Ppl - Eqc C172m

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| By Rion Sigaya
Rion Sigaya, 3D animator
Jan Michael 'Rion' Sigaya, a former 3D animator turned licensed pilot with a Flight Instructor (FI) license, adeptly navigated the skies before unforeseen pandemic challenges led him back to his roots in the world of 3D animation.
Quizzes Created: 17 | Total Attempts: 319,218
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  • 1/86 Questions

    Fuel selector valve

    • On both during take-off 
    • On both during landing
    • On both during take-off and landing
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About This Quiz

This PPL - EQC C172M quiz assesses knowledge on the Cessna 172M model, covering maximum weights, propeller specifications, and take-off performance. Ideal for pilot trainees, it ensures understanding of critical aircraft parameters essential for safe and efficient operation.

Ppl - Eqc C172m - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Max Flaps Extended

    • VNE

    • VFE

    • VA

    Correct Answer
    A. VFE
    Explanation
    VFE stands for "Maximum Flap Extended Speed." This is the highest speed at which the aircraft's flaps can be fully extended without causing damage or compromising safety. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to prevent structural damage to the flaps and maintain control of the aircraft during takeoff and landing.

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  • 3. 

    Never Exceed Speed

    • VNO

    • VNE

    • VS0

    Correct Answer
    A. VNE
    Explanation
    VNE stands for Never Exceed Speed, which is the maximum speed at which an aircraft should never be flown, as exceeding this speed can cause structural damage or failure. It is an important limitation set by the aircraft manufacturer to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants. Flying above VNE can result in loss of control, increased aerodynamic forces, and potential structural failure. Therefore, pilots must always adhere to this speed limitation to prevent any potential risks or accidents.

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  • 4. 

    RPM during magneto check

    • 1700 RPM

    • 1400 RPM

    • 1600 RPM

    Correct Answer
    A. 1700 RPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1700 RPM. During a magneto check, the RPM (revolutions per minute) is typically checked to ensure that the magneto is functioning properly. In this case, the RPM is measured at 1700, indicating that the magneto is working correctly. The other options of 1400 RPM and 1600 RPM are not the correct answers as they do not match the given measurement of 1700 RPM.

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  • 5. 

    Maximum allowable RPM differential between magnetos

    • 135 RPM, 70 RPM differential

    • 105 RPM, 60 RPM differential

    • 125 RPM, 50 RPM differential

    Correct Answer
    A. 125 RPM, 50 RPM differential
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable RPM differential between magnetos is 125 RPM with a 50 RPM differential. This means that the two magnetos can have a maximum difference in RPM of 50, with the higher RPM not exceeding 125. This ensures that the magnetos are operating within a safe range and helps maintain engine balance and performance.

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  • 6. 

    Fuel capacity - Standard Tanks

    • 40 gal

    • 42 gal

    • 45 gal

    Correct Answer
    A. 42 gal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 42 gal. This is because it falls in between the given range of fuel capacity options. The options provided are 40 gal, 42 gal, and 45 gal. Since 42 gal is the only option that is within the given range, it is the correct answer.

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  • 7. 

    Maximum engine speed

    • 2700 RPM

    • 3700 RPM

    • 2500 RPM

    Correct Answer
    A. 2700 RPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2700 RPM. This indicates that the maximum speed at which the engine can operate is 2700 revolutions per minute.

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  • 8. 

    Normal operating range at 5000 ft

    • 3200 to 3600 RPM

    • 1200 to 2600 RPM

    • 2200 to 2600 RPM

    Correct Answer
    A. 2200 to 2600 RPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer of 2200 to 2600 RPM indicates the normal operating range at an altitude of 5000 ft. This range specifies the recommended revolutions per minute for the engine to operate efficiently and effectively at this altitude. RPM values below or above this range may result in suboptimal performance or potential damage to the engine.

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  • 9. 

    Stalling Speed or Min Steady Flight Speed in Landing Config

    • VFE

    • VX

    • VS0

    Correct Answer
    A. VS0
    Explanation
    VS0 refers to the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration. It is the lowest speed at which an aircraft can maintain controlled flight without stalling. This speed is crucial during landing as it determines the minimum speed at which the aircraft can safely touch down on the runway. Therefore, VS0 is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 10. 

    Engine Failure After Takeoff

    • AS 75kts, Fuel Selector Valve off, Mixture off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off

    • AS 65mph, Ignition off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Mixture off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off

    • AS 65kts, Mixture off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off

    Correct Answer
    A. AS 65kts, Mixture off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AS 65kts, Mixture off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off. This answer suggests the correct sequence of actions to take in the event of an engine failure after takeoff. By reducing the airspeed to 65 knots, turning off the mixture, fuel selector valve, and ignition, adjusting the wing flaps as necessary, and finally turning off the master switch, the pilot can effectively manage the situation and minimize the risk of further complications.

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  • 11. 

    Use of flaps 10

    • Shorten ground run by 10%

    • Shorten ground run by 15%

    • Shorten ground run by 20%

    Correct Answer
    A. Shorten ground run by 10%
    Explanation
    The use of flaps 10 on an aircraft can shorten the ground run by 10%. Flaps are aerodynamic devices on the wings that can be extended to increase lift and decrease the stall speed of an aircraft. By setting the flaps to a 10-degree angle, the aircraft generates more lift at lower speeds during takeoff, allowing it to become airborne sooner and reducing the distance required for the ground run. This results in a 10% reduction in the length of the ground run compared to not using flaps or using a different flap setting.

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  • 12. 

    During engine starting, open throttle at approximately

    • 1/8

    • 1/4

    • 1/2

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/8
    Explanation
    During engine starting, it is recommended to open the throttle at approximately 1/8. This is because opening the throttle too much can flood the engine with fuel, making it difficult to start. On the other hand, opening the throttle too little may not provide enough air and fuel mixture for the engine to ignite properly. Therefore, opening the throttle at 1/8 allows for a balanced amount of air and fuel to enter the engine, making it easier to start.

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  • 13. 

    Taxiing over loose gravel or cinders should be done at low engine speed to

    • "break loose" or "limber" the oil

    • Conserve gas

    • Avoid abraison and damage to propeller tips

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid abraison and damage to propeller tips
    Explanation
    Taxiing over loose gravel or cinders can cause damage to the propeller tips due to the abrasive nature of these surfaces. To prevent this damage, it is recommended to taxi at low engine speed. This reduces the risk of the propeller coming into contact with the loose material, minimizing abrasion and potential damage.

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  • 14. 

    Maneuvering Speed

    • VNO

    • VA

    • VS0

    Correct Answer
    A. VA
    Explanation
    VA refers to the maneuvering speed of an aircraft. It is the maximum speed at which abrupt control inputs can be made without causing structural damage to the aircraft. Operating above this speed may result in exceeding the aircraft's structural limits, leading to potential damage or failure. VA is an important speed for pilots to be aware of, as it ensures safe maneuvering during flight.

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  • 15. 

    Short field landing

    • 69 kts, flaps 20

    • 59 kts, flaps 40

    • 79 kts, flaps 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 59 kts, flaps 40
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 59 kts, flaps 40. This is because short field landings require a lower approach speed and a higher angle of descent in order to land on a shorter runway. Flaps 40 provides the highest amount of lift and drag, allowing for a steeper approach angle and slower airspeed. This combination of a slower airspeed and steeper descent angle helps the aircraft touch down on a shorter distance.

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  • 16. 

    Power check engine should run smoothly approximately at

    • 3350 - 3500 with carb heat off and mixture full rich

    • 2270 - 2370 with carb heat off and mixture full rich

    • 2270 - 3370 with carb heat off and mixture full rich

    Correct Answer
    A. 2270 - 2370 with carb heat off and mixture full rich
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2270 - 2370 with carb heat off and mixture full rich. This is because the power check engine should run smoothly within this RPM range when the carb heat is off and the mixture is set to full rich. The carb heat is turned off to prevent ice formation in the carburetor, and the mixture is set to full rich to ensure a proper fuel-air mixture for maximum power.

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  • 17. 

    Upon spin recovery, regardless of how many turns the spin and how it is entered, the following technique should always be used

    • Verify that the throttle is in idle position and all ailerons are neutral

    • Apply and hold full rudder opposite to the direction of the rotation

    • Just after the rudder reaches the stop, move the control wheel briskly forward far enough to break the stall

    • Hold these control inputs until rotation stops

    • As the rotation stops, neutralize rudder and make a smooth recovery from the resulting dive

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The given technique for spin recovery should always be used regardless of how the spin is entered or how many turns the spin has. It involves verifying that the throttle is in idle position and all ailerons are neutral, applying and holding full rudder opposite to the direction of rotation, moving the control wheel briskly forward to break the stall, and holding these control inputs until rotation stops. Once the rotation stops, the rudder should be neutralized and a smooth recovery from the resulting dive should be made. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct.

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  • 18. 

    White Arc (Flaps Operating range)

    • 41 - 85 kts

    • 47 - 128 kts

    • 128 - 160 kts

    Correct Answer
    A. 41 - 85 kts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 41 - 85 kts. This range represents the operating speed of the flaps, specifically the white arc. The white arc is typically found on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft and indicates the range of speeds at which the flaps can be safely extended or retracted. In this case, the flaps can be operated within the speed range of 41 to 85 knots.

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  • 19. 

    Propeller diameter

    • 65 inches (maximum)

    • 75 inches (maximum)

    • 85 inches (maximum)

    Correct Answer
    A. 75 inches (maximum)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 75 inches (maximum) because it falls within the given range of propeller diameters. The options provided are 65 inches, 75 inches, and 85 inches, and the question asks for the maximum diameter. Since 75 inches is the largest diameter listed, it is the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    Fuel Capacity - Optional Longrange tanks

    • 50 gal

    • 52 gal

    • 55 gal

    Correct Answer
    A. 52 gal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 52 gal because it falls in between the given options of 50 gal and 55 gal. It is likely that the fuel capacity of the vehicle in question is 52 gallons when equipped with optional long-range tanks.

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  • 21. 

    Service ceiling of C172M

    • 13,100 ft

    • 13,000 ft

    • 13,300 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 13,100 ft
    Explanation
    The service ceiling of the C172M is the maximum altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a steady rate of climb of 100 feet per minute. In this case, the correct answer is 13,100 ft, as it is the highest altitude listed among the options provided.

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  • 22. 

    Ditching

    • Flaps 10, 500ft/min rate of decent at 70 kts

    • Flaps 40, 300ft/min rate of decent at 60 kts

    • Flaps 20, 300ft/min rate of decent at 75 kts

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaps 40, 300ft/min rate of decent at 60 kts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "flaps 40, 300ft/min rate of descent at 60 kts". This is because when the flaps are set at 40, the aircraft experiences a rate of descent of 300ft/min at a speed of 60 kts. The other options either have a different rate of descent or a different airspeed, making them incorrect.

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  • 23. 

    Oil gauge should begin to show pressure in

    • 30 seconds in the summer time and twice as long in very cold weather

    • 30 seconds in the winter and twice as long in warm weather

    • 10 seconds in the winter and twice as long in warm weather

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 seconds in the summer time and twice as long in very cold weather
    Explanation
    The oil gauge should begin to show pressure in 30 seconds in the summer time because the warmer temperatures allow the oil to flow more easily. In very cold weather, it takes twice as long for the oil gauge to show pressure because the cold temperatures cause the oil to thicken and flow more slowly.

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  • 24. 

    Prior to starting on a cold morning, it is advisable to pull the propeller through several times by hand to

    • "break loose" or "limber" the oil, thus conserving battery energy

    • Avoid abraison and damage to propeller tips

    • Conserve gas

    Correct Answer
    A. "break loose" or "limber" the oil, thus conserving battery energy
    Explanation
    Pulling the propeller through several times by hand on a cold morning helps to "break loose" or "limber" the oil. This action ensures that the oil is properly distributed and flowing smoothly before starting the engine. By doing this, it helps conserve battery energy as the engine will have an easier time starting. It is important to note that this action does not directly conserve gas or prevent damage to the propeller tips.

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  • 25. 

    Window Open Speed

    • 180 KIAS

    • 160 KIAS

    • 170 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    A. 160 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 160 KIAS. This is the suggested speed at which the window should be opened.

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  • 26. 

    Maximum baggage capacity

    • 120 lbs

    • 132 lbs

    • 155 lbs

    Correct Answer
    A. 120 lbs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 120 lbs because it is the maximum baggage capacity mentioned in the given options.

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  • 27. 

    Oil level minimum

    • Do not operate with less than 6 quarts of oil

    • Do not operate with less than 5 quarts of oil

    • Do not operate with less than 7 quarts of oil

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not operate with less than 6 quarts of oil
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "do not operate with less than 6 quarts of oil." This means that it is important to maintain a minimum oil level of 6 quarts in order to operate the machinery safely and effectively. Operating with less than 6 quarts of oil can potentially cause damage to the machinery and lead to malfunctions or breakdowns. Therefore, it is essential to follow this guideline to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment.

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  • 28. 

    Touchdown with

    • Power off

    • 1000 RPM

    • Power on, flaps

    Correct Answer
    A. Power off
  • 29. 

    When do you activate ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitters)?

    • 6 Gs

    • 5 Gs

    • 7 Gs

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 Gs
    Explanation
    ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitters) are activated when an aircraft experiences a significant impact or deceleration force, typically around 5 Gs. This force can occur during a crash or emergency landing. ELTs are designed to automatically transmit distress signals to search and rescue authorities, helping them locate the aircraft and initiate rescue operations. Therefore, when an aircraft reaches a deceleration force of around 5 Gs, the ELT is triggered to transmit distress signals, increasing the chances of survival for those on board.

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  • 30. 

    Full flap operating range

    • 41 - 85 kts

    • 65 - 75 kts

    • 80 - 100 kts

    Correct Answer
    A. 41 - 85 kts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 41 - 85 kts. This range represents the full flap operating range of the aircraft. Flaps are aerodynamic surfaces on the wings that are extended to increase lift and drag during takeoff and landing. The range of 41 - 85 kts indicates the speed at which the flaps can be fully extended or retracted without causing any damage to the aircraft or compromising its performance.

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  • 31. 

    Normal operating range for oil pressure

    • 50 - 80 PSI

    • 60 - 90 PSI

    • 70 - 90 PSI

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 - 90 PSI
    Explanation
    The normal operating range for oil pressure in a vehicle is typically between 60 and 90 PSI. This range ensures that there is enough pressure to properly lubricate the engine components and maintain their optimal performance. If the oil pressure falls below 60 PSI, it may indicate a problem with the oil pump or a leak in the system. On the other hand, if the pressure exceeds 90 PSI, it may indicate a blockage or restriction in the oil passages. Therefore, the ideal oil pressure range for normal operation is between 60 and 90 PSI.

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  • 32. 

    Change in engine oil

    • Every 3 months or every 50 hrs whichever comes first

    • Every 6 months or every 100 hrs whichever comes first

    • Every 12 months or every 200 hrs whichever comes first

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 6 months or every 100 hrs whichever comes first
    Explanation
    The correct answer is every 6 months or every 100 hrs whichever comes first. This means that the engine oil should be changed either every 6 months or every 100 hours of usage, whichever comes first. This ensures that the engine is properly lubricated and protected from wear and tear. Regular oil changes help maintain the engine's performance and prolong its lifespan.

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  • 33. 

    Greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance

    • VX

    • VY

    • VA

    Correct Answer
    A. VX
    Explanation
    VX is the correct answer because it refers to the aircraft with the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance. This means that VX has the highest rate of climb, allowing it to reach higher altitudes quickly even when covering a shorter horizontal distance. VY and VA may have different rates of climb, but VX specifically focuses on the combination of altitude gain and distance covered, making it the best choice for the given criteria.

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  • 34. 

    Best Rate of Climb

    • VX

    • VY

    • VA

    Correct Answer
    A. VY
    Explanation
    VY is the best rate of climb. VY refers to the airspeed at which an aircraft will achieve the greatest climb in altitude per unit of time. It is typically used during normal climb operations. VX, on the other hand, refers to the airspeed at which an aircraft will achieve the greatest climb in altitude per unit of distance. VA, or maneuvering speed, is the maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely maneuvered without exceeding its structural limitations. Therefore, VY is the correct answer as it specifically relates to the best rate of climb.

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  • 35. 

    Electrical Fire in Flight

    • Master Switch Off, All other switches off, Vents closed, Fire Ext Activate

    • Master Switch Off, Vents closed, All other switches off, Fire Ext Activate

    • Vents closed, All other switches off, Master Switch Off, Fire Ext Activate

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Switch Off, All other switches off, Vents closed, Fire Ext Activate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Master Switch Off, All other switches off, Vents closed, Fire Ext Activate." This sequence of actions is the most appropriate response to an electrical fire in flight. By turning off the master switch, all electrical power to the aircraft is shut off, reducing the risk of the fire spreading. Turning off all other switches further eliminates potential sources of ignition. Closing the vents helps to prevent the fire from getting more oxygen, which could cause it to spread. Finally, activating the fire extinguisher is the last step in attempting to suppress the fire.

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  • 36. 

    Maximum oil temperature

    • 218 F / 145 C

    • 245 F / 118 C

    • 218 C / 118 F

    Correct Answer
    A. 245 F / 118 C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 245 F / 118 C. This is the maximum temperature at which the oil can be heated without causing damage or degradation. Heating the oil beyond this temperature can lead to the breakdown of its molecular structure and the formation of harmful byproducts. It is important to maintain the oil at a temperature below this limit to ensure its quality and effectiveness.

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  • 37. 

    How many strokes of primer is necessary when starting a cold engine

    • 3 to 5 strokes

    • 2 to 6 strokes

    • 5 to 8 strokes

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 6 strokes
    Explanation
    When starting a cold engine, it is necessary to use a primer to provide fuel to the engine for combustion. The number of strokes required can vary depending on the specific engine and its conditions. The range of 2 to 6 strokes suggests that it may take anywhere from 2 to 6 pushes of the primer to properly prime the engine and ensure a successful start.

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  • 38. 

    Aural warning is provided by stall warning horns between ___ to ___ knots above stall speed in all configurations

    • 8 to 10 knots

    • 5 to 15 knots

    • 5 to 10 knots

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 to 10 knots
    Explanation
    An aural warning is provided by stall warning horns when the aircraft's speed is between 5 to 10 knots above the stall speed, regardless of the configuration of the aircraft. This means that if the aircraft's speed is within this range, the stall warning horns will alert the pilot to the possibility of a stall.

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  • 39. 

    Take off performance - Ground roll to clear 50 ft obstacle

    • 1525 ft

    • 1635 ft

    • 1725 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 1525 ft
    Explanation
    The correct answer for the question is 1525 ft. This means that the aircraft requires a ground roll distance of 1525 ft in order to clear a 50 ft obstacle during takeoff. This measurement is important for pilots to ensure that they have enough runway length available to safely take off and clear any obstacles in their path.

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  • 40. 

    Standard total usable fuel

    • 38 gal

    • 35 gal

    • 42 gal

    Correct Answer
    A. 38 gal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 38 gal. This means that the standard total usable fuel for the given situation is 38 gallons.

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  • 41. 

    Where are the motor flaps located?

    • Left Wing

    • Right Wing

    • Empenage

    Correct Answer
    A. Right Wing
    Explanation
    The motor flaps are located on the right wing.

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  • 42. 

    VNE - Never Exceed Speed

    • 185 KIAS

    • 160 KIAS

    • 170 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    A. 160 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 160 KIAS because VNE, or Never Exceed Speed, refers to the maximum speed at which an aircraft should never exceed in order to avoid potential structural damage or failure. In this case, the VNE for the aircraft is 160 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS), meaning that exceeding this speed could be dangerous and could compromise the integrity of the aircraft's structure.

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  • 43. 

    Max Demonstrated Crosswind Velocity

    • 15 KTS

    • 16 KTS

    • 17 KTS

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 KTS
    Explanation
    The maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity is 15 KTS. This means that the aircraft has been tested and demonstrated to be able to safely operate in crosswinds up to this speed. Crosswinds can pose a challenge during takeoff and landing, as they can affect the aircraft's stability and control. Pilots need to be aware of the crosswind limitations of their aircraft and take appropriate measures to ensure safe operations.

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  • 44. 

    Landing Performance - Ground Roll

    • 420 ft

    • 380 ft

    • 520 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 520 ft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 520 ft. This means that the distance required for the aircraft to come to a complete stop after landing is 520 feet. This measurement includes the ground roll, which is the distance covered by the aircraft while it is still in contact with the ground after landing. A longer ground roll can be influenced by factors such as the weight of the aircraft, the condition of the runway, and the efficiency of the braking system.

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  • 45. 

    Wing span

    • 38 ft

    • 33 ft

    • 36 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 36 ft
    Explanation
    The wing span refers to the distance between the tips of an aircraft's wings. In this case, the correct answer is 36 ft, indicating that the wingspan of the aircraft in question is 36 feet.

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  • 46. 

    Spiral dive

    • Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 70 kts glide

    • Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 90 kts glide

    • Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 80 kts glide

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 70 kts glide
    Explanation
    In a spiral dive, the aircraft is in an uncontrolled descent while also turning. To recover from a spiral dive, the pilot needs to reduce the angle of attack and increase the airspeed. Adjusting the elevator trim control to maintain a 70 kts glide would help achieve this. By reducing the angle of attack and increasing the airspeed, the pilot can regain control and level the aircraft. Maintaining a specific glide speed is crucial in order to prevent further loss of control and to safely recover from the spiral dive.

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  • 47. 

    Cruise power

    • 2200 - 2700

    • 1900 - 2200

    • 1500 - 2100

    Correct Answer
    A. 2200 - 2700
    Explanation
    The given answer range of 2200 - 2700 is the correct answer for the cruise power. This suggests that the power required for cruising falls within this range.

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  • 48. 

    Maximum Structural Cruising Speed

    • VNO

    • VA

    • VY

    Correct Answer
    A. VNO
    Explanation
    VNO stands for Maximum Structural Cruising Speed, which is the maximum speed at which an aircraft can be flown without causing damage to its structure. This speed is determined by the manufacturer and is indicated on the aircraft's airspeed indicator. Flying at speeds higher than VNO can result in structural damage or failure, so it is important for pilots to adhere to this limit to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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  • 49. 

    Green Arc (Normal Operating Range)

    • 41 - 85 kts

    • 47 - 128 kts

    • 128 - 160 kts

    Correct Answer
    A. 47 - 128 kts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 47 - 128 kts. This range represents the green arc or normal operating range for the aircraft's airspeed. Flying within this range ensures that the aircraft is operating at a safe and efficient speed. Speeds below 47 kts may be too slow and could result in a stall, while speeds above 128 kts may be too fast and could exceed the aircraft's structural limitations.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 13, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 13, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Rion Sigaya
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