Ppl - Eqc C172m

By Rion Sigaya
Rion Sigaya, 3D animator
Jan Michael 'Rion' Sigaya, a former 3D animator turned licensed pilot with a Flight Instructor (FI) license, adeptly navigated the skies before unforeseen pandemic challenges led him back to his roots in the world of 3D animation.
Quizzes Created: 17 | Total Attempts: 216,143
, 3D animator
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Ppl - Eqc C172m - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Service ceiling of C172M

    • A.

      13,100 ft

    • B.

      13,000 ft

    • C.

      13,300 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 13,100 ft
    Explanation
    The service ceiling of the C172M is the maximum altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a steady rate of climb of 100 feet per minute. In this case, the correct answer is 13,100 ft, as it is the highest altitude listed among the options provided.

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  • 2. 

    Maximum engine speed

    • A.

      2700 RPM

    • B.

      3700 RPM

    • C.

      2500 RPM

    Correct Answer
    A. 2700 RPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2700 RPM. This indicates that the maximum speed at which the engine can operate is 2700 revolutions per minute.

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  • 3. 

    Stall speed, flaps up, power off

    • A.

      47 kts

    • B.

      57 kts

    • C.

      67 kts

    Correct Answer
    A. 47 kts
    Explanation
    The stall speed with flaps up and power off is 47 kts. This means that when the aircraft is flying at or below this speed with the flaps up and no power applied, it will lose lift and enter a stall. The stall speed is an important parameter for pilots to be aware of as it helps determine the minimum speed at which the aircraft can safely fly.

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  • 4. 

    Normal operating range at 5000 ft

    • A.

      3200 to 3600 RPM

    • B.

      1200 to 2600 RPM

    • C.

      2200 to 2600 RPM

    Correct Answer
    C. 2200 to 2600 RPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer of 2200 to 2600 RPM indicates the normal operating range at an altitude of 5000 ft. This range specifies the recommended revolutions per minute for the engine to operate efficiently and effectively at this altitude. RPM values below or above this range may result in suboptimal performance or potential damage to the engine.

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  • 5. 

    Change in engine oil

    • A.

      Every 3 months or every 50 hrs whichever comes first

    • B.

      Every 6 months or every 100 hrs whichever comes first

    • C.

      Every 12 months or every 200 hrs whichever comes first

    Correct Answer
    B. Every 6 months or every 100 hrs whichever comes first
    Explanation
    The correct answer is every 6 months or every 100 hrs whichever comes first. This means that the engine oil should be changed either every 6 months or every 100 hours of usage, whichever comes first. This ensures that the engine is properly lubricated and protected from wear and tear. Regular oil changes help maintain the engine's performance and prolong its lifespan.

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  • 6. 

    Fuel selector valve

    • A.

      On both during take-off 

    • B.

      On both during landing

    • C.

      On both during take-off and landing

    Correct Answer
    C. On both during take-off and landing
    Explanation
    The fuel selector valve needs to be turned on during both take-off and landing to ensure a continuous supply of fuel to the engine. During take-off, the engine requires maximum power, and having the fuel selector valve on ensures that there is enough fuel for this. Similarly, during landing, the engine needs to be running smoothly for a safe touchdown, and having the fuel selector valve on ensures a consistent fuel supply. Therefore, it is important to have the fuel selector valve on during both take-off and landing.

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  • 7. 

    Use of flaps 10

    • A.

      Shorten ground run by 10%

    • B.

      Shorten ground run by 15%

    • C.

      Shorten ground run by 20%

    Correct Answer
    A. Shorten ground run by 10%
    Explanation
    The use of flaps 10 on an aircraft can shorten the ground run by 10%. Flaps are aerodynamic devices on the wings that can be extended to increase lift and decrease the stall speed of an aircraft. By setting the flaps to a 10-degree angle, the aircraft generates more lift at lower speeds during takeoff, allowing it to become airborne sooner and reducing the distance required for the ground run. This results in a 10% reduction in the length of the ground run compared to not using flaps or using a different flap setting.

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  • 8. 

    Touchdown with

    • A.

      Power off

    • B.

      1000 RPM

    • C.

      Power on, flaps

    Correct Answer
    A. Power off
  • 9. 

    Load Factor

    • A.

      15.3

    • B.

      13.5

    • C.

      14.4

    Correct Answer
    A. 15.3
    Explanation
    The load factor refers to the ratio of the actual load on a system to the maximum possible load that the system can handle. In this context, the correct answer of 15.3 suggests that the system is currently operating at a load factor of 15.3, indicating that the system is being utilized at 15.3% of its maximum capacity. This could imply that there is still room for additional load to be handled by the system without causing any performance issues.

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  • 10. 

    Steep climb angle

    • A.

      48 kts, flaps retracted (takeoff obstacle)

    • B.

      68 kts, flaps retracted (takeoff obstacle)

    • C.

      58 kts, flaps retracted (takeoff obstacle)

    Correct Answer
    C. 58 kts, flaps retracted (takeoff obstacle)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 58 kts, flaps retracted (takeoff obstacle). This is because a steep climb angle is required to clear obstacles during takeoff. The higher the speed, the more lift the aircraft generates, allowing it to climb at a steeper angle. Therefore, the highest speed listed (58 kts) would provide the best performance for clearing obstacles during takeoff with the flaps retracted.

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  • 11. 

    Maximum allowable RPM differential between magnetos

    • A.

      135 RPM, 70 RPM differential

    • B.

      105 RPM, 60 RPM differential

    • C.

      125 RPM, 50 RPM differential

    Correct Answer
    C. 125 RPM, 50 RPM differential
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable RPM differential between magnetos is 125 RPM with a 50 RPM differential. This means that the two magnetos can have a maximum difference in RPM of 50, with the higher RPM not exceeding 125. This ensures that the magnetos are operating within a safe range and helps maintain engine balance and performance.

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  • 12. 

    Short field landing

    • A.

      69 kts, flaps 20

    • B.

      59 kts, flaps 40

    • C.

      79 kts, flaps 10

    Correct Answer
    B. 59 kts, flaps 40
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 59 kts, flaps 40. This is because short field landings require a lower approach speed and a higher angle of descent in order to land on a shorter runway. Flaps 40 provides the highest amount of lift and drag, allowing for a steeper approach angle and slower airspeed. This combination of a slower airspeed and steeper descent angle helps the aircraft touch down on a shorter distance.

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  • 13. 

    Electrical Fire in Flight

    • A.

      Master Switch Off, All other switches off, Vents closed, Fire Ext Activate

    • B.

      Master Switch Off, Vents closed, All other switches off, Fire Ext Activate

    • C.

      Vents closed, All other switches off, Master Switch Off, Fire Ext Activate

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Switch Off, All other switches off, Vents closed, Fire Ext Activate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Master Switch Off, All other switches off, Vents closed, Fire Ext Activate." This sequence of actions is the most appropriate response to an electrical fire in flight. By turning off the master switch, all electrical power to the aircraft is shut off, reducing the risk of the fire spreading. Turning off all other switches further eliminates potential sources of ignition. Closing the vents helps to prevent the fire from getting more oxygen, which could cause it to spread. Finally, activating the fire extinguisher is the last step in attempting to suppress the fire.

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  • 14. 

    RPM at static/take-off power check

    • A.

      2200 - 2300 RPM

    • B.

      2250 - 2350 RPM

    • C.

      2270 - 2370 RPM

    Correct Answer
    C. 2270 - 2370 RPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2270 - 2370 RPM. This range of RPM is the appropriate range for the static/take-off power check. It ensures that the engine is operating at the correct power level during take-off and allows for optimal performance.

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  • 15. 

    Emergency landing without engine power

    • A.

      60-70 kts (flaps up), 55-65 kts (flaps down)

    • B.

      50-60 kts (flaps up), 55-65 kts (flaps down)

    • C.

      70-80 kts (flaps up), 65-75 kts (flaps down)

    Correct Answer
    A. 60-70 kts (flaps up), 55-65 kts (flaps down)
    Explanation
    This answer provides the appropriate airspeed range for an emergency landing without engine power. The airspeed range is given for two different flap positions: flaps up and flaps down. The range for flaps up is 60-70 knots, indicating the recommended airspeed when the flaps are fully retracted. The range for flaps down is 55-65 knots, indicating the recommended airspeed when the flaps are fully extended. These airspeed ranges are important for maintaining control and stability during an emergency landing without engine power.

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  • 16. 

    Engine Failure After Takeoff

    • A.

      AS 75kts, Fuel Selector Valve off, Mixture off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off

    • B.

      AS 65mph, Ignition off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Mixture off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off

    • C.

      AS 65kts, Mixture off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off

    Correct Answer
    C. AS 65kts, Mixture off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AS 65kts, Mixture off, Fuel Selector Valve off, Ignition off, Wing Flaps as req, Master off. This answer suggests the correct sequence of actions to take in the event of an engine failure after takeoff. By reducing the airspeed to 65 knots, turning off the mixture, fuel selector valve, and ignition, adjusting the wing flaps as necessary, and finally turning off the master switch, the pilot can effectively manage the situation and minimize the risk of further complications.

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  • 17. 

    RPM during magneto check

    • A.

      1700 RPM

    • B.

      1400 RPM

    • C.

      1600 RPM

    Correct Answer
    A. 1700 RPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1700 RPM. During a magneto check, the RPM (revolutions per minute) is typically checked to ensure that the magneto is functioning properly. In this case, the RPM is measured at 1700, indicating that the magneto is working correctly. The other options of 1400 RPM and 1600 RPM are not the correct answers as they do not match the given measurement of 1700 RPM.

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  • 18. 

    Suction gauge normal operating range

    • A.

      4.6 - 5.4

    • B.

      4.5 - 5.5

    • C.

      4.4 - 5.6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.6 - 5.4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4.6 - 5.4. This range indicates the normal operating range for the suction gauge. It means that the suction pressure should ideally be between 4.6 and 5.4 units. Any pressure reading within this range would be considered normal and within the acceptable limits for the suction gauge.

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  • 19. 

    Max Flaps Extended

    • A.

      VNE

    • B.

      VFE

    • C.

      VA

    Correct Answer
    B. VFE
    Explanation
    VFE stands for "Maximum Flap Extended Speed." This is the highest speed at which the aircraft's flaps can be fully extended without causing damage or compromising safety. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to prevent structural damage to the flaps and maintain control of the aircraft during takeoff and landing.

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  • 20. 

    During normal take-off, what is the airspeed

    • A.

      65 - 75 kts

    • B.

      55 - 65 kts

    • C.

      75 - 85 kts

    Correct Answer
    B. 55 - 65 kts
    Explanation
    During normal take-off, the airspeed is expected to be between 55 - 65 kts. This range allows for a safe and efficient takeoff, providing enough speed for the aircraft to generate lift and become airborne without excessive strain on the engine or other components. Going below this range may result in inadequate lift and difficulty in getting off the ground, while exceeding this range may lead to excessive speed and potential safety risks.

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  • 21. 

    Prior to starting on a cold morning, it is advisable to pull the propeller through several times by hand to

    • A.

      "break loose" or "limber" the oil, thus conserving battery energy

    • B.

      Avoid abraison and damage to propeller tips

    • C.

      Conserve gas

    Correct Answer
    A. "break loose" or "limber" the oil, thus conserving battery energy
    Explanation
    Pulling the propeller through several times by hand on a cold morning helps to "break loose" or "limber" the oil. This action ensures that the oil is properly distributed and flowing smoothly before starting the engine. By doing this, it helps conserve battery energy as the engine will have an easier time starting. It is important to note that this action does not directly conserve gas or prevent damage to the propeller tips.

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  • 22. 

    Ditching

    • A.

      Flaps 10, 500ft/min rate of decent at 70 kts

    • B.

      Flaps 40, 300ft/min rate of decent at 60 kts

    • C.

      Flaps 20, 300ft/min rate of decent at 75 kts

    Correct Answer
    B. Flaps 40, 300ft/min rate of decent at 60 kts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "flaps 40, 300ft/min rate of descent at 60 kts". This is because when the flaps are set at 40, the aircraft experiences a rate of descent of 300ft/min at a speed of 60 kts. The other options either have a different rate of descent or a different airspeed, making them incorrect.

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  • 23. 

    Never Exceed Speed

    • A.

      VNO

    • B.

      VNE

    • C.

      VS0

    Correct Answer
    B. VNE
    Explanation
    VNE stands for Never Exceed Speed, which is the maximum speed at which an aircraft should never be flown, as exceeding this speed can cause structural damage or failure. It is an important limitation set by the aircraft manufacturer to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants. Flying above VNE can result in loss of control, increased aerodynamic forces, and potential structural failure. Therefore, pilots must always adhere to this speed limitation to prevent any potential risks or accidents.

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  • 24. 

    Aural warning is provided by stall warning horns between ___ to ___ knots above stall speed in all configurations

    • A.

      8 to 10 knots

    • B.

      5 to 15 knots

    • C.

      5 to 10 knots

    Correct Answer
    C. 5 to 10 knots
    Explanation
    An aural warning is provided by stall warning horns when the aircraft's speed is between 5 to 10 knots above the stall speed, regardless of the configuration of the aircraft. This means that if the aircraft's speed is within this range, the stall warning horns will alert the pilot to the possibility of a stall.

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  • 25. 

    Minimum fuel rating

    • A.

      80/87 octane

    • B.

      100 LL

    • C.

      100/130

    Correct Answer
    A. 80/87 octane
    Explanation
    The given options represent different types of fuel ratings. The correct answer, 80/87 octane, refers to the minimum fuel rating required for certain types of engines. Octane rating is a measure of a fuel's ability to resist "knocking" or "pinging" during combustion, which can cause damage to the engine. 80/87 octane fuel is commonly used in general aviation piston engines, as it provides a good balance between performance and cost. This fuel rating is lower than the other options listed, indicating that it is the minimum requirement for the engines in question.

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  • 26. 

    Maximum Structural Cruising Speed

    • A.

      VNO

    • B.

      VA

    • C.

      VY

    Correct Answer
    A. VNO
    Explanation
    VNO stands for Maximum Structural Cruising Speed, which is the maximum speed at which an aircraft can be flown without causing damage to its structure. This speed is determined by the manufacturer and is indicated on the aircraft's airspeed indicator. Flying at speeds higher than VNO can result in structural damage or failure, so it is important for pilots to adhere to this limit to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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  • 27. 

    Maneuvering Speed

    • A.

      VNO

    • B.

      VA

    • C.

      VS0

    Correct Answer
    B. VA
    Explanation
    VA refers to the maneuvering speed of an aircraft. It is the maximum speed at which abrupt control inputs can be made without causing structural damage to the aircraft. Operating above this speed may result in exceeding the aircraft's structural limits, leading to potential damage or failure. VA is an important speed for pilots to be aware of, as it ensures safe maneuvering during flight.

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  • 28. 

    Spiral dive

    • A.

      Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 70 kts glide

    • B.

      Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 90 kts glide

    • C.

      Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 80 kts glide

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjust elevator trim control to maintain a 70 kts glide
    Explanation
    In a spiral dive, the aircraft is in an uncontrolled descent while also turning. To recover from a spiral dive, the pilot needs to reduce the angle of attack and increase the airspeed. Adjusting the elevator trim control to maintain a 70 kts glide would help achieve this. By reducing the angle of attack and increasing the airspeed, the pilot can regain control and level the aircraft. Maintaining a specific glide speed is crucial in order to prevent further loss of control and to safely recover from the spiral dive.

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  • 29. 

    Stalling Speed or Min Steady Flight Speed in Landing Config

    • A.

      VFE

    • B.

      VX

    • C.

      VS0

    Correct Answer
    C. VS0
    Explanation
    VS0 refers to the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration. It is the lowest speed at which an aircraft can maintain controlled flight without stalling. This speed is crucial during landing as it determines the minimum speed at which the aircraft can safely touch down on the runway. Therefore, VS0 is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 30. 

    Greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance

    • A.

      VX

    • B.

      VY

    • C.

      VA

    Correct Answer
    A. VX
    Explanation
    VX is the correct answer because it refers to the aircraft with the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance. This means that VX has the highest rate of climb, allowing it to reach higher altitudes quickly even when covering a shorter horizontal distance. VY and VA may have different rates of climb, but VX specifically focuses on the combination of altitude gain and distance covered, making it the best choice for the given criteria.

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  • 31. 

    Maximum speed at which you may use abrupt control travel

    • A.

      105 kts

    • B.

      102 kts

    • C.

      75 kts

    Correct Answer
    B. 102 kts
    Explanation
    The maximum speed at which you may use abrupt control travel is 102 kts. This means that if you exceed this speed, using abrupt control movements can be dangerous and may lead to loss of control of the aircraft. It is important to maintain smooth and gradual control inputs at higher speeds to ensure safe and stable flight.

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  • 32. 

    Cruise power

    • A.

      2200 - 2700

    • B.

      1900 - 2200

    • C.

      1500 - 2100

    Correct Answer
    A. 2200 - 2700
    Explanation
    The given answer range of 2200 - 2700 is the correct answer for the cruise power. This suggests that the power required for cruising falls within this range.

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  • 33. 

    Best Rate of Climb

    • A.

      VX

    • B.

      VY

    • C.

      VA

    Correct Answer
    B. VY
    Explanation
    VY is the best rate of climb. VY refers to the airspeed at which an aircraft will achieve the greatest climb in altitude per unit of time. It is typically used during normal climb operations. VX, on the other hand, refers to the airspeed at which an aircraft will achieve the greatest climb in altitude per unit of distance. VA, or maneuvering speed, is the maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely maneuvered without exceeding its structural limitations. Therefore, VY is the correct answer as it specifically relates to the best rate of climb.

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  • 34. 

    Where are the motor flaps located?

    • A.

      Left Wing

    • B.

      Right Wing

    • C.

      Empenage

    Correct Answer
    B. Right Wing
    Explanation
    The motor flaps are located on the right wing.

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  • 35. 

    Level the nose should restore power within _____ to raise air temp - 1/4 - 1/2

    • A.

      10 seconds

    • B.

      15 seconds

    • C.

      20 seconds

    Correct Answer
    C. 20 seconds
    Explanation
    Leveling the nose of an aircraft helps to restore power within a certain time frame in order to raise the air temperature. In this case, the correct answer is 20 seconds. This means that by leveling the nose for 20 seconds, the aircraft will be able to restore power and raise the air temperature accordingly.

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  • 36. 

    When do you activate ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitters)?

    • A.

      6 Gs

    • B.

      5 Gs

    • C.

      7 Gs

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 Gs
    Explanation
    ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitters) are activated when an aircraft experiences a significant impact or deceleration force, typically around 5 Gs. This force can occur during a crash or emergency landing. ELTs are designed to automatically transmit distress signals to search and rescue authorities, helping them locate the aircraft and initiate rescue operations. Therefore, when an aircraft reaches a deceleration force of around 5 Gs, the ELT is triggered to transmit distress signals, increasing the chances of survival for those on board.

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  • 37. 

    VNE - Never Exceed Speed

    • A.

      185 KIAS

    • B.

      160 KIAS

    • C.

      170 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    B. 160 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 160 KIAS because VNE, or Never Exceed Speed, refers to the maximum speed at which an aircraft should never exceed in order to avoid potential structural damage or failure. In this case, the VNE for the aircraft is 160 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS), meaning that exceeding this speed could be dangerous and could compromise the integrity of the aircraft's structure.

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  • 38. 

    VNO - Maximum Structural Cruising Speed

    • A.

      128 KIAS

    • B.

      125 KIAS

    • C.

      133 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    A. 128 KIAS
    Explanation
    The given answer of 128 KIAS (Knots Indicated Airspeed) is the correct one for the maximum structural cruising speed (VNO) of the aircraft in question. This means that the aircraft should not exceed this speed in normal operation to ensure the structural integrity of the aircraft is not compromised. The other options of 125 KIAS and 133 KIAS are not the correct answers for the maximum structural cruising speed.

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  • 39. 

    VFE - Max Flaps Extended

    • A.

      83 KIAS

    • B.

      85 KIAS

    • C.

      75 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    B. 85 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 85 KIAS. VFE stands for the maximum speed at which the flaps can be extended safely. In this case, the maximum flaps extended speed is 85 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS). This means that the aircraft should not exceed this speed when the flaps are fully extended to avoid any potential damage or loss of control.

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  • 40. 

    Upon spin recovery, regardless of how many turns the spin and how it is entered, the following technique should always be used

    • A.

      Verify that the throttle is in idle position and all ailerons are neutral

    • B.

      Apply and hold full rudder opposite to the direction of the rotation

    • C.

      Just after the rudder reaches the stop, move the control wheel briskly forward far enough to break the stall

    • D.

      Hold these control inputs until rotation stops

    • E.

      As the rotation stops, neutralize rudder and make a smooth recovery from the resulting dive

    • F.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    F. All of the above
    Explanation
    The given technique for spin recovery should always be used regardless of how the spin is entered or how many turns the spin has. It involves verifying that the throttle is in idle position and all ailerons are neutral, applying and holding full rudder opposite to the direction of rotation, moving the control wheel briskly forward to break the stall, and holding these control inputs until rotation stops. Once the rotation stops, the rudder should be neutralized and a smooth recovery from the resulting dive should be made. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct.

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  • 41. 

    Window Open Speed

    • A.

      180 KIAS

    • B.

      160 KIAS

    • C.

      170 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    B. 160 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 160 KIAS. This is the suggested speed at which the window should be opened.

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  • 42. 

    Primary Flight Instrument for nose up and nose down reference

    • A.

      Altimeter for primary check, VSI for supporting check

    • B.

      VSI for primary check, altimeter for supporting check

    • C.

      Use heading indicator for primary check, turn coordinator for supporting check

    • D.

      Use turn coordinator for primary check, heading indicator for supporting check

    Correct Answer
    A. Altimeter for primary check, VSI for supporting check
    Explanation
    The altimeter is used as the primary flight instrument for nose up and nose down reference. It provides the pilot with information about the aircraft's altitude, which is crucial for maintaining the desired pitch attitude. The VSI (Vertical Speed Indicator) is used as a supporting check, providing information about the rate of climb or descent. While the altimeter gives a more immediate indication of the aircraft's pitch, the VSI can confirm the trend and help the pilot cross-check the altitude changes.

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  • 43. 

    VA - Maneuvering Speed - 2300 lbs

    • A.

      97 KIAS

    • B.

      95 KIAS

    • C.

      98 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    A. 97 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 97 KIAS. Maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at which full control deflection can be applied without causing structural damage to the aircraft. In this case, the maneuvering speed for an aircraft weighing 2300 lbs is 97 KIAS, indicating that the aircraft can safely perform maneuvers at this speed without risking structural integrity.

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  • 44. 

    VA - Maneuvering Speed - 1950 lbs

    • A.

      85 KIAS

    • B.

      89 KIAS

    • C.

      90 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    B. 89 KIAS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 89 KIAS. Maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at which full control deflections can be applied without causing structural damage to the aircraft. It is important to stay below this speed during aggressive maneuvers or turbulence. In this case, the maneuvering speed for an aircraft weighing 1950 lbs is 89 KIAS.

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  • 45. 

    VA - Maneuvering Speed - 1600 lbs

    • A.

      75 KIAS

    • B.

      89 KIAS

    • C.

      80 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    C. 80 KIAS
    Explanation
    Maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely maneuvered without exceeding its structural limits. It is important to stay within this speed to prevent excessive stress on the aircraft's structure, especially during abrupt maneuvers. In this case, the correct answer is 80 KIAS, indicating that the aircraft's maneuvering speed is 80 knots indicated airspeed.

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  • 46. 

    VY - Best Rate of Climb

    • A.

      78 KTS / 68 KTS at 10,000ft

    • B.

      68 KTS / 58 KTS at 10,000ft

    • C.

      88 KTS / 78 KTS at 10,000ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 78 KTS / 68 KTS at 10,000ft
    Explanation
    The given answer indicates that the best rate of climb for VY (best rate of climb speed) is 78 KTS (knots) indicated airspeed and 68 KTS true airspeed at 10,000 feet altitude. This means that at this specific altitude, the aircraft will achieve the maximum climb performance in terms of altitude gained per unit of time by maintaining an indicated airspeed of 78 KTS and a true airspeed of 68 KTS.

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  • 47. 

    VX - Best angle of climb

    • A.

      64 KTS / 62 KTS at 10,000ft

    • B.

      78 KTS / 68 KTS at 10,000ft

    • C.

      74 KTS / 72 KTS at 10,000ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 64 KTS / 62 KTS at 10,000ft
    Explanation
    The given answer states that the best angle of climb for VX is 64 KTS at 10,000ft. This means that at this airspeed, the aircraft will achieve the greatest altitude gain per unit of horizontal distance traveled. Additionally, the answer states that the best rate of climb for VX is 62 KTS at 10,000ft. This means that at this airspeed, the aircraft will achieve the greatest altitude gain per unit of time. Therefore, the combination of 64 KTS for best angle of climb and 62 KTS for best rate of climb is the correct answer.

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  • 48. 

    Primary Flight Instrument for bank reference

    • A.

      Use heading indicator for primary check, turn coordinator for supporting check

    • B.

      Use turn coordinator for primary check, heading indicator for supporting check

    • C.

      Use airspeed indicator for primary check, tachometer for supporting check

    • D.

      Use tachometer for primary check, airspeed indicator for supporting check

    Correct Answer
    A. Use heading indicator for primary check, turn coordinator for supporting check
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to use the heading indicator for primary check and the turn coordinator for supporting check. The heading indicator provides a reliable indication of the aircraft's heading, which is essential for bank reference during flight. The turn coordinator, on the other hand, provides additional information about the rate and quality of the turn, supporting the information provided by the heading indicator. Together, these instruments help the pilot maintain accurate control of the aircraft's bank angle.

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  • 49. 

    Full flap operating range

    • A.

      41 - 85 kts

    • B.

      65 - 75 kts

    • C.

      80 - 100 kts

    Correct Answer
    A. 41 - 85 kts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 41 - 85 kts. This range represents the full flap operating range of the aircraft. Flaps are aerodynamic surfaces on the wings that are extended to increase lift and drag during takeoff and landing. The range of 41 - 85 kts indicates the speed at which the flaps can be fully extended or retracted without causing any damage to the aircraft or compromising its performance.

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  • 50. 

    Maximum oil temperature

    • A.

      218 F / 145 C

    • B.

      245 F / 118 C

    • C.

      218 C / 118 F

    Correct Answer
    B. 245 F / 118 C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 245 F / 118 C. This is the maximum temperature at which the oil can be heated without causing damage or degradation. Heating the oil beyond this temperature can lead to the breakdown of its molecular structure and the formation of harmful byproducts. It is important to maintain the oil at a temperature below this limit to ensure its quality and effectiveness.

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Rion Sigaya |3D animator |
Jan Michael 'Rion' Sigaya, a former 3D animator turned licensed pilot with a Flight Instructor (FI) license, adeptly navigated the skies before unforeseen pandemic challenges led him back to his roots in the world of 3D animation.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 06, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 13, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Rion Sigaya
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