Pqg4 Part 1 Of 4

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1. A caesarian section might be indicated for all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

A caesarian section might be indicated for all of the given conditions except for full effacement and dilation of the cervix. Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a situation where the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. Prolonged labor can be a sign of distress for the baby or the mother, and a caesarian section may be necessary to ensure a safe delivery. A transverse lie of the baby means that the baby is positioned sideways in the uterus, making a vaginal delivery difficult or impossible. However, full effacement and dilation of the cervix indicate that the mother's body is ready for a vaginal delivery and a caesarian section is not necessary.

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About This Quiz
Physical Therapy Quizzes & Trivia

PQG4 Part 1 of 4 focuses on scenarios and treatments in physical therapy, assessing skills in handling diverse patient conditions such as spina bifida, shoulder dislocation, ACL insufficiency,... see moreand infection control. It's crucial for professional development and ensuring consistent therapeutic outcomes. see less

2. A 14 year-old girl presents with a twenty degree left thoracic scoliotic curvature.  All of the following are appropriate immediate forms of treatment EXCEPT

Explanation

Surgical intervention is not an appropriate immediate form of treatment for a 14-year-old girl with a twenty-degree left thoracic scoliotic curvature. In most cases, surgical intervention is considered when the curvature progresses beyond a certain degree (usually 40-50 degrees) or when other conservative treatments have failed to halt the progression of the curve. At this stage, the curvature can still be effectively managed with the use of corset/bracing, postural exercises, and deep breathing techniques.

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3. A physical therapist receives an order for lumbar traction on a 61 year-old female diagnosed with chronic lumbar pain.  During the history the patient states that she sustained a compression fracture at the L4 level three months ago.  Recognizing that an unstable spine is a contraindication to lumbar traction you decide to

Explanation

The correct answer is to contact the physician and discuss your concerns about the treatment orders. This is because the patient has a history of a compression fracture, which indicates an unstable spine. Lumbar traction is contraindicated in patients with an unstable spine, so it is important to communicate with the physician to ensure the appropriate treatment plan is followed.

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4. Physical therapy clinics should have a detailed infection control program.  Which of the following is not an example of effective infection control?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Employees shall purchase, maintain, repair and launder their personal protective clothing." This is not an example of effective infection control because it puts the responsibility solely on the employees to purchase and maintain their own protective clothing. In an effective infection control program, the responsibility for providing and maintaining protective clothing should lie with the employer or the clinic.

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5. A physical therapist is conducting an initial evaluation on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease.  Which of the following clinical findings would you expect the therapist to identify?

Explanation

In a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, cogwheel rigidity is a common clinical finding that a physical therapist would expect to identify during an initial evaluation. Cogwheel rigidity refers to a jerky resistance to passive movement in the muscles, which is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. This finding is caused by a combination of muscular stiffness and tremors, which can significantly impact a patient's mobility and movement control. Therefore, it is crucial for a physical therapist to assess and address cogwheel rigidity in order to develop an appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

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6. A fracture of the femoral neck which disrupts the blood supply causing the femur to degenerate is termed

Explanation

Aseptic necrosis refers to the death of bone tissue due to interruption of blood supply. In the given question, it is stated that a fracture of the femoral neck disrupts the blood supply, leading to degeneration of the femur. This aligns with the definition of aseptic necrosis, making it the correct answer. Congenital dislocating hip refers to a condition present at birth where the hip joint is partially or completely dislocated. Hip pointer is a term used to describe a bruise or contusion on the hip bone. Myositis ossificans is the formation of bone tissue within muscle due to trauma or injury.

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7. When two therapists get drastically different manual muscle testing results on the same patient it is an example of poor

Explanation

When two therapists get drastically different manual muscle testing results on the same patient, it indicates poor interrater reliability. Interrater reliability refers to the consistency and agreement between different raters or observers when measuring the same phenomenon. In this case, the therapists' inconsistent results suggest that there is a lack of agreement or consistency between them when performing the muscle testing, highlighting poor interrater reliability.

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8. A high school basketball player is treated in physical therapy after spraining her ankle.  Palpation reveals an extremely painful area extending from the anterior portion of the lateral malleolus to the lateral aspect of the talar neck.  The ligament most likely associated with the discomfort is the

Explanation

The correct answer is the anterior talofibular ligament. The description of the painful area extending from the anterior portion of the lateral malleolus to the lateral aspect of the talar neck suggests an injury to the ligament on the front and outside of the ankle. The anterior talofibular ligament is located in this area and is commonly injured in ankle sprains.

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9. Mobilization is often indicated with a loss of accessory joint movement.  It is however important to determine the exact cause for the loss of accessory motion.  Which of the following would be an acceptable condition for joint mobilization?

Explanation

An acceptable condition for joint mobilization would be capsuloligamentous adherence. This refers to a condition where the joint capsule and ligaments become adhered or stuck together, limiting the normal movement of the joint. Mobilization techniques can help to break up the adhesions and restore proper joint movement. Internal derangement refers to structural abnormalities within the joint, reflex muscle guarding is a protective response where muscles tighten to protect a joint from further injury, and bony blockage refers to an obstruction caused by bone growth or fracture that restricts joint movement.

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10. If the radial nerve is severed above the origin of the triceps muscle, what motion of the elbow joint is impossible?

Explanation

If the radial nerve is severed above the origin of the triceps muscle, extension of the elbow joint would be impossible. The radial nerve innervates the triceps muscle, which is responsible for extending the elbow joint. Therefore, if the nerve is severed above the point of origin, the triceps muscle would be paralyzed and unable to contract, resulting in the inability to extend the elbow joint.

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11. A patient diagnosed with an incomplete spinal cord lesion that presents with muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral side of the lesion and a loss of pain, temperature and sensitivity on the contralateral side of the lesion describes

Explanation

Brown-Sequard syndrome is a neurological condition characterized by an incomplete spinal cord lesion. It is caused by damage to one side of the spinal cord, resulting in muscle paralysis on the same side (ipsilateral) as the lesion. Additionally, there is a loss of pain, temperature, and sensitivity on the opposite side (contralateral) of the lesion. This pattern of symptoms is due to the crossing of sensory and motor fibers in the spinal cord. Other options, such as Steinert's disease, central cord syndrome, and anterior spinal artery syndrome, do not match the specific symptoms described in the question.

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12. A home visit is performed for a patient who resides alone and is four weeks status post total hip replacement.  The patient is presently partial weight bearing on the affected side.  The most appropriate recommendations for the patient to increase safety in the bathroom are

Explanation

The patient is four weeks post total hip replacement and is currently partial weight bearing on the affected side. To increase safety in the bathroom, the most appropriate recommendations would be a raised toilet seat with rails, a tub bench, and a hand-held shower. These adaptations will provide support and stability for the patient while using the toilet and shower, reducing the risk of falls or injury. Grab bars in the shower and next to the toilet would also be beneficial in enhancing safety and preventing accidents. Hand rails for the toilet and a hand-held shower would not provide the same level of support and stability as the recommended options. The patient does not need to avoid showering altogether, but should use the appropriate adaptations to ensure safety.

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13. A cardiac rehabilitation phase I program should begin 3-6 days after the patient’s infarct and should consist of all of the following prior to discharge EXCEPT

Explanation

The correct answer is "progressive resistive exercise program for the upper and lower extremities." This is because a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program typically focuses on low-level exercises and activities to gradually increase the patient's activity level. Progressive resistive exercises, which involve using weights or resistance bands, are usually introduced in later phases of cardiac rehabilitation. The other options, such as monitoring heart rate and blood pressure during exercise, providing patient and family education, and conducting a submaximal low-level treadmill test, are all important components of a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program.

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14. Weakness in this muscle would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches.

Explanation

The latissimus dorsi is a large muscle in the back that helps with various movements of the upper body, including pulling and extending the arms. If there is weakness in the latissimus dorsi muscle, it would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches. This is because the latissimus dorsi is involved in the movement of the arms and shoulders, which are crucial for maintaining balance and stability while using crutches. Therefore, weakness in this muscle would significantly impair the ability to walk with crutches.

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15. According to the “Standards of Practice for Physical Therapy” as written by the American Physical Therapy Association, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT

Explanation

According to the "Standards of Practice for Physical Therapy," the physical therapist does not utilize subjective measures to establish a baseline at the time of the initial evaluation. Subjective measures refer to information provided by the patient, such as their symptoms, pain levels, and personal experiences. Instead, the physical therapist relies on objective measures, such as physical tests and assessments, to establish a baseline and evaluate the patient's condition.

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16. When is it appropriate to initiate an exercise program for a patient who has second degree burns over 27% of their body?

Explanation

It is appropriate to initiate an exercise program for a patient who has second-degree burns over 27% of their body immediately to tolerance. This means that as soon as the patient can tolerate exercise without excessive pain or discomfort, they should start with an exercise program. Starting early can help prevent muscle and joint stiffness, improve circulation, and promote overall healing. Waiting until wound healing is completed or until the patient experiences minimal pain may delay the recovery process and hinder rehabilitation.

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17. A physical therapist is treating a patient diagnosed with anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency.  The physician referral specifies closed kinetic chain rehabilitation.  Which exercise would not be appropriate based on the physician order?

Explanation

Based on the physician order for closed kinetic chain rehabilitation, exercises that involve weight-bearing and multiple joints are preferred. The stair machine, limited squats to 45 degrees, and walking backwards on a treadmill all involve weight-bearing and multiple joints, making them appropriate for closed kinetic chain rehabilitation. On the other hand, isokinetic knee extension and flexion exercises are typically performed in an open kinetic chain where the foot is not in contact with a surface. Therefore, isokinetic knee extension and flexion would not be appropriate based on the physician order for closed kinetic chain rehabilitation.

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18. All of the following can be used clinically in the treatment of a hemiplegic’s flaccid subluxed shoulder EXCEPT

Explanation

Progressive resistive exercises involve the use of resistance to strengthen muscles. In the case of a hemiplegic's flaccid subluxed shoulder, progressive resistive exercises may not be suitable as they can further destabilize the shoulder joint. Weight bearing/facilitation, functional electrical stimulation, and approximation are all techniques that can be used to treat a hemiplegic's flaccid subluxed shoulder by providing support, stimulation, and stability to the joint.

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19. A physical therapist is palpating along the lateral portion of the hamstring musculature.  The therapist continues to palpate the muscle to its tendinous attachment on the fibular head.  The hamstring muscle should be identified as the

Explanation

The correct answer is biceps femoris. In this scenario, the physical therapist is palpating along the lateral portion of the hamstring musculature and continues to palpate the muscle to its tendinous attachment on the fibular head. The biceps femoris is one of the muscles that make up the hamstring group and has a tendinous attachment on the fibular head. Therefore, it is the muscle that should be identified in this situation.

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20. In designing a wheelchair for a bilateral above knee amputee, the wheels should be moved in what direction?

Explanation

In designing a wheelchair for a bilateral above knee amputee, moving the wheels two inches backward would be the appropriate direction. This adjustment helps to ensure better stability and balance for the user, as it positions the center of gravity slightly further back. By moving the wheels backward, the wheelchair is less likely to tip forward and provides a more comfortable and secure seating position for the amputee.

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21. A physical therapist is treating a six month-old infant with spina bifida.  The infant suddenly begins to act strangely at the conclusion of the treatment session.  A primary survey reveals the infant is not breathing but does have a pulse.  The most immediate response would be to

Explanation

The most immediate response would be to begin mouth to mouth and nose breathing because the infant is not breathing but does have a pulse. This indicates that there is a problem with the infant's airway, and providing both mouth to mouth and nose breathing can help ensure that air is being delivered to the lungs effectively. This approach can help to restore the infant's breathing and oxygenation while waiting for further medical assistance.

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22. A therapist prepares to treat a patient in isolation by donning a mask.  Which of the following isolation categories would require the use of a mask?

Explanation

Respiratory isolation is the correct answer because it involves the prevention of transmission of respiratory droplets, which can occur through coughing, sneezing, or talking. Wearing a mask is necessary in this category to protect the therapist and prevent the spread of any respiratory infections to the patient. Strict isolation refers to the prevention of all types of infections, contact isolation focuses on preventing the spread of infections through direct contact, and enteric precautions are specifically for preventing the transmission of infections through the gastrointestinal tract.

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23. A 65 year-old female is referred to physical therapy two weeks after surgical repair of the rotator cuff.  Which of the following exercises would not be appropriate for the patient?

Explanation

Gentle manual resistive exercises would not be appropriate for the patient. After surgical repair of the rotator cuff, it is important to avoid excessive strain on the shoulder joint. Gentle manual resistive exercises involve applying external resistance to the shoulder, which could potentially cause further damage or strain to the healing tissues. Therefore, this exercise would not be suitable for the patient at this stage of their recovery.

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24. A study designed to determine if different therapists can be expected to measure an identical joint angle, on the same patient, and obtain similar results would be

Explanation

Intertester reliability refers to the consistency and agreement between different therapists when measuring the same joint angle on the same patient. This study aims to assess whether different therapists can obtain similar results when measuring an identical joint angle, indicating the reliability of the measurement across different testers. Intratester reliability, on the other hand, refers to the consistency and agreement within the same therapist when measuring the joint angle multiple times. Intertester validity and intratester validity are not relevant in this context as they pertain to the accuracy and appropriateness of the measurement in relation to a specific criterion or gold standard.

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25. Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve in the volar aspect of the wrist.  This syndrome may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve in the volar aspect of the wrist. This compression can be caused by various factors such as anterior dislocation of the lunate, tenosynovitis of the flexor tendons, and direct trauma. However, inflammation of the extensor retinaculum is not a known cause of carpal tunnel syndrome.

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26. What percentage of physical therapy students taking their state board examination would you expect to score within plus and minus one standard deviation of the mean?

Explanation

According to the empirical rule, approximately 68% of the data falls within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution. Therefore, we would expect that 68% of physical therapy students taking their state board examination would score within plus and minus one standard deviation of the mean.

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27. A physical therapist is evaluating a 15 year-old female distance runner for foot pain of unknown etiology.  As the therapist palpates along the medial aspect of the foot and ankle, she palpates the head of the first metatarsal bone and the metatarsophalangeal joint.  Immediately proximal to this she identifies the first cuneiform.  What large bony prominence would you expect the therapist to identify next if she continues to move in a proximal direction?

Explanation

If the therapist continues to move in a proximal direction, the next large bony prominence that she would expect to identify is the navicular bone. The navicular bone is located on the medial side of the foot, just proximal to the first cuneiform bone. It is one of the tarsal bones and plays a key role in maintaining the arch of the foot.

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28. A patient’s right shoulder is immobilized in a sling following a fall two days ago.  The referring physician indicates that x-rays of the involved shoulder were negative, however he expresses concern about the patient developing secondary upper extremity problems during the two-week immobilization period.  Which of the following activities would not be recommended during this two week period?

Explanation

Positioning the hand below the level of the heart when edema is noted in the hand would not be recommended during the two-week immobilization period. This position can increase swelling and fluid accumulation in the hand, which can worsen the edema. It is important to elevate the hand above the level of the heart to reduce swelling and promote proper circulation.

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29. A two year-old male with infectious meningitis is referred to physical therapy for respiratory therapy.  Which treatment precaution would not be accurate?

Explanation

Using only prone postural drainage positions would not be an accurate treatment precaution for a two year-old male with infectious meningitis referred to physical therapy for respiratory therapy. Prone postural drainage positions involve positioning the patient face down to facilitate drainage of secretions from the lungs. However, in this case, it is important to consider the patient's age and condition. The patient may not tolerate or benefit from being in a prone position for extended periods of time due to their young age and the potential discomfort caused by meningitis. Therefore, using only prone postural drainage positions may not be appropriate and other positions should be considered.

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30. A patient reports pain radiating down his posterior leg into the foot.  She also exhibits weakness in plantarflexion and an absent Achilles reflex.  What spinal level would you expect to be involved?

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described, including pain radiating down the posterior leg into the foot, weakness in plantarflexion, and an absent Achilles reflex, the spinal level that would most likely be involved is S1. The S1 spinal level is responsible for innervating the muscles involved in plantarflexion and the Achilles reflex. Therefore, the patient's symptoms suggest a problem at the S1 level.

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31. Which aquatic exercise would be the most effective in reducing tone in a spinal cord injured patient?

Explanation

Slow passive movements of the neck and upper extremities with the patient floating in supine would be the most effective aquatic exercise in reducing tone in a spinal cord injured patient. This exercise helps to stretch and relax the muscles, promoting flexibility and reducing spasticity. The buoyancy of the water provides support and reduces the impact on the joints, making it a safe and effective option for patients with limited mobility. Additionally, the supine position allows for better control and stability during the exercise.

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32. Rhythmic stabilization is a/an ______ technique that can be implemented to increase joint stability.

Explanation

Rhythmic stabilization is a technique that involves contracting and relaxing muscles around a joint in a rhythmic manner to increase joint stability. Isometric exercises, which involve static muscle contractions without joint movement, are commonly used in rhythmic stabilization to improve joint stability. Isotonic exercises involve dynamic muscle contractions with joint movement, isokinetic exercises involve muscle contractions at a constant speed, and eccentric exercises involve muscle lengthening while under tension. However, isometric exercises are specifically effective for enhancing joint stability in rhythmic stabilization.

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33. A manager is responsible for motivating staff members to take on the organization’s goals as their own goals.  Useful guidelines for a successful manager would include all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

The correct answer is maintaining morale with emphasis on productivity and revenue generated. This is because while maintaining morale is important for a successful manager, it is not directly related to productivity and revenue generation. The other options, such as managing by results, negotiating and maintaining mutual commitment to goals, and using performance appraisals for setting future goals, are all useful guidelines for a successful manager as they focus on achieving organizational goals and improving performance.

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34. A physical therapy treatment plan for a patient rehabilitation from an anterior shoulder dislocation includes progressive resistive exercises.  Which muscle groups should be emphasized during rehabilitation?

Explanation

During rehabilitation for an anterior shoulder dislocation, the emphasis should be on strengthening the adductors and internal rotators. This is because these muscle groups help stabilize the shoulder joint and prevent further dislocations. Strengthening the adductors helps in bringing the arm back towards the body, while strengthening the internal rotators helps in rotating the arm inward. By targeting these muscle groups, the patient can regain strength and stability in the shoulder joint, reducing the risk of future dislocations.

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35. Transverse friction massage is a valuable treatment technique in a variety of common musculoskeletal disorders.  Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the application technique of transverse friction massage?

Explanation

Transverse friction massage is a technique used in treating musculoskeletal disorders. It involves moving the skin back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the normal orientation of the fibers. A lubricant is used to prevent excessive skin friction, ensuring smooth movement and reducing discomfort. Fingers that are not directly involved in the massage are used to provide stabilization, improving control and accuracy. The rate of movement is typically 2-3 cycles per second and rhythmical, allowing for effective treatment.

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36. Ultrasound using the stationary technique is not recommended by most physical therapists because of all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

Ultrasound using the stationary technique is not recommended by most physical therapists because it is difficult for the therapist to hold the transducer in a fixed position for the duration of the treatment, the treatment area can only be as large as the radiating surface of the transducer, and the patient must be relaxed and not move the involved area during treatment. However, thermal effects are possible using the stationary technique, which means that it is not an exception for not recommending this technique.

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37. All of the following are used frequently by a physical therapist to treat temporomandibular joint disorders EXCEPT

Explanation

Physical therapists commonly use postural training, electrical stimulation, and ultrasound to treat temporomandibular joint disorders. However, diathermy is not typically used in the treatment of these disorders. Diathermy is a therapeutic technique that uses high-frequency electromagnetic currents to generate heat in the body tissues. While it may be used in other areas of physical therapy, it is not a commonly used modality for temporomandibular joint disorders.

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38. When developing a treatment program for a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis, it is important to include all of the following.  Perhaps the most critical element of the program is

Explanation

When developing a treatment program for a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis, it is important to include postural drainage/chest physical therapy. This is because cystic fibrosis is a condition that affects the lungs and causes thick mucus to build up, leading to respiratory problems. Postural drainage and chest physical therapy help to mobilize and clear the mucus from the lungs, improving breathing and reducing the risk of lung infections. Therefore, it is considered the most critical element of the treatment program for cystic fibrosis patients.

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39. The most effective strengthening exercise for muscles with disuse atrophy is

Explanation

Resistive motion exercises involve the use of resistance, such as weights or resistance bands, to strengthen muscles. This type of exercise is particularly effective for muscles with disuse atrophy because it requires the muscles to work against resistance, which helps to build strength and promote muscle growth. Passive motion exercises involve moving a joint or limb without using any muscle effort, while active assistive motion exercises involve using some muscle effort with assistance from another person or device. Active motion exercises involve using the muscles without any assistance or resistance. However, resistive motion exercises provide the greatest challenge and stimulus for muscle growth in the case of disuse atrophy.

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40. A physical therapist debrides a decubitus ulcer after a whirlpool treatment.  The therapist should take off sterile patient care gloves after

Explanation

The correct answer is completing debridement. After completing the debridement process, the therapist should remove their sterile patient care gloves. This is because the gloves may have been contaminated during the procedure and should be discarded to prevent the spread of any potential pathogens. Removing the gloves after completing debridement ensures proper infection control and hygiene practices.

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41. Upon inspecting a patient’s residual limb after prosthetic training, you note a reddened area proximal to the patella tendon and over the anterior and distal end of the limb.   Before continuing with future gait training sessions you would first

Explanation

The reddened area proximal to the patella tendon and over the anterior and distal end of the limb suggests that there is excessive pressure being applied to those areas during gait training. Increasing the ply of the socks worn by the patient would provide additional cushioning and distribute the pressure more evenly, reducing the risk of further irritation and potential skin breakdown.

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42. Patients are often placed on diuretics to control high blood pressure and fluid retention.  Which of the following side effects of diuretics can require immediate medical attention?

Explanation

Dizziness can require immediate medical attention as it may be a sign of low blood pressure or dehydration, which can be serious. It is important to monitor and manage blood pressure levels while on diuretics, and any sudden onset of dizziness should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the cause and appropriate treatment.

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43. A 65 year-old female reports to physical therapy diagnosed with degenerative joint disease of the right hip.  Which of the following clinical findings would you not expect to identify?

Explanation

In degenerative joint disease of the right hip, the patient would typically exhibit a tendency to stand with the hip and knee extended and the lumbar spine flexed. This posture is known as the Trendelenburg gait and is a compensatory mechanism to shift the body weight away from the affected hip joint. Therefore, it would be expected to identify this clinical finding in a patient with degenerative joint disease of the right hip.

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44. Tests for the length of the hamstring muscles typically involve stabilization of the uninvolved leg while raising the leg to be tested.  It is important to stabilize the uninvolved leg because it

Explanation

Stabilizing the uninvolved leg during hamstring muscle tests helps prevent excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine. This is important because these movements can put strain on the lower back and potentially lead to injury. By stabilizing the uninvolved leg, the focus can be solely on testing the length of the hamstring muscles without compromising the stability of the pelvis and spine.

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45. Isokinetic training and testing are becoming increasingly popular in both clinical settings and research.  Advantages of isokinetic testing include all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

Isokinetic training and testing have several advantages, including providing decreased joint compressive forces at high speeds, providing maximal resistance throughout the velocity spectrum, and providing objective permanent recording. However, it does not provide increased reciprocal innervation time of agonist/antagonist contractions. This means that isokinetic training and testing do not improve the coordination and timing between the muscles involved in a movement.

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46. A physical training program applied over a sufficient period of time can lead to improved physical performance.  Which statement describing the effects of physical training is not accurate?

Explanation

The statement "Prior training hastens the rate and increases the magnitude of training benefits gained from subsequent training programs" is not accurate. While prior training can provide a foundation and make it easier to build upon in subsequent training programs, it does not necessarily guarantee that the rate and magnitude of training benefits will increase. The effects of training are influenced by various factors such as frequency, duration, and intensity, rather than solely relying on prior training.

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47. A physical therapist instructs a patient to reach behind their head and touch the superior medial angle of the opposite scapula.   Which shoulder motions are necessary in order to follow this command?

Explanation

To follow the command of reaching behind their head and touching the superior medial angle of the opposite scapula, the patient would need to perform abduction and external rotation of the shoulder. Abduction refers to moving the arm away from the body, while external rotation involves rotating the arm away from the midline of the body. These motions would allow the patient to position their hand behind their head and touch the specific area of the scapula mentioned in the command.

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48. A 47 year-old patient with a diagnosis of CVA, left hemiplegia is referred for orthotic evaluation.  Significant results of manual muscle testing include:  hip flexion 3+/5, hip extension 3/5, knee flexion 3+/5, knee extension 2/5, ankle dorsiflexion 2/5, and ankle inversion and eversion 1/5.  Sensation is intact and no abnormal tone is noted.  The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is a 

Explanation

Based on the significant results of manual muscle testing, it is evident that the patient has varying degrees of muscle weakness in different muscle groups. A knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked knee would not be suitable as it would restrict the patient's knee movement. A metal upright ankle-foot orthosis may also not be appropriate as it may not provide enough support for the patient's weak ankle muscles. A prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis may not provide the necessary articulation and support for the patient's ankle. Therefore, the most appropriate orthosis for this patient would be a plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis, which can provide the necessary support and allow for ankle movement.

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49. A traumatic brain injury patient, which presents with right hemiplegia is to receive an ankle foot orthosis to assist with ambulation.  The patient’s right knee will occasionally buckle during the stance phase of gait on the right.  A modification to the ankle foot orthosis that would enhance knee extension during loading and stance on the right is to

Explanation

Extending the foot plate of the ankle foot orthosis would enhance knee extension during loading and stance on the right. This modification would provide a larger surface area for the patient's foot to push off from, increasing the leverage and force generated at the knee joint. This can help stabilize the knee and prevent it from buckling during the stance phase of gait.

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50. A physical therapist observes that a patient’s medial longitudinal arch is extremely depressed.  What ligament helps to maintain the medial longitudinal arch?

Explanation

The calcaneofibular ligament helps to maintain the medial longitudinal arch. The medial longitudinal arch is the arch on the inner side of the foot, and it is supported by various ligaments and tendons. The calcaneofibular ligament is located on the outside of the ankle and helps to stabilize the foot and maintain the arch. When this ligament is weak or damaged, it can lead to a depressed or flattened arch.

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A caesarian section might be indicated for all of the following EXCEPT
A 14 year-old girl presents with a twenty degree left thoracic...
A physical therapist receives an order for lumbar traction on a 61...
Physical therapy clinics should have a detailed infection control...
A physical therapist is conducting an initial evaluation on a patient...
A fracture of the femoral neck which disrupts the blood supply causing...
When two therapists get drastically different manual muscle testing...
A high school basketball player is treated in physical therapy after...
Mobilization is often indicated with a loss of accessory joint...
If the radial nerve is severed above the origin of the triceps muscle,...
A patient diagnosed with an incomplete spinal cord lesion that...
A home visit is performed for a patient who resides alone and is four...
A cardiac rehabilitation phase I program should begin 3-6 days after...
Weakness in this muscle would make it extremely difficult to ambulate...
According to the “Standards of Practice for Physical Therapy” as...
When is it appropriate to initiate an exercise program for a patient...
A physical therapist is treating a patient diagnosed with anterior...
All of the following can be used clinically in the treatment of a...
A physical therapist is palpating along the lateral portion of the...
In designing a wheelchair for a bilateral above knee amputee, the...
A physical therapist is treating a six month-old infant with spina...
A therapist prepares to treat a patient in isolation by donning a...
A 65 year-old female is referred to physical therapy two weeks after...
A study designed to determine if different therapists can be expected...
Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve in...
What percentage of physical therapy students taking their state board...
A physical therapist is evaluating a 15 year-old female distance...
A patient’s right shoulder is immobilized in a sling following a...
A two year-old male with infectious meningitis is referred to physical...
A patient reports pain radiating down his posterior leg into the foot....
Which aquatic exercise would be the most effective in reducing tone in...
Rhythmic stabilization is a/an ______ technique that can be...
A manager is responsible for motivating staff members to take on the...
A physical therapy treatment plan for a patient rehabilitation from an...
Transverse friction massage is a valuable treatment technique in a...
Ultrasound using the stationary technique is not recommended by most...
All of the following are used frequently by a physical therapist to...
When developing a treatment program for a patient diagnosed with...
The most effective strengthening exercise for muscles with disuse...
A physical therapist debrides a decubitus ulcer after a whirlpool...
Upon inspecting a patient’s residual limb after prosthetic training,...
Patients are often placed on diuretics to control high blood pressure...
A 65 year-old female reports to physical therapy diagnosed with...
Tests for the length of the hamstring muscles typically involve...
Isokinetic training and testing are becoming increasingly popular in...
A physical training program applied over a sufficient period of time...
A physical therapist instructs a patient to reach behind their head...
A 47 year-old patient with a diagnosis of CVA, left hemiplegia is...
A traumatic brain injury patient, which presents with right hemiplegia...
A physical therapist observes that a patient’s medial longitudinal...
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