Pqg3 Part 1 Of 4

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Pqg3 Part 1 Of 4 - Quiz

PQG3 Part 1 of 4


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    While working with a T6 spinal cord injured patient a physical therapist identifies a small, reddened area over the patient’s right ischial tuberosity region. The physical therapist should immediately:

    • A.

      Notify nursing and remind the patient of their role in proper skin care

    • B.

      Order a water mattress for the patient

    • C.

      Alert the patient to the potential dangers of skin breakdown

    • D.

      Notify the primary physician and declare a medical emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify nursing and remind the patient of their role in proper skin care
    Explanation
    The physical therapist should immediately notify nursing and remind the patient of their role in proper skin care because a small, reddened area over the patient's right ischial tuberosity region indicates the potential development of a pressure ulcer. It is important to involve the nursing staff to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented to prevent further skin breakdown. Additionally, reminding the patient of their role in proper skin care can help promote self-care and prevent complications. Ordering a water mattress or declaring a medical emergency may not be necessary at this stage, as the area is small and only showing signs of early skin damage.

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  • 2. 

    A patient falls to the ground during gait activities and appears to be in cardiac arrest. After performing a primary survey you call for help and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation. CPR should be continued until all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      The patient regains full consciousness

    • B.

      The heart starts beating again

    • C.

      A second rescuer trained in CPR takes over

    • D.

      You are too exhausted to continue

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient regains full consciousness
    Explanation
    CPR should be continued until all of the following EXCEPT the patient regains full consciousness. CPR is a life-saving technique performed in cases of cardiac arrest when the heart stops beating. It involves chest compressions and rescue breaths to maintain blood circulation and oxygenation. The goal of CPR is to restore the heart's normal rhythm and function, which is indicated by the heart starting to beat again. Once the patient regains full consciousness, they no longer require CPR as they are able to breathe and circulate blood on their own. However, if a second rescuer trained in CPR is available, it is recommended to hand over the resuscitation efforts to them to prevent exhaustion.

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  • 3. 

    A physical therapist observes a video on the biomechanics of normal gait. The therapist notes that the subject’s knee remains flexed during all of the components of the stance phase EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Foot flat

    • B.

      Heel strike

    • C.

      Midstance

    • D.

      Toe off

    Correct Answer
    B. Heel strike
    Explanation
    During the stance phase of normal gait, the knee remains flexed except during the heel strike. Heel strike is the initial contact of the foot with the ground, and at this point, the knee should be extended or straightened. This allows for shock absorption and a smooth transition into the next phase of gait. Flexion of the knee during the other components of the stance phase helps to provide stability and support to the body while walking.

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  • 4. 

    A therapist monitors a patient’s blood pressure by auscultation. When recording the patient’s blood pressure in the medical record, which of the following is usually not required?

    • A.

      Systolic blood pressure value

    • B.

      Extremity used

    • C.

      Patient position

    • D.

      Type of stethoscope used

    Correct Answer
    D. Type of stethoscope used
    Explanation
    When recording a patient's blood pressure in the medical record, the type of stethoscope used is usually not required. The blood pressure value, extremity used, and patient position are important factors to note for an accurate record. However, the type of stethoscope used does not significantly impact the blood pressure measurement and therefore is not typically necessary to include in the medical record.

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  • 5. 

    After completing an initial examination, it is determined that a patient is exhibiting disability behaviors that are out of proportion to the physical therapist’s clinical findings. The therapist’s next course of action should be to:

    • A.

      Confront the patient with the findings before initiating the treatment plan

    • B.

      Immediately contact the patent’s physician and explain the findings

    • C.

      Initiate the treatment plan, however consider the possibility that the disease state is being maintained by external consequences

    • D.

      Continue with the current treatment plan without further delay and dismiss the findings

    Correct Answer
    C. Initiate the treatment plan, however consider the possibility that the disease state is being maintained by external consequences
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to initiate the treatment plan, however consider the possibility that the disease state is being maintained by external consequences. This means that the therapist should start the treatment plan but also keep in mind that there may be external factors contributing to the patient's disability behaviors. This suggests that the therapist should explore other potential causes or influences on the patient's condition before making any conclusions or adjustments to the treatment plan.

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  • 6. 

    A physical therapist elects to use ultrasound on a  patient diagnosed with a second degree lateral ankle sprain.  The therapist uses the underwater technique because of the uneven joint surface and patient’s extreme sensitivity to pressure.  Which description of ultrasound using the underwater technique is true?

    • A.

      The transducer should be placed directly on the skin.

    • B.

      A commercial gel is appropriate for a coupling medium.

    • C.

      The transducer should be held one-half to one inch from the skin and moved throughout the entire session.

    • D.

      The patient should independently move the transducer once it is immersed in the water.

    Correct Answer
    C. The transducer should be held one-half to one inch from the skin and moved throughout the entire session.
    Explanation
    When using ultrasound with the underwater technique, the transducer should be held one-half to one inch from the skin and moved throughout the entire session. This technique is used when there is an uneven joint surface and the patient is extremely sensitive to pressure. Placing the transducer directly on the skin or using a commercial gel as a coupling medium is not appropriate in this case. The patient should not independently move the transducer once it is immersed in the water.

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  • 7. 

    A physical therapist treats a patient with quadriceps weakness using repeated contractions. This proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique should be applied:

    • A.

      At the initiation of movement

    • B.

      At the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminish

    • C.

      Throughout the full active range of motion

    • D.

      Only after a manual stretch to the quadriceps

    Correct Answer
    B. At the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminish
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "at the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminish". This is because proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) techniques involve stimulating proprioceptors to enhance muscle contractions. By applying the technique at the point where the desired muscular response begins to diminish, the therapist can help the patient maximize their muscle activation and improve their quadriceps strength. Applying the technique at this specific point allows for targeted and effective treatment.

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  • 8. 

    A patient diagnosed with spastic hemiplegia wears an ankle-foot orthosis set in dorsiflexion to prevent foot drop. If the orthosis was set in excessive dorsiflexion, which of the following would you expect to observe during the stance phase?

    • A.

      Increased knee stability

    • B.

      Decreased knee stability

    • C.

      Have no effect on knee stability

    • D.

      Cause genu recurvatum

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreased knee stability
    Explanation
    If the ankle-foot orthosis is set in excessive dorsiflexion, it would result in decreased knee stability during the stance phase. This is because excessive dorsiflexion would cause the foot to be in a plantarflexed position, which would shift the body weight forward. As a result, the knee would have to work harder to maintain stability and prevent buckling or collapsing. Therefore, decreased knee stability would be observed.

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  • 9. 

    A patient is referred to physical therapy with a twenty degree restriction in wrist extension. Which mobilization technique would facilitate wrist extension?

    • A.

      Dorsal glide of the carpals

    • B.

      Stabilize lunate, volar glide radius

    • C.

      Stabilize capitate, volar glide lunate

    • D.

      Stabilize radius, volar glide scaphoid

    Correct Answer
    D. Stabilize radius, volar glide scaphoid
  • 10. 

    To test for possible anterior shoulder instability a physical therapist would:

    • A.

      Abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and internally rotate

    • B.

      Abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees, move into forward flexion, adduct and internally rotate

    • C.

      Abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and externally rotate

    • D.

      Adduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and externally rotate

    Correct Answer
    C. Abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and externally rotate
    Explanation
    To test for possible anterior shoulder instability, a physical therapist would abduct the affected arm to 90 degrees and externally rotate. This specific movement helps to put stress on the anterior shoulder structures and can reveal any instability or pain in that area. By externally rotating the arm, the therapist is placing the shoulder joint in a vulnerable position, which can help identify any potential issues. The abduction to 90 degrees allows for a wide range of motion and provides a better assessment of shoulder stability.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following exercises would be inappropriate for a woman who gave birth via cesarean section three days ago?

    • A.

      Pelvic tilts

    • B.

      Walking

    • C.

      Deep breathing

    • D.

      All are acceptable

    Correct Answer
    D. All are acceptable
    Explanation
    After giving birth via cesarean section, it is important for women to avoid exercises that put strain on the abdominal muscles and the incision site. Pelvic tilts involve movements that engage the core muscles, including the abdominal muscles, which may be too strenuous for someone who had a cesarean section just three days ago. Walking and deep breathing, on the other hand, are gentle exercises that can promote healing and improve circulation without putting excessive strain on the incision site. Therefore, all the exercises listed in the options are acceptable for a woman who gave birth via cesarean section three days ago.

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  • 12. 

    Sensory stimulation for either muscle contraction or relaxation was introduced by:

    • A.

      Bobath

    • B.

      Fay

    • C.

      Knott

    • D.

      Rood

    Correct Answer
    D. Rood
    Explanation
    Rood introduced sensory stimulation for muscle contraction or relaxation.

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  • 13. 

    If a plumb line is positioned laterally to a patient so it runs along the line of gravity, where would it fall with respect to the knee joint?

    • A.

      Anterior

    • B.

      Posterior

    • C.

      Directly through the knee joint

    • D.

      All of these are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior
    Explanation
    When a plumb line is positioned laterally to a patient so that it runs along the line of gravity, it would fall anterior to the knee joint. This means that the plumb line would be in front of the knee joint, indicating that the patient's weight is distributed more towards the front of the knee.

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  • 14. 

    A patient diagnosed with shoulder pain of unknown etiology is referred by his physician for magnetic resonance imaging. The results of the test reveal a partial tear of the infraspinatus muscle. Based on the information obtained, which muscle group would you expect to be the most seriously affected?

    • A.

      Shoulder external rotators

    • B.

      Shoulder internal rotators

    • C.

      Shoulder abductors

    • D.

      Shoulder adductors

    Correct Answer
    A. Shoulder external rotators
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, a partial tear of the infraspinatus muscle suggests that the shoulder external rotators would be the most seriously affected muscle group. The infraspinatus is one of the key muscles responsible for external rotation of the shoulder joint. A tear in this muscle would impair its ability to perform this action effectively, leading to weakness and limited range of motion in external rotation.

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  • 15. 

    All of the following are true concerning scoliosis EXCEPT:

    • A.

      A 15-20 degree curve is considered to be mild scoliosis

    • B.

      Bracing can be an effective treatment tool

    • C.

      Scoliosis is named by the direction of the concavity

    • D.

      Early detection through school screening is essential

    Correct Answer
    C. Scoliosis is named by the direction of the concavity
    Explanation
    The statement that scoliosis is named by the direction of the concavity is incorrect. Scoliosis is actually named by the direction of the convexity.

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  • 16. 

    A patient has limited accessory joint motion in the right hip. You are unsure if joint mobilization techniques are indicated since the patient’s condition is relatively acute. Which of the following would be the best course of action?

    • A.

      Active stretching exercises only

    • B.

      Grade I and II mobilization

    • C.

      Grade IV and V mobilization

    • D.

      Avoid all stretching or mobilization until the patient is pain free

    Correct Answer
    B. Grade I and II mobilization
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient has limited accessory joint motion in the right hip and the condition is relatively acute. Grade I and II mobilization techniques would be the best course of action. Grade I mobilization involves small amplitude movements at the beginning of range of motion, while Grade II mobilization involves larger amplitude movements within the range of motion. These techniques can help improve joint mobility and reduce pain without causing further damage or aggravating the acute condition. Active stretching exercises may be too aggressive for the patient's current condition, and avoiding all stretching or mobilization until the patient is pain-free may delay recovery. Grade IV and V mobilization techniques are typically reserved for chronic conditions or when other methods have failed.

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  • 17. 

    A patient exhibits pain and sensory loss in the posterior leg, calf, and dorsal foot. Extension of the hallux is poor, however, the Achilles reflex is normal. What spinal level would you expect to be involved?

    • A.

      L4

    • B.

      L5

    • C.

      S1

    • D.

      S2

    Correct Answer
    B. L5
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of pain and sensory loss in the posterior leg, calf, and dorsal foot, along with poor extension of the hallux, suggest involvement of the L5 spinal level. The normal Achilles reflex indicates that the S1 spinal level is not affected.

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  • 18. 

    An 18-year-old male six weeks status post open reduction of a Colles’ fracture is referred to as physical therapy. Examination reveals mild swelling on the dorsum of the hand and limited flexion in the metacarpophalangeal joint in all digits. The most appropriate heating agent is 

    • A.

      Paraffin

    • B.

      Hot packs

    • C.

      Vapocoolant sprays

    • D.

      Fluidotherapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Paraffin
    Explanation
    Paraffin is the most appropriate heating agent in this case because it can help reduce swelling and improve joint mobility. Paraffin therapy involves immersing the hand in melted paraffin wax, which provides a moist heat that can penetrate deep into the tissues. This heat therapy can help increase blood flow, relax muscles, and promote healing. Additionally, paraffin therapy can also help improve range of motion and reduce pain. Therefore, considering the patient's symptoms and the benefits of paraffin therapy, it is the most suitable heating agent in this scenario.

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  • 19. 

    A patient scheduled for total hip replacement in three days is referred to as physical therapy for preoperative instruction. All of the following should be incorporated into total hip replacement preoperative instruction EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Deep breathing and coughing exercises

    • B.

      Gait training with an appropriate assistive device that will be used postoperatively

    • C.

      Basic precautions for early bed mobility

    • D.

      Proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks postoperatively

    Correct Answer
    D. Proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks postoperatively
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks postoperatively". This is because the use of an abduction pillow is a postoperative instruction, not a preoperative instruction. Preoperative instruction focuses on activities and exercises that should be done before the surgery to prepare the patient, such as deep breathing and coughing exercises, gait training with an assistive device, and basic precautions for early bed mobility.

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  • 20. 

    A 26-year-old male involved in a motorcycle accident sustains a T10 vertebral fracture. The patient’s physician would like to restrict forward thoracic flexion by using an externally applied device. Which of the following would be the most appropriate selection?

    • A.

      Minerva cervical thoracic orthosis

    • B.

      Philadelphia collar

    • C.

      Sternal-occipital-mandibular immobilizer

    • D.

      Thoracolumbar-sacral orthosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Thoracolumbar-sacral orthosis
    Explanation
    The most appropriate selection in this case would be a thoracolumbar-sacral orthosis. This device would restrict forward thoracic flexion, which is necessary for the patient with a T10 vertebral fracture. The Minerva cervical thoracic orthosis is used for cervical spine injuries, the Philadelphia collar is used for cervical spine stabilization, and the sternal-occipital-mandibular immobilizer is used for upper cervical spine immobilization. Therefore, the thoracolumbar-sacral orthosis is the best choice for restricting forward thoracic flexion in this specific scenario.

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  • 21. 

    Which clinical finding is not indicative of a ruptured Achilles tendon?

    • A.

      Negative Thompson test

    • B.

      Absent Achilles reflex

    • C.

      Lack of toe off during gait

    • D.

      All of these are indicative of a ruptured Achilles tendon

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative Thompson test
    Explanation
    A negative Thompson test refers to the absence of a specific clinical finding that is typically observed in a ruptured Achilles tendon. During the Thompson test, squeezing the calf muscles should cause plantar flexion of the foot. If the test is negative, it suggests that the Achilles tendon is intact. Therefore, a negative Thompson test is not indicative of a ruptured Achilles tendon.

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  • 22. 

    A physical therapist evaluates a patient’s hip range of motion. Which pattern of limitation is typically considered to be a capsular pattern?

    • A.

      Gross limitation of flexion, abduction and internal rotation

    • B.

      Gross limitation of flexion, adduction and external rotation

    • C.

      Gross limitation of extension, abduction and external rotation

    • D.

      Gross limitation of extension, adduction and internal rotation

    Correct Answer
    A. Gross limitation of flexion, abduction and internal rotation
    Explanation
    A capsular pattern refers to a specific pattern of limitation in joint range of motion that is typically seen in conditions involving the joint capsule. In the case of the hip, a capsular pattern is characterized by a gross limitation of flexion, abduction, and internal rotation. This means that these movements are significantly restricted compared to other movements of the hip joint. The other options listed do not fit the criteria for a capsular pattern in the hip joint.

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  • 23. 

    Relative contraindications for exercise during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      Thyroid disease

    • C.

      History of precipitous labor

    • D.

      Mild hypotension

    Correct Answer
    D. Mild hypotension
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, exercise is generally recommended as it provides numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby. However, there are certain conditions or factors that may pose a relative contraindication to exercise. In this case, the given answer is "mild hypotension." Mild hypotension refers to low blood pressure, which is generally not considered a contraindication for exercise during pregnancy. In fact, exercise can help improve blood pressure regulation. On the other hand, diabetes, thyroid disease, and a history of precipitous labor may require closer monitoring and potentially modify the exercise plan.

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  • 24. 

    Cardiac catheterization is performed by inserting a catheter into the femoral, brachial or axillary artery and advancing it through the aorta to the heart. Specific lesions, areas of low perfusion, and ventricular aneurysms are defined through

    • A.

      The heart’s resistance to the presence of the catheter

    • B.

      The catheter releasing dye into the coronary arteries

    • C.

      The catheter monitoring the pressure within the arteries

    • D.

      The catheter obtaining samples of cells which line the arteries

    Correct Answer
    B. The catheter releasing dye into the coronary arteries
    Explanation
    During cardiac catheterization, a catheter is inserted into an artery and advanced through the aorta to the heart. The correct answer states that specific lesions, areas of low perfusion, and ventricular aneurysms are defined through the catheter releasing dye into the coronary arteries. This is because the dye helps visualize the coronary arteries and any abnormalities or blockages present. By observing the flow of dye, doctors can identify specific lesions, areas with poor blood flow, and abnormalities in the heart, allowing for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.

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  • 25. 

    A patient diagnosed with pure athetoid cerebral palsy would most likely demonstrate:

    • A.

      Disturbed sense of balance and faulty depth perception

    • B.

      Hypertonicity, contractures and clonus

    • C.

      Slow involuntary uncontrolled movements

    • D.

      Severe intention tremor

    Correct Answer
    C. Slow involuntary uncontrolled movements
    Explanation
    A patient diagnosed with pure athetoid cerebral palsy would most likely demonstrate slow involuntary uncontrolled movements. This is because athetoid cerebral palsy primarily affects the basal ganglia, which is responsible for controlling movement. The slow involuntary movements, also known as athetosis, are characterized by writhing, twisting, and repetitive motions. These movements are often more prominent during periods of rest and decrease with purposeful activity. Other symptoms of athetoid cerebral palsy may include difficulty with speech, swallowing, and fine motor skills.

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  • 26. 

    A physical therapist instructs a patient to move their lower teeth forward in relation to their upper teeth. This motion is termed:

    • A.

      Protrusion

    • B.

      Retrusion

    • C.

      Lateral deviation

    • D.

      Occlusal position

    Correct Answer
    A. Protrusion
    Explanation
    When a physical therapist instructs a patient to move their lower teeth forward in relation to their upper teeth, this motion is termed as "protrusion." Protrusion refers to the movement of the mandible (lower jaw) forward, causing the lower teeth to extend beyond the upper teeth. This term is commonly used in dentistry and orthodontics to describe the position and movement of the teeth and jaw.

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  • 27. 

    A CVA patient positioned in supine with legs flexed, clasping his arms around his knees and gently rocking will produce:

    • A.

      Decreased extensor spasticity in the lower extremities

    • B.

      Inhibition of flexor spasticity in the upper extremities

    • C.

      Protraction of the scapula

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "all of these". When a CVA patient is positioned in supine with legs flexed, clasping his arms around his knees and gently rocking, it can lead to decreased extensor spasticity in the lower extremities. The flexed leg position helps to relax the muscles and reduce spasticity. Additionally, this position can also inhibit flexor spasticity in the upper extremities. The clasping of the arms around the knees and gentle rocking can help to relax the muscles and reduce spasticity in the upper extremities as well. Finally, this position can also lead to protraction of the scapula, which helps to improve posture and reduce shoulder stiffness.

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  • 28. 

    What muscle controls the position of the ankle joint at heel strike?

    • A.

      Eccentric contraction of the anterior tibialis

    • B.

      Eccentric contraction of the gastrocsoleus

    • C.

      Concentric contraction of the anterior tibialis

    • D.

      Concentric contraction of the gastrocsoleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Eccentric contraction of the anterior tibialis
    Explanation
    The eccentric contraction of the anterior tibialis controls the position of the ankle joint at heel strike. This muscle is responsible for controlling dorsiflexion, which is the movement of pulling the foot upward towards the shin. During heel strike, the anterior tibialis contracts eccentrically to control the lowering of the foot and prevent it from slamming down too forcefully. This helps to absorb the impact and maintain stability during the initial contact of the foot with the ground.

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  • 29. 

    A clinical instructor can be a critical link between each student’s academic and professional career. Which objective would seem inappropriate for a senior physical therapy student in the first week of a clinical internship?

    • A.

      The student safely executes assessment of the transfer status of a patient.

    • B.

      The student demonstrates beginning integration of patient problems into the treatment program

    • C.

      The student provides patient coverage for an absent colleague.

    • D.

      The student participates in a team conference by reporting on an assigned patient.

    Correct Answer
    C. The student provides patient coverage for an absent colleague.
    Explanation
    The objective of providing patient coverage for an absent colleague would seem inappropriate for a senior physical therapy student in the first week of a clinical internship because they may not have enough experience or knowledge to handle the responsibilities of covering for another colleague. It would be more appropriate for them to focus on their own learning and integrating patient problems into their treatment program.

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  • 30. 

    An aquatic program can be a valuable tool for gait activities. Which of the following activities would facilitate a patient shifting their pelvis over the affected leg, while maintaining an extended hip and trunk?

    • A.

      Marching in place

    • B.

      Flutter kicking in prone

    • C.

      Ring toss while standing

    • D.

      Treading water

    Correct Answer
    A. Marching in place
    Explanation
    Marching in place in an aquatic program would facilitate a patient shifting their pelvis over the affected leg, while maintaining an extended hip and trunk. This activity involves lifting and lowering the legs in a marching motion, which requires the patient to shift their weight from one leg to the other. By maintaining an extended hip and trunk, the patient is encouraged to engage their core muscles and maintain proper posture while performing the activity. This helps improve gait and balance, as well as strengthening the muscles involved in walking.

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  • 31. 

    A three-year-old male diagnosed with pediatric meningo-cerebritis is referred to respiratory physical therapy for manual assistance in breathing activities. Indications for manual assistance would include:

    • A.

      Rapid, deep inspiration

    • B.

      Incomplete use of muscles for deep inspiration

    • C.

      Frequent sighing

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Incomplete use of muscles for deep inspiration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "incomplete use of muscles for deep inspiration." In pediatric meningo-cerebritis, there may be weakness or paralysis of the respiratory muscles, leading to difficulty in deep inspiration. Manual assistance in breathing activities can help the child fully expand their lungs and improve ventilation. Rapid, deep inspiration and frequent sighing may be present in this condition, but they are not specific indications for manual assistance in breathing activities.

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  • 32. 

    Proper technique is essential when mobilizing a joint. Which of the following statements about the mobilization technique is not true?

    • A.

      One joint at a time is moved in one direction.

    • B.

      A joint is mobilized in the closed packed position.

    • C.

      Commence with grade I distraction when possible.

    • D.

      The patient and the extremity to be treated should be placed in a comfortable position.

    Correct Answer
    B. A joint is mobilized in the closed packed position.
    Explanation
    The statement "a joint is mobilized in the closed packed position" is not true. Mobilization techniques involve moving a joint in various directions, not just in the closed packed position. The closed packed position is the position of maximum joint congruency and stability, and mobilization techniques aim to improve joint mobility and reduce pain. Therefore, mobilization techniques are usually performed outside of the closed packed position to achieve the desired therapeutic effects.

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  • 33. 

    The goal of a physical therapist treating a patient who is receiving workers’ compensation include:

    • A.

      Making the patient less dependent and more active in their rehabilitative program

    • B.

      Attempting to meet the needs of the insurance provider, employer, physician and patient

    • C.

      Building confidence in the patient’s physical capabilities and control over their future

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    The goal of a physical therapist treating a patient who is receiving workers' compensation is to make the patient less dependent and more active in their rehabilitative program. Additionally, the therapist aims to meet the needs of the insurance provider, employer, physician, and patient. Moreover, building confidence in the patient's physical capabilities and control over their future is also a goal. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of these."

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  • 34. 

    A patient four weeks status post arthroscopic medial meniscectomy is limited in knee flexion range of motion. Which mobilization technique would be the most beneficial to increase knee flexion?

    • A.

      Anterior glide of the tibia

    • B.

      Superior glide of the patella

    • C.

      Dorsal glide of the tibia

    • D.

      Anterior glide of the fibular head

    Correct Answer
    C. Dorsal glide of the tibia
    Explanation
    After a medial meniscectomy, the patient may experience limited knee flexion range of motion due to postoperative swelling and scar tissue formation. Dorsal glide of the tibia would be the most beneficial mobilization technique in this case. This technique involves applying a posterior force on the proximal tibia to promote posterior translation of the tibia, which can help improve knee flexion. Anterior glide of the tibia, superior glide of the patella, and anterior glide of the fibular head would not directly address the limitation in knee flexion range of motion.

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  • 35. 

    A 16-year-old high school track participant returns to physical therapy after seeing his physician. The physician informs the patient that magnetic resonance imaging has shown a significant tear in the medial meniscus of the left knee. As you look back on your initial evaluation, which of the following special tests would you expect to have been positive?

    • A.

      Lachman

    • B.

      Pivot shift

    • C.

      McMurray

    • D.

      Apprehension

    Correct Answer
    C. McMurray
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, the physician has informed the patient that there is a significant tear in the medial meniscus of the left knee. The McMurray test is a special test specifically used to diagnose meniscal tears. Therefore, it is expected that the McMurray test would have been positive during the initial evaluation.

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  • 36. 

    Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus would most likely involve damage to the:

    • A.

      Musculocutaneous

    • B.

      Axillary

    • C.

      Radial

    • D.

      Ulnar

    Correct Answer
    A. Musculocutaneous
    Explanation
    Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus would most likely involve damage to the musculocutaneous nerve. The musculocutaneous nerve arises from the lateral cord and supplies the muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm, including the biceps brachii and brachialis. It also provides sensory innervation to the lateral forearm. Therefore, damage to the lateral cord would affect the function of the musculocutaneous nerve, leading to weakness or paralysis of the muscles it supplies and potential sensory deficits in the lateral forearm.

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  • 37. 

    After evaluating the respiratory status of a C6 spinal cord injured patient, which of the following clinical findings would you expect to be true?

    • A.

      Partial innervation of the diaphragm

    • B.

      Full epigastric rise in supine

    • C.

      A ventilator is required for assisted breathing

    • D.

      Normal ventilatory reserve

    Correct Answer
    B. Full epigastric rise in supine
    Explanation
    In a C6 spinal cord injured patient, the diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which originates from the C3-C5 spinal cord segments. Therefore, there would be partial innervation of the diaphragm. However, the full epigastric rise in supine position indicates that the diaphragm is functioning adequately and the patient is able to breathe without the need for a ventilator. This finding suggests that the patient has sufficient respiratory muscle strength and does not require assisted breathing. Additionally, the normal ventilatory reserve indicates that the patient has the ability to increase their breathing capacity when needed.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following types of current has the lowest total average current?

    • A.

      Low volt

    • B.

      High volt

    • C.

      Russian

    • D.

      Interferential

    Correct Answer
    B. High volt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "high volt" because high voltage generally requires less current to achieve the same amount of power compared to low voltage. This means that the total average current needed for high voltage is lower than low voltage. Russian and interferential are not relevant to the question and do not affect the comparison between low and high voltage.

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  • 39. 

    A 50-year-old male resides alone and is an elementary school teacher.  At the conclusion of eight weeks of rehabilitation for a recent CVA, the patient has good strength in the lower extremity except for trace to poor strength in the right ankle joint. The patient’s sensation is severely impaired for deep pressure, light touch, and sharp stimuli.  The patient has severe fluctuating edema at the ankle. The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is:

    • A.

      Metal upright ankle-foot orthosis

    • B.

      Polypropylene solid ankle-foot orthosis

    • C.

      Prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis

    • D.

      Metal upright knee-ankle foot orthosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Metal upright ankle-foot orthosis
    Explanation
    The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is a metal upright ankle-foot orthosis. This is because the patient has good strength in the lower extremity except for poor strength in the right ankle joint. The metal upright ankle-foot orthosis will provide stability and support to the ankle joint, helping to improve strength and prevent further injury. Additionally, the patient has severe fluctuating edema at the ankle, which can be better managed with a metal upright orthosis compared to other options.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of chronic bronchitis?

    • A.

      Long term irritation of the trachea and bronchi

    • B.

      Increased mucus production

    • C.

      Decreased vital capacity

    • D.

      Often a result of an allergic reaction

    Correct Answer
    D. Often a result of an allergic reaction
    Explanation
    Chronic bronchitis is a condition characterized by long-term irritation of the trachea and bronchi, increased mucus production, and decreased vital capacity. However, it is not typically a result of an allergic reaction. Allergic reactions usually cause symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes, rather than chronic bronchitis. Therefore, "often a result of an allergic reaction" is not indicative of chronic bronchitis.

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  • 41. 

    A patient with left above knee amputation is gait training. You note that the patient vaults with a left swing phase and occasionally circumducts the involved leg. What is the most likely cause of this gait deviation?

    • A.

      The prosthesis is too short

    • B.

      The prosthesis is too long

    • C.

      Weak plantarflexors on the right

    • D.

      There is decreased toe-out on the left

    Correct Answer
    B. The prosthesis is too long
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the gait deviation in this patient is that the prosthesis is too long. When the prosthesis is longer than the patient's intact limb, it can lead to compensatory movements such as vaulting and circumduction. Vaulting refers to the patient raising their body on the toes of the intact limb to clear the prosthetic limb during swing phase. Circumduction refers to the patient swinging the involved leg in a circular motion to compensate for the longer prosthesis. These compensatory movements indicate that the prosthesis is not properly fitted and is affecting the patient's gait pattern.

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  • 42. 

    Which activity would most likely not occur prior to nine months assuming normal development?

    • A.

      Rolling from prone to supine

    • B.

      Sitting independently

    • C.

      Cruising

    • D.

      Creeping

    Correct Answer
    C. Cruising
    Explanation
    Cruising is the activity that would most likely not occur prior to nine months assuming normal development. Cruising refers to the action of a baby pulling themselves up to a standing position and then moving around by holding onto furniture or other objects for support. This usually happens between 9 to 12 months of age. Rolling from prone to supine, sitting independently, and creeping (crawling on hands and knees) are all developmental milestones that typically occur before cruising.

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  • 43. 

    Developmental evaluation has been completed on an eight-month-old infant. Findings from the evaluation include: the patient brings hands to mouth, requires assistance for ring sitting, presents with slight head lag in sitting, and does not reach across midline for objects. This child appears:

    • A.

      Appropriate with normal development

    • B.

      Developmentally delayed

    • C.

      Developmentally accelerated

    • D.

      To present with cerebral palsy

    Correct Answer
    B. Developmentally delayed
    Explanation
    Based on the findings from the evaluation, the infant is showing delays in certain developmental milestones. The fact that the patient requires assistance for ring sitting, presents with slight head lag in sitting, and does not reach across midline for objects indicates that their development is not progressing at the expected rate for their age. Therefore, the correct answer is that the child is developmentally delayed.

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  • 44. 

    A patient is limited to 55 degrees in passive straight leg raise testing.  To improve the patient’s range of motion, a therapist should apply the hold relax technique to the:

    • A.

      Abductors and hip flexors

    • B.

      Hamstrings and hip extensors

    • C.

      Quadriceps and hip flexors

    • D.

      Adductors and hip extensors

    Correct Answer
    B. Hamstrings and hip extensors
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hamstrings and hip extensors. The passive straight leg raise test measures the range of motion in the hip joint. If the patient is limited to 55 degrees, it suggests tightness or stiffness in the hamstrings and hip extensors. To improve the patient's range of motion, the therapist should apply the hold relax technique to these specific muscles. This technique involves the patient actively contracting the muscles being stretched, followed by a period of relaxation and passive stretching. By applying this technique to the hamstrings and hip extensors, the therapist can help increase the patient's range of motion in the straight leg raise test.

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  • 45. 

    A 47-year-old male is using a straight cane during gait activities. The patient is four weeks status post left total hip replacement and is full weight bearing on the left. As he begins to make a 180 degree turn, the most important reminder is:

    • A.

      You should turn away from the affected side

    • B.

      You should turn towards the affected side

    • C.

      It does not matter which way you pivot if you are full weight bearing

    • D.

      Keep the cane in front of you

    Correct Answer
    A. You should turn away from the affected side
    Explanation
    When a patient is using a straight cane during gait activities, turning away from the affected side is the most important reminder. This is because turning towards the affected side can put excessive stress on the hip joint, which may be unstable due to the recent total hip replacement. By turning away from the affected side, the patient can maintain stability and minimize the risk of injury or complications. Keeping the cane in front of them can provide additional support and aid in maintaining balance during the turn.

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  • 46. 

    A degenerative process beginning with irritation and fragmentation of the hyaline cartilage on the patella is termed:

    • A.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease

    • B.

      Retropatellar syndrome

    • C.

      Chondromalacia patella

    • D.

      Plica syndrome

    Correct Answer
    C. Chondromalacia patella
    Explanation
    Chondromalacia patella is a degenerative process that starts with irritation and fragmentation of the hyaline cartilage on the patella. This condition is characterized by knee pain, especially when climbing stairs or kneeling. Osgood-Schlatter disease, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the growth plate in the knee and causes pain and swelling below the knee. Retropatellar syndrome refers to pain behind the kneecap, while plica syndrome is the irritation of the synovial plica in the knee joint. Therefore, chondromalacia patella is the most appropriate term for the given description.

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  • 47. 

    A sensory evaluation reveals light touch impairment to the anterolateral thigh, lateral calf, and sole of the foot. The corresponding dermatomes should be recorded as:

    • A.

      L2, L4, S3

    • B.

      L1, L3, L5

    • C.

      L2, L5, S1

    • D.

      L3, L5, S1

    Correct Answer
    C. L2, L5, S1
    Explanation
    The sensory evaluation reveals impairment in the anterolateral thigh, lateral calf, and sole of the foot. The dermatomes associated with these areas are L2, L5, and S1. Therefore, the correct answer is L2, L5, S1.

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  • 48. 

    Facilitation of muscle tone is performed through all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Approximation

    • B.

      Prolonged stretching

    • C.

      Vibration

    • D.

      Icing

    Correct Answer
    B. Prolonged stretching
    Explanation
    Facilitation of muscle tone refers to the process of increasing muscle tone or tension. Approximation, vibration, and icing are all techniques that can help facilitate muscle tone by stimulating the muscle or surrounding tissues. Prolonged stretching, on the other hand, is a technique used to decrease muscle tone by elongating the muscle and reducing tension. Therefore, prolonged stretching is not performed to facilitate muscle tone but rather to achieve the opposite effect.

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  • 49. 

    A treatment program is designed to include late morning sessions involving aggressive stretching, moderate exercise, energy conservation, and stress management techniques. This program would be most appropriate for which diagnosis?

    • A.

      Guillain-Barre syndrome

    • B.

      Myasthenia gravis

    • C.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease

    • D.

      Multiple sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Multiple sclerosis
    Explanation
    This treatment program would be most appropriate for multiple sclerosis because it includes techniques such as aggressive stretching, moderate exercise, energy conservation, and stress management, which can help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for individuals with multiple sclerosis. These techniques can help with mobility, muscle strength, fatigue management, and overall well-being, which are commonly affected in multiple sclerosis.

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  • 50. 

     In an above-knee prosthesis the majority of the body’s weight is absorbed by the:

    • A.

      Posterior wall

    • B.

      Anterior wall

    • C.

      Lateral wall

    • D.

      Medial wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior wall
    Explanation
    In an above-knee prosthesis, the majority of the body's weight is absorbed by the posterior wall. This is because the posterior wall is designed to provide stability and support to the amputee's residual limb. It helps distribute the weight evenly and prevents excessive pressure on other areas of the prosthesis. By absorbing the body's weight, the posterior wall ensures a more comfortable and balanced walking experience for the amputee.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 17, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Pr4ct1c3dmyw4y
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