US Medical Device Regulations Quiz

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US Medical Device Regulations Quiz - Quiz

Do you live in the US and are related to the medical field? If yes, this US medical device regulations quiz will be very helpful to you. The Medical Device Regulation (MDR) works on the legal framework for medical devices and introduces new principal and supportive responsibilities in the assessment of certain categories of products. These questions will expand your knowledge in terms of medical device regulations and how they work. Let's go!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A company wants to modify its device such that there is a major change to the fundamental scientific technology of the device. The FDA has published guidance on this technology, and special controls have been established. This change would be best filed as a(n):

    • A.

      Special 510(k)

    • B.

      Abbreviated 510(k)

    • C.

      Traditional 510(k)

    • D.

      PMA

    Correct Answer
    C. Traditional 510(k)
    Explanation
    A traditional 510(k) submission is required when there is a major change to the fundamental scientific technology of a device, and the FDA has published guidance on this technology with established special controls. This type of submission is used for modifications to existing devices that do not require a premarket approval (PMA) application. It allows the company to demonstrate that the modified device is as safe and effective as the original device, using appropriate testing and data.

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  • 2. 

    A defective product was released into distribution and has caused patient injuries. The patients were treated in a local hospital and may suffer further reversible medical consequences as a result of the defective product. If this product is recalled from the market, which of the following recall classifications would most likely be assigned?

    • A.

      Class I

    • B.

      Class II

    • C.

      Class III

    • D.

      Class IV

    Correct Answer
    B. Class II
    Explanation
    If the defective product has caused patient injuries and there is a possibility of further reversible medical consequences, it indicates a moderate level of risk. Class II recall classification is typically assigned when a product may cause temporary or medically reversible health consequences, but the probability of serious adverse effects is low. Therefore, Class II recall classification would most likely be assigned in this scenario.

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  • 3. 

    A legally marketed device to which equivalence is drawn in a premarketing submission is known as the:

    • A.

      Market comparator device

    • B.

      Placebo device

    • C.

      Predicate device

    • D.

      Substantially equivalent device

    Correct Answer
    C. Predicate device
    Explanation
    A legally marketed device to which equivalence is drawn in a premarketing submission is known as the predicate device. In the context of medical devices, a predicate device is an existing device that is used as a reference for demonstrating the safety and effectiveness of a new device seeking approval. By comparing the new device to the predicate device, manufacturers can show that their product is substantially equivalent and meets the necessary regulatory requirements for market approval.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following phrases describes a device that is not regulated as a medical device by FDA?  A device that:

    • A.

      Affects the structure of the human body.

    • B.

      Cures or prevents disease in humans or animals.

    • C.

      Achieves its effect through chemical action on the human body.

    • D.

      Is recognized by the United States Pharmacopoeia.

    Correct Answer
    C. Achieves its effect through chemical action on the human body.
  • 5. 

    Which of the following is included in the “General Controls” provisions by FDA?

    • A.

      FDA guidance documents

    • B.

      Patient registries

    • C.

      Misbranding

    • D.

      Performance standards

    Correct Answer
    C. Misbranding
    Explanation
    Misbranding is included in the "General Controls" provisions by FDA. Misbranding refers to the act of labeling a product in a false or misleading manner, which includes false claims about its effectiveness or safety. The FDA regulates misbranding to protect consumers from deceptive practices and ensure that products are accurately labeled. This control is important for maintaining the integrity of the healthcare industry and safeguarding public health.

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  • 6. 

    All of the following regulations were  authorized by the Medical Device Amendments of 1976 except:

    • A.

      Good manufacturing practices

    • B.

      Substantial equivalence

    • C.

      Clinical study requirements

    • D.

      Design controls

    Correct Answer
    D. Design controls
    Explanation
    The Medical Device Amendments of 1976 authorized the implementation of various regulations to ensure the safety and effectiveness of medical devices. Good manufacturing practices, substantial equivalence, and clinical study requirements were all regulations that were authorized by these amendments. However, design controls were not specifically mentioned or authorized by the Medical Device Amendments of 1976. Therefore, design controls are the correct answer as they were not included in the list of regulations authorized by the amendments.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following descriptors is most helpful in narrowing a search for a known device using FDA’s classification database?

    • A.

      Regulation number

    • B.

      Product code

    • C.

      Classification

    • D.

      Submission type (regulatory pathway)

    Correct Answer
    B. Product code
    Explanation
    The product code is the most helpful descriptor in narrowing a search for a known device using FDA's classification database. This is because the product code is a specific code assigned to each type of medical device, allowing for a more targeted search. The regulation number, classification, and submission type may provide some information, but they are not as specific as the product code in identifying a particular device.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following statements is true about FDA premarket submissions?

    • A.

      FDA usually inspects a manufacturer’s facility prior to granting 510(k) clearance.

    • B.

      FDA requires clinical data with all 510(k) submissions.

    • C.

      All class II devices require 510(k) clearance.

    • D.

      The de novo pathway provides a route to 510(k) clearance for low and moderate-risk new devices.

    Correct Answer
    D. The de novo pathway provides a route to 510(k) clearance for low and moderate-risk new devices.
    Explanation
    The de novo pathway is a regulatory pathway established by the FDA that allows for the classification of low to moderate-risk new devices that do not have a predicate device to be cleared through the 510(k) process. This means that these devices can be cleared for marketing without the need for clinical data. This statement is true because it accurately describes the purpose and function of the de novo pathway in FDA premarket submissions.

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  • 9. 

    During which phase of the medical device life cycle are clinical studies typically conducted to generate data to support premarket submissions?

    • A.

      Feasibility

    • B.

      Product Development

    • C.

      Product Validation

    • D.

      Product Verification

    Correct Answer
    C. Product Validation
    Explanation
    Clinical studies are typically conducted during the Product Validation phase of the medical device life cycle. This phase involves testing the device in a real-world setting to gather data on its safety and effectiveness. The purpose of these studies is to generate the necessary evidence to support premarket submissions, such as FDA approval or CE marking. These studies often involve human subjects and aim to demonstrate that the device meets the intended purpose and performs as intended.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is not true about the Quality System Regulation?

    • A.

      Design reviews and/or phase reviews are required prior to market launch.

    • B.

      Manufacturers must monitor the performance of their devices following the market launch and make corrections as needed.

    • C.

      Changes to design input after market launch require FDA approval.

    • D.

      Clinical studies should be conducted with prototypes manufactured using methods and procedures expected to be used for ongoing production.

    Correct Answer
    C. Changes to design input after market launch require FDA approval.
    Explanation
    The Quality System Regulation requires design reviews and/or phase reviews prior to market launch, manufacturers to monitor the performance of their devices after market launch, and clinical studies to be conducted with prototypes manufactured using methods and procedures expected to be used for ongoing production. However, changes to design input after market launch do not require FDA approval.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following options can reduce the time required to obtain FDA clearance or approval?

    • A.

      Pay FDA a User fee.

    • B.

      Submit a 510(k) application to a third-party reviewer.

    • C.

      Complete the facility registration and device listing prior to 510(k) submission.

    • D.

      Include a cost-effectiveness analysis with the 510(k) submission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Submit a 510(k) application to a third-party reviewer.
    Explanation
    Submitting a 510(k) application to a third-party reviewer can reduce the time required to obtain FDA clearance or approval. Third-party reviewers are authorized by the FDA to review and provide feedback on 510(k) submissions. By using a third-party reviewer, the review process can be expedited as they have expertise in evaluating medical devices and can provide a more efficient and timely assessment compared to the FDA. This can help in accelerating the overall approval process and reduce the time required to obtain FDA clearance or approval.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is not required by FDA prior to conducting a nonsignificant risk clinical study?

    • A.

      Study protocol

    • B.

      Investigational Device Exemption approval

    • C.

      Informed consent

    • D.

      Institutional Review Board approval

    Correct Answer
    B. Investigational Device Exemption approval
    Explanation
    Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) approval is not required by the FDA prior to conducting a nonsignificant risk clinical study. FDA regulations state that an IDE is only necessary for significant risk studies involving investigational devices. In a nonsignificant risk study, the device being used is already FDA-approved or is being used in accordance with its approved labeling, and therefore does not require IDE approval. However, other requirements such as a study protocol, informed consent, and Institutional Review Board (IRB) approval are still necessary for conducting the study.

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  • 13. 

    Under the Quality System Regulation, management is responsible for all of the following activities except:

    • A.

      Establishing a quality policy for the company

    • B.

      Periodically reviewing quality control procedures.

    • C.

      Providing IRB approval

    • D.

      Hiring and training necessary quality assurance staff

    Correct Answer
    C. Providing IRB approval
    Explanation
    Under the Quality System Regulation, management is responsible for establishing a quality policy for the company, periodically reviewing quality control procedures, and hiring and training necessary quality assurance staff. However, providing IRB (Institutional Review Board) approval is not a responsibility of management under the Quality System Regulation. IRB approval is typically required for research involving human subjects and is the responsibility of the IRB itself, not management.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following activities is regulated by FDA during the Feasibility Phase?

    • A.

      Conducting laboratory studies to understand new technologies

    • B.

      Changing design input requirements

    • C.

      Building non-clinical prototype devices

    • D.

      Collecting human study data

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting human study data
    Explanation
    During the Feasibility Phase, the FDA regulates the collection of human study data. This is because the FDA wants to ensure that any data collected during this phase is done so in a safe and ethical manner. Collecting human study data involves gathering information from human participants, which may include things like medical history, physical examinations, and other relevant data. The FDA wants to ensure that this data collection process is conducted in accordance with their guidelines to protect the rights and safety of the participants.

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  • 15. 

    Product development projects should follow Design Controls procedures in all of the following situations except:

    • A.

      During testing in support of future human studies

    • B.

      Upon deciding to develop a commercial product and approving product requirements (design input)

    • C.

      During studies to demonstrate proof of concept.

    • D.

      While validating a manufacturing process

    Correct Answer
    C. During studies to demonstrate proof of concept.
    Explanation
    During studies to demonstrate proof of concept, design controls procedures may not be necessary as the main goal is to determine the feasibility and viability of the concept rather than developing a commercial product. Design controls procedures are typically followed when there is a need to ensure that the product meets the intended requirements and is safe and effective for its intended use. However, in this particular situation, where the focus is on demonstrating proof of concept rather than developing a commercial product, design controls procedures may not be required.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following does FDA consider to be one of the most important Design Controls related activities?

    • A.

      Risk analysis

    • B.

      Validation testing

    • C.

      Design reviews

    • D.

      Design input

    Correct Answer
    D. Design input
    Explanation
    Design input is considered to be one of the most important Design Controls related activities by the FDA. Design input refers to the requirements and specifications that are defined for a medical device. It includes the intended use, performance characteristics, and user needs. Design input is crucial in ensuring that the final product meets the necessary safety and effectiveness requirements. It serves as the foundation for the entire design and development process, guiding the creation of the device. By prioritizing design input, the FDA emphasizes the importance of clearly defining and documenting the requirements for a medical device before proceeding with its design and development.

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  • 17. 

    The Design History File is used for all of the following purposes, except:

    • A.

      Providing evidence that the Design Controls procedures were followed

    • B.

      Recording results of clinical trials

    • C.

      Archiving results of customer complaints

    • D.

      Documenting verification of sterilization testing

    Correct Answer
    C. Archiving results of customer complaints
    Explanation
    The Design History File is a comprehensive record of the design history and development process of a medical device. It is used to provide evidence that the Design Controls procedures were followed, record the results of clinical trials, and document verification of sterilization testing. However, archiving results of customer complaints is not one of the purposes of the Design History File. Customer complaints are typically documented separately in a Complaints File or a similar system to track and address any issues raised by customers.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements is false about clinical studies involving investigational devices?

    • A.

      Study results can be used to establish device safety.

    • B.

      Institutional Review Board approval is required before starting a study.

    • C.

      Studies can be used to evaluate device concepts and refine a study protocol.

    • D.

      Study data can be used to manage patient care.

    Correct Answer
    D. Study data can be used to manage patient care.
    Explanation
    Clinical studies involving investigational devices are not intended to manage patient care. The purpose of these studies is to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the device being investigated. Study results can indeed be used to establish device safety, and institutional review board (IRB) approval is required before starting a study to ensure ethical considerations are met. Additionally, studies can be used to evaluate device concepts and refine study protocols. However, the primary focus of clinical studies involving investigational devices is not to manage patient care but to gather data for regulatory approval and to inform future medical practice.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following activities may not be required for design changes to an FDA-cleared or approved device?

    • A.

      Document the change in the Device Master Record

    • B.

      Obtain FDA approval before implementing the change

    • C.

      Verify or validate the change before implementing

    • D.

      Review and approve the change according to an established design change procedure

    Correct Answer
    B. Obtain FDA approval before implementing the change
    Explanation
    Obtaining FDA approval before implementing the change may not be required for design changes to an FDA-cleared or approved device. This is because design changes that are considered minor and do not affect the safety or effectiveness of the device may not require FDA approval. However, it is important to document the change in the Device Master Record, verify or validate the change before implementing, and review and approve the change according to an established design change procedure to ensure compliance with regulations and maintain the quality of the device.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is false regarding Corrective and Preventive Action procedures:

    • A.

      Corrective and Preventive Action procedures are used during clinical studies to collect adverse effects information.

    • B.

      Corrective and Preventive Action deficiencies are one of the most frequently cited problems in FDA warning letters to manufacturers.

    • C.

      Corrective and Preventive Action procedures involve investigating potential product quality problems.

    • D.

      Changes identified as part of the Corrective and Preventive Action procedures should be verified or validated before implementation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Corrective and Preventive Action procedures are used during clinical studies to collect adverse effects information.

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  • Current Version
  • Aug 26, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 06, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    CERSI
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