Prosthetics & Orthotics 1

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Prosthetics & Orthotics 1 - Quiz

In medicine, a prosthesis is an artificial device that is used to replace a missing body part. An orthosis is an externally applied device used to modify the structural characteristics of the skeletal system. What do you know about them?


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following plastics is commonly used as a topcover?

    • A.

      Plastizote

    • B.

      Polyethylene

    • C.

      Orfilite

    • D.

      Ppt

    Correct Answer
    D. Ppt
    Explanation
    PPT, or Polypropylene Terephthalate, is commonly used as a topcover in various applications. It is a type of plastic that offers excellent strength, durability, and resistance to chemicals and heat. PPT is often used as a protective layer or cover due to its ability to withstand wear and tear, making it a suitable choice for applications where a strong and long-lasting topcover is required.

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  • 2. 

    The clinical application that allows a material to return to its original shape easier than it took for original application is known as:

    • A.

      Creep

    • B.

      Viscoelasticity

    • C.

      Malleability

    • D.

      Hysteresis

    Correct Answer
    D. Hysteresis
    Explanation
    Hysteresis refers to the phenomenon where a material exhibits a lag or delay in its response to an applied force or stress. In the context of the given question, hysteresis is the correct answer because it describes the property of a material to return to its original shape more easily than it took for the original application of force or stress. This means that the material retains some memory of its previous shape and requires less energy to revert back to it. Creep, viscoelasticity, and malleability are not suitable explanations as they do not specifically address this property of easy return to original shape.

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  • 3. 

    You are seeing a patient with an uncompensated forefoot varus. Of the following, which would be appropriate?

    • A.

      Soft; medial post

    • B.

      Soft; lateral post

    • C.

      Rigid; medial post

    • D.

      Rigid: lateral post

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft; medial post
    Explanation
    In a patient with an uncompensated forefoot varus, the appropriate option would be to provide a soft orthotic with a medial post. This is because a medial post helps to support and stabilize the foot, correcting the varus alignment. A soft orthotic is preferred in this case as it provides cushioning and comfort, while still offering the necessary support. Using a lateral post or a rigid orthotic may not effectively address the varus deformity and may cause discomfort or further alignment issues.

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  • 4. 

    You are seeing a patient who has a compensated rearfoot varus. Which would be appropriate?

    • A.

      Rigid, medial post

    • B.

      Rigid, lateral post

    • C.

      Soft, medial post

    • D.

      Soft, lateral post

    Correct Answer
    A. Rigid, medial post
    Explanation
    A compensated rearfoot varus refers to a condition where the rearfoot is tilted inward or inverted. To address this issue, a rigid, medial post would be appropriate. A medial post is a supportive device placed on the inner side of the shoe to help correct the alignment of the foot. By using a rigid material, it provides stability and prevents excessive inward rolling of the foot. This helps to redistribute the forces during walking or running and promote proper foot alignment. A lateral post would not be suitable as it would further tilt the foot inward, exacerbating the varus. Soft posts may not provide enough support to correct the alignment effectively.

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  • 5. 

    What type of plastic is plastizote?

    • A.

      Low temp thermoplastic

    • B.

      High temp thermoplastic

    • C.

      Closed cell polyethylene foam

    • D.

      Polypropylene

    • E.

      Open cell polyethylene foam

    Correct Answer
    C. Closed cell polyethylene foam
    Explanation
    Plastizote is a type of plastic that is classified as closed cell polyethylene foam. This type of foam is characterized by its closed cell structure, which means that the individual cells are sealed off from each other, resulting in a material that is resistant to water absorption and has excellent insulation properties. Plastizote is often used in applications where cushioning and impact resistance are required, such as in packaging, sports equipment, and medical devices.

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  • 6. 

    Which plastic is commonly used in prefabricated AFOs?

    • A.

      Polypropylene

    • B.

      Polyethylene

    • C.

      Transpolyisoprene

    • D.

      Polycapriolactone

    Correct Answer
    A. Polypropylene
    Explanation
    Polypropylene is commonly used in prefabricated AFOs because it is a lightweight and durable plastic material. It offers good flexibility and resistance to wear and tear, making it suitable for orthotic devices like AFOs. Polyethylene is another type of plastic commonly used in AFOs, but polypropylene is preferred due to its superior properties. Transpolyisoprene and polycapriolactone are not commonly used in AFOs and may not possess the necessary characteristics required for this application.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is a FALSE statement about leather?

    • A.

      It doesn't breathe.

    • B.

      It doesn't deform in the direction of stress.

    • C.

      It's porous.

    • D.

      It's moldable.

    Correct Answer
    B. It doesn't deform in the direction of stress.
    Explanation
    Leather is a material that can deform in the direction of stress, which means that it can change its shape when subjected to pressure or tension. This is one of the desirable qualities of leather, as it allows it to conform to the shape of the wearer or the object it is used on. Therefore, the statement "It doesn't deform in the direction of stress" is false.

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  • 8. 

    If you patient is a candidate for an orthosis and your goals are both motion control & shock absorption, which would you choose?

    • A.

      Rigid

    • B.

      Semi-rigid

    • C.

      Soft

    Correct Answer
    B. Semi-rigid
    Explanation
    A semi-rigid orthosis would be the ideal choice for a patient who requires both motion control and shock absorption. This type of orthosis provides a balance between rigidity and flexibility, allowing for controlled motion while still providing some level of shock absorption. A rigid orthosis would provide maximum motion control but may not offer sufficient shock absorption, while a soft orthosis would provide good shock absorption but may not provide enough motion control. Therefore, the semi-rigid orthosis would be the most suitable option in this case.

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  • 9. 

    Please select the statement that is false concerning stress and strain.

    • A.

      Stress is force over tissue surface area.

    • B.

      Strain is the tissue's change in shape when stress is applied

    • C.

      The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more ductile the material.

    • D.

      The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more brittle the material.

    Correct Answer
    C. The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more ductile the material.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more brittle the material." This statement is false because a steeper stress/strain curve indicates a more ductile material, not a more brittle one. Ductile materials can undergo significant deformation before breaking, while brittle materials tend to fracture without significant deformation. Therefore, a steeper stress/strain curve is associated with higher ductility, not brittleness.

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  • 10. 

    Your patient has a leg length difference of 1/10 of inch, L shorter than R. What would be appropriate?

    • A.

      Elevate the sole on the L

    • B.

      Elevate the heel on the L

    • C.

      Wedge the heel laterally

    • D.

      Wedge the heel medially

    Correct Answer
    B. Elevate the heel on the L
    Explanation
    Elevating the heel on the shorter leg would be appropriate in this case. By elevating the heel, the height of the shorter leg can be increased, helping to correct the leg length difference. This can help improve balance and reduce any discomfort or issues caused by the leg length difference.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is NOT a rule to follow when posting?

    • A.

      For every one degree of posting, there will be one mm of lift.

    • B.

      The FF can tolerate higher posting than the RF.

    • C.

      If > 12 degrees, divide posting between RF and FF.

    • D.

      If 6* or less, post 90-100% of the deformity.

    Correct Answer
    C. If > 12 degrees, divide posting between RF and FF.
    Explanation
    The given statement states that if the degree of posting is greater than 12, the posting should be divided between the RF and FF. However, the question asks for the option that is NOT a rule to follow when posting. Therefore, the correct answer is "If > 12 degrees, divide posting between RF and FF" because it contradicts the rule of dividing the posting when the degree is greater than 12.

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  • 12. 

    You have a patient who has too much pronation during gait. You decide to modify their heel to decrease pronation. What should you do?

    • A.

      Bevel the lateral heel.

    • B.

      Flare the lateral heel.

    • C.

      Bevel the posterior heel.

    • D.

      Flare the posterior heel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bevel the lateral heel.
    Explanation
    When a patient has excessive pronation during gait, it means that their foot rolls inward excessively, causing instability and potential pain. To address this issue, modifying the heel can help decrease pronation. Beveling the lateral heel involves creating a slanted edge on the outer side of the heel, which helps to encourage the foot to roll outward slightly during gait. This adjustment can help to correct the patient's pronation and promote a more stable and aligned gait pattern. Flaring the lateral or posterior heel would not directly address the issue of pronation and may not provide the desired corrective effect.

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  • 13. 

    Which statement is true concerning the subtalar joint?

    • A.

      In the open kinetic chain, movement occurs both distal and proximal to the STJ axis.

    • B.

      CKC pronation is calcaneal eversion and talar adduction/PF.

    • C.

      OKC pronation is calcaneal eversion, adduction, and DF.

    • D.

      Pronation causes varus stresses at the knee.

    Correct Answer
    B. CKC pronation is calcaneal eversion and talar adduction/PF.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that in closed kinetic chain (CKC) pronation, the subtalar joint (STJ) undergoes calcaneal eversion and talar adduction/plantarflexion (PF). This means that during CKC pronation, the heel bone (calcaneus) moves towards the midline of the body (adduction) and the foot points downwards (plantarflexion). This is the correct statement concerning the subtalar joint.

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  • 14. 

    According to Glasoe, if you apply a dorsal force to the 1st met head and it doesn't move, it would be classified as:

    • A.

      Hypermobile

    • B.

      Hypomobile

    • C.

      Normal

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypomobile
    Explanation
    If you apply a dorsal force to the 1st met head and it doesn't move, it would be classified as hypomobile. This means that there is a restriction in the movement of the 1st met head and it is not able to move as freely as it should.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is false regarding the balance foot theory?

    • A.

      That the foot must be in neutral position to be balance.

    • B.

      Neutral position is a position of neither supination or pronation.

    • C.

      FF and RF deformities do not affect alignment.

    • D.

      We must check STJ neutral and PROM and post depending upon what we see in NWB.

    Correct Answer
    C. FF and RF deformities do not affect alignment.
    Explanation
    The balance foot theory states that the foot must be in a neutral position, which means neither supination nor pronation, in order to maintain balance. This is true and aligns with the statement that "Neutral position is a position of neither supination or pronation." However, the statement that "FF and RF deformities do not affect alignment" is false. Deformities in the forefoot (FF) and rearfoot (RF) can indeed affect the alignment of the foot. Therefore, the given answer is correct.

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  • 16. 

    The total contact theory states that:

    • A.

      Orthotic effectiveness is due to muscular response changes, not changes in joint alignment.

    • B.

      Orthotic devices should provide total surface contact to medial longitudinal arch and be dynamic.

    • C.

      THe foot should be in a neutral alignment and deformities should be corrected.

    Correct Answer
    B. Orthotic devices should provide total surface contact to medial longitudinal arch and be dynamic.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that orthotic devices should provide total surface contact to the medial longitudinal arch and be dynamic. This means that the orthotic should cover the entire arch of the foot and should be able to move and adapt to the foot's movement during walking or running. This is important because the total contact and dynamic nature of the orthotic helps to distribute forces evenly across the foot, providing support and stability. It also allows for natural movement and helps to prevent excessive pronation or supination.

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  • 17. 

    Which is not a theory of the neuromuscular response theory?

    • A.

      Altered muscle activation

    • B.

      Altered sensory input

    • C.

      Controlled motion by changing joint alignment

    • D.

      Muscle response is changed

    Correct Answer
    C. Controlled motion by changing joint alignment
    Explanation
    The theory of controlled motion by changing joint alignment is not a theory of the neuromuscular response. The other options, altered muscle activation, altered sensory input, and muscle response is changed, are all theories that explain how the neuromuscular system responds and adapts to different stimuli and conditions. However, controlled motion by changing joint alignment is not a commonly recognized theory in the field of neuromuscular response.

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  • 18. 

    The primary purpose of an accomodative orthosis is to control movement.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An accommodative orthosis is not primarily used to control movement but rather to provide support, relieve pressure, and protect a body part. It is designed to accommodate the shape and function of the body part it is intended for, such as a foot or hand. While it may have some effect on movement, its main purpose is to provide comfort and prevent further injury or damage.

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  • 19. 

    A callus on the 5th met head would indicate a supinated foot.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A callus on the 5th met head indicates a supinated foot because the 5th met head is located on the outer edge of the foot, and supination refers to the outward rolling of the foot during walking or running. This causes excess pressure on the outer edge of the foot, leading to the formation of a callus in that area. Therefore, if there is a callus on the 5th met head, it suggests that the foot is in a supinated position.

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  • 20. 

    A straight last is better for a pronator.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A straight last is better for a pronator because it provides more stability and support to the foot. Pronation is the natural inward rolling motion of the foot during walking or running, and it can lead to overpronation if not properly supported. A straight last shoe, with a straight shape from the heel to the toe, helps to align the foot and prevent excessive inward rolling. This type of shoe is designed to control pronation and provide the necessary support for pronators, making it a better choice for them.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following static measurements is not correlated with pronation during gait?

    • A.

      RCSP

    • B.

      SLS RCSP

    • C.

      Tibial rotation

    • D.

      Navicular position

    • E.

      STJ neutral

    Correct Answer
    E. STJ neutral
    Explanation
    STJ neutral refers to subtalar joint neutral position, which is the position of the foot where there is neither overpronation nor supination. Pronation is the inward rolling of the foot during gait, so it makes sense that STJ neutral is not correlated with pronation. The other options, RCSP (rearfoot calcaneal stance position), SLS RCSP (single-leg stance rearfoot calcaneal stance position), tibial rotation, and navicular position, are all static measurements that can be influenced by pronation during gait.

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  • 22. 

    Permanent orthotic devices last 5 years, on average.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Permanent orthotic devices do not last 5 years, on average.

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  • 23. 

    Which is not a clinical application of creep?

    • A.

      Spasticity

    • B.

      Hypotonia

    • C.

      Joint Contracture

    • D.

      Elongatin

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypotonia
    Explanation
    Hypotonia is not a clinical application of creep. Creep is a phenomenon where tissues gradually deform under constant stress over time. In the context of clinical applications, creep is commonly used to treat conditions such as spasticity, joint contracture, and elongation. Spasticity refers to the involuntary muscle contractions that can be relieved through creep therapy. Joint contracture involves the permanent shortening of muscles and tendons, which can be counteracted by applying creep stress. Elongation, on the other hand, involves the gradual stretching of tissues to increase their length. However, hypotonia refers to low muscle tone and is not typically treated using creep therapy.

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  • 24. 

    Functional foot orthoses can range from semi-rigid to rigid,

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Functional foot orthoses can range from semi-rigid to rigid, meaning that they can vary in their level of stiffness and support. This allows for customization based on the individual's specific needs and foot conditions. Some individuals may require a more flexible orthotic to provide moderate support and cushioning, while others may benefit from a rigid orthotic that offers maximum stability and control. The range of options ensures that functional foot orthoses can be tailored to effectively address a wide range of foot and lower limb issues.

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  • 25. 

    At the midtarsal joint, there are two axes. During pronation, the axes _____. This allows the foot to become __________.

    • A.

      Converge, mobile

    • B.

      Converge, rigid

    • C.

      Are parallel, mobile

    • D.

      Are parallel, rigid

    Correct Answer
    C. Are parallel, mobile
    Explanation
    At the midtarsal joint, the axes are parallel during pronation. This allows the foot to become mobile, meaning it has the ability to move and adapt to different surfaces and positions.

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  • 26. 

    A lateral heel wedge would cause valgus at the knee. Therefore, it would be good for someone who has medial compression.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A lateral heel wedge is a type of orthotic device that is placed on the outer side of the shoe to provide support and stability. By elevating the lateral side of the foot, it helps to shift the weight towards the inside of the foot, causing the knee to move towards a valgus position. This can be beneficial for individuals who have medial compression, as it helps to alleviate the pressure on the inner side of the knee joint. Therefore, the statement that a lateral heel wedge would cause valgus at the knee and be good for someone with medial compression is true.

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  • 27. 

    Which of Newton's laws do we use most when manufacturing orthotic devices?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    Correct Answer
    C. III
    Explanation
    We use Newton's third law most when manufacturing orthotic devices. This law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In the context of orthotic devices, this means that the forces exerted by the device on the body are countered by equal and opposite forces exerted by the body on the device. This law is crucial in ensuring that the orthotic device provides the necessary support and stability to the body.

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  • Current Version
  • Aug 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 20, 2009
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    Jen
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