Prosthetics & Orthotics 1

27 Questions

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Medicine Quizzes & Trivia

In medicine, a prosthesis is an artificial device that is used to replace a missing body part. An orthosis is an externally applied device used to modify the structural characteristics of the skeletal system. What do you know about them?


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following plastics is commonly used as a topcover?
    • A. 

      Plastizote

    • B. 

      Polyethylene

    • C. 

      Orfilite

    • D. 

      Ppt

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Creep

    • B. 

      Viscoelasticity

    • C. 

      Malleability

    • D. 

      Hysteresis

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Soft; medial post

    • B. 

      Soft; lateral post

    • C. 

      Rigid; medial post

    • D. 

      Rigid: lateral post

  • 4. 
    You are seeing a patient who has a compensated rearfoot varus. Which would be appropriate?
    • A. 

      Rigid, medial post

    • B. 

      Rigid, lateral post

    • C. 

      Soft, medial post

    • D. 

      Soft, lateral post

  • 5. 
    What type of plastic is plastizote?
    • A. 

      Low temp thermoplastic

    • B. 

      High temp thermoplastic

    • C. 

      Closed cell polyethylene foam

    • D. 

      Polypropylene

    • E. 

      Open cell polyethylene foam

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Polypropylene

    • B. 

      Polyethylene

    • C. 

      Transpolyisoprene

    • D. 

      Polycapriolactone

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      It doesn't breathe.

    • B. 

      It doesn't deform in the direction of stress.

    • C. 

      It's porous.

    • D. 

      It's moldable.

  • 8. 
    If you patient is a candidate for an orthosis and your goals are both motion control & shock absorption, which would you choose?
    • A. 

      Rigid

    • B. 

      Semi-rigid

    • C. 

      Soft

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Stress is force over tissue surface area.

    • B. 

      Strain is the tissue's change in shape when stress is applied

    • C. 

      The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more ductile the material.

    • D. 

      The steeper the stress/strain curve, the more brittle the material.

  • 10. 
    Your patient has a leg length difference of 1/10 of inch, L shorter than R. What would be appropriate?
    • A. 

      Elevate the sole on the L

    • B. 

      Elevate the heel on the L

    • C. 

      Wedge the heel laterally

    • D. 

      Wedge the heel medially

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      For every one degree of posting, there will be one mm of lift.

    • B. 

      The FF can tolerate higher posting than the RF.

    • C. 

      If > 12 degrees, divide posting between RF and FF.

    • D. 

      If 6* or less, post 90-100% of the deformity.

  • 12. 
    You have a patient who has too much pronation during gait. You decide to modify their heel to decrease pronation. What should you do?
    • A. 

      Bevel the lateral heel.

    • B. 

      Flare the lateral heel.

    • C. 

      Bevel the posterior heel.

    • D. 

      Flare the posterior heel.

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      In the open kinetic chain, movement occurs both distal and proximal to the STJ axis.

    • B. 

      CKC pronation is calcaneal eversion and talar adduction/PF.

    • C. 

      OKC pronation is calcaneal eversion, adduction, and DF.

    • D. 

      Pronation causes varus stresses at the knee.

  • 14. 
    According to Glasoe, if you apply a dorsal force to the 1st met head and it doesn't move, it would be classified as:
    • A. 

      Hypermobile

    • B. 

      Hypomobile

    • C. 

      Normal

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      That the foot must be in neutral position to be balance.

    • B. 

      Neutral position is a position of neither supination or pronation.

    • C. 

      FF and RF deformities do not affect alignment.

    • D. 

      We must check STJ neutral and PROM and post depending upon what we see in NWB.

  • 16. 
    The total contact theory states that:
    • A. 

      Orthotic effectiveness is due to muscular response changes, not changes in joint alignment.

    • B. 

      Orthotic devices should provide total surface contact to medial longitudinal arch and be dynamic.

    • C. 

      THe foot should be in a neutral alignment and deformities should be corrected.

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Altered muscle activation

    • B. 

      Altered sensory input

    • C. 

      Controlled motion by changing joint alignment

    • D. 

      Muscle response is changed

  • 18. 
    The primary purpose of an accomodative orthosis is to control movement.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    A callus on the 5th met head would indicate a supinated foot.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    A straight last is better for a pronator.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    Which of the following static measurements is not correlated with pronation during gait?
    • A. 

      RCSP

    • B. 

      SLS RCSP

    • C. 

      Tibial rotation

    • D. 

      Navicular position

    • E. 

      STJ neutral

  • 22. 
    Permanent orthotic devices last 5 years, on average.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Which is not a clinical application of creep?
    • A. 

      Spasticity

    • B. 

      Hypotonia

    • C. 

      Joint Contracture

    • D. 

      Elongatin

  • 24. 
    Functional foot orthoses can range from semi-rigid to rigid,
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    At the midtarsal joint, there are two axes. During pronation, the axes _____. This allows the foot to become __________.
    • A. 

      Converge, mobile

    • B. 

      Converge, rigid

    • C. 

      Are parallel, mobile

    • D. 

      Are parallel, rigid

  • 26. 
    A lateral heel wedge would cause valgus at the knee. Therefore, it would be good for someone who has medial compression.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    Which of Newton's laws do we use most when manufacturing orthotic devices?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III