which is a branch of the common hepatic artery. The splenic artery gives rise to branches such as the short gastric artery, hilar artery, and arteria pancreatica magna. Therefore, the correct answer is the right gastroepiploic artery.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Artery in anatomical snuff box:
- A.
Radial
- B.
Brachial
- C.
Ulnar
- D.
Interosseous
Correct Answer
A. RadialExplanation
The correct answer is radial because the anatomical snuff box is a triangular depression on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the hand. It is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and brevis muscles. The radial artery runs through the anatomical snuff box, making it the artery present in this anatomical structure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
All are compoite muscles except:
- A.
Pectineus
- B.
Flexor carpi ulnaris
- C.
Biceps femoris
- D.
Flexor digitorum profundus
Correct Answer
B. Flexor carpi ulnarisExplanation
The correct answer is Flexor carpi ulnaris. This muscle is not a composite muscle, meaning it is not composed of multiple muscle heads or parts. Instead, it is a single muscle with a single origin and insertion. In contrast, the other three muscles listed (Pectineus, Biceps femoris, and Flexor digitorum profundus) are composite muscles, meaning they are made up of multiple muscle heads or parts that have different origins and/or insertions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Spongy part of the male urethra drains via which lymph nodes:
- A.
Superficial inguinal
- B.
External iliac
- C.
Deep inguinal
- D.
Aortic
Correct Answer
C. Deep inguinalExplanation
The spongy part of the male urethra drains via the deep inguinal lymph nodes. The deep inguinal lymph nodes are located in the inguinal region, near the groin area. They receive lymphatic drainage from the spongy part of the male urethra, as well as from the scrotum and the penis. These lymph nodes play a role in filtering and draining lymphatic fluid from these areas, helping to remove waste products and potentially harmful substances.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which structure is just lateral to anterior perforated substance?
- A.
Uncus
- B.
Limen insulae
- C.
3rd ventricle
- D.
Optic chiasma
Correct Answer
B. Limen insulaeExplanation
The structure that is just lateral to the anterior perforated substance is the limen insulae.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which structure is just lateral to anterior perforated substance?
- A.
Uncus
- B.
Limen insulae
- C.
3rd ventricle
- D.
Optic chiasma
Correct Answer
B. Limen insulaeExplanation
The structure that is just lateral to the anterior perforated substance is the Limen insulae.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid come from all except:
- A.
Otic ganglion
- B.
Greater petrosal nerve
- C.
Auriculotemporal nerve
- D.
Tympanic plexus
Correct Answer
B. Greater petrosal nerveExplanation
The greater petrosal nerve does not contain parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to the parotid gland. The parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to the parotid gland originate from the otic ganglion, auriculotemporal nerve, and tympanic plexus.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because:
- A.
It is not over prominent bone
- B.
Pulse is weak
- C.
It is deep seated
- D.
It is both seated and not over prominent bone
Correct Answer
C. It is deep seatedExplanation
The popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because it is deep seated. This means that the pulse is located deep within the tissues and is not easily accessible or detectable by touch. Unlike other pulses that are more superficial and can be felt more easily, the popliteal pulse is not as prominent and requires more pressure or skill to be felt.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Chief cells are found in:
- A.
Fundus
- B.
Pit
- C.
Neck
- D.
Body
Correct Answer
A. FundusExplanation
Chief cells are found in the fundus of the stomach. The fundus is the upper portion of the stomach, located above the body and near the esophagus. Chief cells are responsible for secreting pepsinogen, an inactive form of the enzyme pepsin, which helps in the digestion of proteins. The presence of chief cells in the fundus allows for the initiation of protein digestion in the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Not true about shunt vessel is:
- A.
It control temperature regulation
- B.
It is direct communication between artery and veins
- C.
It is under control of local mediators
- D.
It is not under autonomic control
Correct Answer
D. It is not under autonomic controlExplanation
The correct answer is that shunt vessels are not under autonomic control. Shunt vessels are small blood vessels that connect arterioles directly to venules, bypassing the capillary bed. They play a role in regulating blood flow and temperature in certain tissues. While shunt vessels are under the control of local mediators, such as chemicals released by nearby cells, they are not regulated by the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Most common muscle to be congenitally absent is:
- A.
Pectoralis major
- B.
Tares minor
- C.
Semimembranosus
- D.
Gastrocnemius
Correct Answer
A. Pectoralis majorExplanation
The most common muscle to be congenitally absent is the Pectoralis major. This muscle is responsible for movements of the shoulder joint, such as flexion, adduction, and medial rotation. Congenital absence of the Pectoralis major can result in a condition called Poland syndrome, which is characterized by underdevelopment or absence of the muscle on one side of the body. This condition can also be associated with other abnormalities, such as absence of the breast and nipple, and rib abnormalities.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Diastolic pressure in aorta is maintained by:
- A.
Elastic recoil of aorta
- B.
Muscular artery
- C.
Resistance in arterioles
- D.
Capillaries
Correct Answer
A. Elastic recoil of aortaExplanation
The correct answer is the elastic recoil of the aorta. The aorta is a large, elastic artery that receives blood from the heart during systole and stretches to accommodate the volume of blood. During diastole, when the heart is at rest, the elastic fibers in the aorta recoil, helping to maintain the pressure in the aorta and ensuring continuous blood flow to the rest of the body. This elastic recoil prevents a sudden drop in pressure and helps to maintain a steady flow of blood throughout the cardiac cycle.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to:
- A.
Increase in CO2 tension
- B.
Decrease in CO2tension
- C.
Low O2 tension
- D.
Increase in H+
Correct Answer
A. Increase in CO2 tensionExplanation
Central chemoreceptors are specialized cells located in the brain that are responsible for monitoring the levels of certain gases in the blood, including carbon dioxide (CO2). These chemoreceptors are most sensitive to an increase in CO2 tension. When CO2 levels in the blood rise, it leads to an increase in carbonic acid, which then increases the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood. This change in pH is detected by the central chemoreceptors, triggering a response to increase ventilation and remove excess CO2 from the body. Therefore, an increase in CO2 tension is the most significant stimulus for the central chemoreceptors.Rate this question:
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- 25.
True for the vasomotor center is:
- A.
Not influenced by cortical centers.
- B.
Stimulated by baroreceptors from arterial organs
- C.
In sleep, medulla stops sending signals which explain the decrease in BP.
- D.
Functional interaction with cardio-vagal center
Correct Answer
D. Functional interaction with cardio-vagal centerExplanation
The vasomotor center is known to have a functional interaction with the cardio-vagal center. This means that these two centers work together to regulate blood pressure and heart rate. The vasomotor center is responsible for controlling the constriction and dilation of blood vessels, while the cardio-vagal center regulates heart rate. This interaction ensures that blood pressure and heart rate are properly coordinated and maintained within the body.Rate this question:
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- 26.
An intrinsic factor of the castle is present in:
- A.
Chief cells
- B.
Fundus cells
- C.
Goblet cells
- D.
Parietal cells
Correct Answer
D. Parietal cellsExplanation
Parietal cells are present in the castle and have an intrinsic factor. The intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. It is produced by the parietal cells of the stomach lining and binds to vitamin B12, allowing it to be absorbed by the body. This intrinsic factor is necessary for the proper functioning of the digestive system and the production of healthy red blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Faciliatated diffusion:
- A.
Requires carrier protein
- B.
It is a form of active transport
- C.
Along concentration gradient
- D.
Requires creatinine phosphate
Correct Answer
A. Requires carrier proteinExplanation
Facilitated diffusion is a passive transport process that allows the movement of molecules across a cell membrane along their concentration gradient. It differs from simple diffusion as it requires the assistance of specific carrier proteins embedded in the membrane. These carrier proteins bind to the molecules being transported and facilitate their movement across the membrane. Therefore, the correct answer is that facilitated diffusion requires carrier proteins.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Action potential generated in axon hillock is due to:
- A.
It has the least threshold.
- B.
Neurotransmitters produced
- C.
Unmyelinated
- D.
Has more ion channels
Correct Answer
D. Has more ion channelsExplanation
The action potential generated in the axon hillock is due to the presence of more ion channels. Ion channels are responsible for controlling the flow of ions in and out of the neuron, which is essential for generating and propagating the action potential. The axon hillock, located at the base of the neuron, contains a high density of ion channels, making it an important site for initiating the action potential. This high concentration of ion channels allows for a rapid and efficient generation of the action potential, which is necessary for the transmission of electrical signals along the neuron.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Cell-cell interaction occurs by all of the following mechanisms except:
- A.
Hormones
- B.
Gap junctions
- C.
G-protein receptors
- D.
Neurotransmitters released at the synapse
Correct Answer
C. G-protein receptorsExplanation
Cell-cell interaction can occur through various mechanisms such as hormones, gap junctions, and neurotransmitters released at the synapse. G-protein receptors, however, are not involved in direct cell-cell communication. G-protein receptors are membrane proteins that are activated by ligands, such as hormones or neurotransmitters, and initiate intracellular signaling pathways. While they play a crucial role in transmitting signals within a cell, they do not directly mediate interactions between cells.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In obstructive azoospermia:
- A.
FSH and LH both increase
- B.
FSH and LH both are normal
- C.
FSH decrease but LH increases
- D.
FSH and LH both decrease
Correct Answer
B. FSH and LH both are normalExplanation
In obstructive azoospermia, the obstruction in the reproductive tract prevents the release of sperm, but it does not affect the production of hormones by the pituitary gland. Therefore, the levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) remain normal.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which is not involved in the intrinsic pathway?
- A.
Factor XII
- B.
Factor XI
- C.
Factor IX
- D.
Factor VII
Correct Answer
D. Factor VIIExplanation
Factor VII is not involved in the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation. The intrinsic pathway is initiated by the activation of factor XII, which then activates factor XI. Factor XI subsequently activates factor IX, leading to the formation of the tenase complex and ultimately the activation of factor X. Factor VII, on the other hand, is part of the extrinsic pathway, which is initiated by tissue factor and does not involve factors XII, XI, or IX.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Causes of the sigmoid shape of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (O2) is:
- A.
The binding of one O2 molecule increases the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules.
- B.
The binding of one O2 molecule decreases the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules.
- C.
Bohr effect
- D.
Haldane effect
Correct Answer
A. The binding of one O2 molecule increases the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules.Explanation
The sigmoid shape of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is due to the cooperative binding of oxygen molecules to hemoglobin. When one oxygen molecule binds to a subunit of hemoglobin, it induces conformational changes that increase the affinity of the remaining subunits for oxygen. This allows hemoglobin to bind more oxygen molecules more easily, resulting in a steep increase in oxygen saturation at higher oxygen partial pressures. This cooperative binding behavior is responsible for the sigmoid shape of the curve. The Bohr effect and Haldane effect are related to the regulation of oxygen binding and release by factors such as pH and carbon dioxide, but they do not directly explain the sigmoid shape of the curve.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Sertoli cells are associated with:
- A.
Spermiogenesis
- B.
Secretion of seminal fluid
- C.
Production of testosterones
- D.
Production of sperm
Correct Answer
A. SpermiogenesisExplanation
Sertoli cells are associated with spermiogenesis, which is the process of sperm maturation. These cells provide physical and nutritional support to developing sperm cells, as well as aid in their differentiation and maturation. They also play a role in the removal of excess cytoplasm from developing sperm cells, ensuring that they become streamlined and fully functional. Therefore, spermiogenesis is the correct association with Sertoli cells.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Sleep is primarily regulated by:
- A.
Thalamus
- B.
Hypothalamus
- C.
Putamen
- D.
Limbic cortex
Correct Answer
B. HypothalamusExplanation
The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sleep primarily. It contains a group of nerve cells called the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which acts as the body's internal clock. The SCN receives information about light and darkness from the eyes and sends signals to other parts of the brain, including the pineal gland, to regulate the production of melatonin, a hormone that helps control sleep-wake cycles. Additionally, the hypothalamus plays a role in controlling other sleep-related functions, such as body temperature and hormone production.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Paneth cells are rich in:
- A.
Zinc
- B.
Lysozyme
- C.
Mucus
- D.
Intrinsic factor
Correct Answer
A. ZincExplanation
Paneth cells are specialized cells found in the small intestine that play a role in the immune response and defense against pathogens. They are known to contain high levels of zinc, which is an essential mineral involved in various cellular processes, including immune function. Zinc is important for the proper functioning of the immune system, and its presence in Paneth cells suggests that it may play a role in their immune-related functions.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Muscle’s blood supply increases during exercise due to:
- A.
Increased blood pressure
- B.
Accumulation of active metabolites
- C.
Increase vasodilatation
- D.
Increase heart rate
Correct Answer
B. Accumulation of active metabolitesExplanation
During exercise, the muscles require more oxygen and nutrients to function properly. As a result, there is an increased production of active metabolites such as lactic acid. These metabolites act as vasodilators, causing the blood vessels in the muscles to widen or dilate. This dilation allows for more blood to flow through the muscles, delivering the necessary oxygen and nutrients. Therefore, the accumulation of active metabolites is the reason why the muscle's blood supply increases during exercise.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The status of fluid in distal convoluted tubule is all except:
- A.
Always hypotonic
- B.
Hypertonic
- C.
Isotonic
Correct Answer
A. Always hypotonicExplanation
The status of fluid in the distal convoluted tubule is not always hypotonic. The distal convoluted tubule is responsible for the reabsorption of water and electrolytes from the filtrate. The amount of water reabsorbed varies depending on the body's needs and hormonal signals such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Therefore, the fluid in the distal convoluted tubule can be hypotonic, hypertonic, or isotonic depending on the circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Energy expenditure in resting state depends upon:
- A.
Lean body mass
- B.
Adipose tissue
- C.
Heart rate
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Lean body massExplanation
In resting state, the body requires energy to perform basic functions such as breathing, circulating blood, and maintaining body temperature. Lean body mass refers to the weight of muscles, organs, and bones, which are metabolically active tissues that require energy even at rest. Therefore, the energy expenditure in resting state is dependent on lean body mass. Adipose tissue (fat) does not require as much energy at rest, and heart rate alone does not directly determine energy expenditure.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Rise in 2-3 bisphophoglycerate is seen in all of the following except:
- A.
Chronic anemia
- B.
Chronic hypoxia
- C.
Inosine
- D.
Hypoxanthine
Correct Answer
D. HypoxanthineExplanation
The rise in 2-3 bisphophoglycerate is seen in chronic anemia and chronic hypoxia as a compensatory mechanism to enhance oxygen delivery to tissues. Inosine is a nucleoside that does not directly affect the levels of 2-3 bisphophoglycerate. Hypoxanthine is a purine derivative that is converted into inosine and does not directly affect the levels of 2-3 bisphophoglycerate. Therefore, the correct answer is Hypoxanthine.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A person sits from standing position, change seen is:
- A.
Increase increase in venous return
- B.
Increase in heart rate
- C.
Increase epinephrine
- D.
Increased cerebral blood flow
Correct Answer
A. Increase increase in venous returnExplanation
When a person sits from a standing position, there is an increase in venous return. This means that more blood is flowing back to the heart from the veins. This increase in venous return leads to an increase in preload, which is the amount of blood filling the heart before it contracts. As a result, the heart rate increases to pump out this increased volume of blood. The other options, such as increase in epinephrine and increased cerebral blood flow, may also occur during this transition, but the primary change seen is the increase in venous return.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Angiotensin II causes all except:
- A.
Stimulates release of ADH
- B.
Increases thirst
- C.
Vasodilation
- D.
Stimulates aldosterone release
Correct Answer
C. VasodilationExplanation
Angiotensin II is a hormone that is primarily known for its vasoconstrictive effects, meaning it causes blood vessels to narrow. This narrowing of blood vessels leads to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that angiotensin II would not cause vasodilation, as this would contradict its vasoconstrictive properties.Rate this question:
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- 42.
About renal physiology all are true except:
- A.
DCT always receive hypo-osmotic solution
- B.
Afferent artery supplies glomerulus
- C.
GFR is controlled by afferent and efferent arteriole
- D.
5% cardiac output is received by kidney
Correct Answer
D. 5% cardiac output is received by kidneyExplanation
The statement "5% cardiac output is received by kidney" is incorrect. The kidneys actually receive approximately 20-25% of the cardiac output. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in filtering blood and maintaining fluid balance in the body. The high blood flow to the kidneys allows for efficient filtration and excretion of waste products.Rate this question:
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- 43.
After 48 hours of fasting insulin receptors are down regulated in:
- A.
Brain
- B.
Liver
- C.
RBC
- D.
Adipocytes
Correct Answer
D. AdipocytesExplanation
After 48 hours of fasting, insulin receptors are downregulated in adipocytes. This means that the number of insulin receptors on the surface of adipocytes decreases. Insulin receptors are responsible for binding to insulin and allowing it to exert its effects on cells. Downregulation of insulin receptors in adipocytes suggests that these cells become less responsive to insulin signaling. This may be a mechanism to conserve energy during fasting, as insulin promotes the uptake and storage of glucose and fatty acids in adipocytes.Rate this question:
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- 44.
True about deglutition persistalsis of esophagus:
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
Quarternary
Correct Answer
A. PrimaryExplanation
Primary peristalsis is the initial wave of muscular contractions that occurs in the esophagus after swallowing. It is an involuntary process that helps propel the food bolus from the mouth to the stomach. This wave is initiated by the swallowing reflex and is essential for the normal movement of food through the esophagus. Secondary peristalsis occurs when there is a blockage or incomplete clearance of the esophagus, and it serves as a backup mechanism to clear the obstruction. Tertiary and quarternary peristalsis are not recognized terms in relation to the esophagus.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Oxygen demand of heart:
- A.
Increases proportionately with heart rate
- B.
Depends upon duration of systole
- C.
Is negligible when heart is at rest
- D.
Is in constant relation with amount of work done
Correct Answer
A. Increases proportionately with heart rateExplanation
The oxygen demand of the heart increases proportionately with heart rate because as the heart beats faster, it needs to pump more blood to meet the body's demand for oxygen. This increased pumping requires more energy and therefore more oxygen.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Cyanosis doesn’t occur in anemia because:
- A.
Certain min. amount of reduced Hb should be present
- B.
In anemia, O 2 saturation increaes
- C.
Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production
- D.
O2 hemoglobin curve shifts to right
Correct Answer
A. Certain min. amount of reduced Hb should be presentExplanation
In order for cyanosis to occur, a certain minimum amount of reduced hemoglobin (Hb) needs to be present. Anemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. However, it does not necessarily mean that there is a decrease in the amount of reduced hemoglobin. Therefore, cyanosis, which is the bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to a lack of oxygen, does not occur in anemia.Rate this question:
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- 47.
After cutting DNA with restriction enzymes; segments are joined by:
- A.
Endonuclease
- B.
Ligase
- C.
Topoisomerase
- D.
Helicase
Correct Answer
B. LigaseExplanation
After cutting DNA with restriction enzymes, the segments are joined by ligase. Ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the sugar-phosphate backbones of DNA strands. It plays a crucial role in DNA replication, repair, and recombination. In this context, after the restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific recognition sites, ligase is responsible for sealing the gaps and joining the DNA segments back together. This process is essential for the proper functioning and stability of the DNA molecule.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Intestinal flora digests all except:
- A.
Cellulose
- B.
Lignin
- C.
Pectin
- D.
Starch
Correct Answer
D. StarchExplanation
Intestinal flora refers to the microorganisms present in the digestive tract that aid in the digestion of various substances. Among the options given, cellulose, lignin, and pectin are all types of dietary fiber that cannot be digested by humans. However, starch is a complex carbohydrate that can be broken down by enzymes in the small intestine and absorbed for energy. Therefore, the correct answer is starch as it is the only option that can be digested by intestinal flora.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except:
- A.
Fatty acid
- B.
Glucose
- C.
Ketone bodies
- D.
Cholesterol
Correct Answer
B. GlucoseExplanation
Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to fatty acids, ketone bodies, and cholesterol through various metabolic pathways. However, it cannot be directly converted to glucose. Glucose is primarily synthesized through a process called gluconeogenesis, which involves the conversion of non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids and lactate into glucose. Acetyl CoA is an important molecule in energy metabolism, but it cannot be converted back into glucose.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Splicing is associated with:
- A.
MRNA
- B.
Sn RNA
- C.
r RNA
- D.
t RNA
Correct Answer
B. Sn RNAExplanation
Splicing is a process in molecular biology where introns (non-coding regions) are removed from pre-mRNA and exons (coding regions) are joined together to form mature mRNA. This process is specifically associated with Sn RNA (small nuclear RNA). Sn RNA molecules are involved in the formation of spliceosomes, which are complexes responsible for the splicing of pre-mRNA. Therefore, the correct answer is Sn RNA.Rate this question:
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Jan 23, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jun 15, 2014Quiz Created by
Fmgs India
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