Computer Networks And Security Exams Prep Test

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which email security solution provides two major usage modes: (1) signed messages that provide integrity, sender authentication, and nonrepudiation; and (2) an enveloped message mode that provides integrity, sender authentication, and confidentiality?

    • S/MIME
    • MOSS
    • PEM
    • DKIM
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Network Security Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This Computer Networks and Security Exams Prep Test assesses knowledge on network protocols, wireless standards, and security measures. It evaluates understanding of Frame Relay, TCP flags, wireless modes, and secure network protocols, crucial for professionals in IT and network security.


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  • 2. 

    Ben is designing a Wi-Fi network and has been asked to choose the most secure option for the network. Which wireless security standard should he choose?

    • WPA2

    • WPA

    • WEP

    • AES

    Correct Answer
    A. WPA2
    Explanation
    WPA2, the replacement for WPA, does not suffer from the security issues that
    WEP, the original wireless security protocol, and WPA, its successor, both suffer from.
    AES is used in WPA2 but is not specifically a wireless security standard.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Chris is setting up a hotel network, and needs to ensure that systems in each room or suite can connect to each other, but systems in other suites or rooms cannot. At the same time, he needs to ensure that all systems in the hotel can reach the Internet. What solution should he recommend as the most effective business solution?

    • Per-room VPNs

    • VLANs

    • Port security

    • Firewalls

    Correct Answer
    A. VLANs
    Explanation
    VLANs can be used to logically separate groups of network ports while still
    providing access to an uplink. Per-room VPNs would create significant overhead for
    support as well as create additional expenses. Port security is used to limit what
    systems can connect to ports, but it doesn’t provide network security between
    systems. Finally, while firewalls might work, they would add additional expense and
    complexity without adding any benefits over a VLAN solution.

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  • 4. 

    What network topology is shown in the image below?

    • A ring

    • A bus

    • A star

    • A mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. A ring
    Explanation
    A ring connects all systems like points on a circle. A ring topology was used with
    Token Ring networks, and a token was passed between systems around the ring to
    allow each system to communicate. More modern networks may be described as a ring
    but are only physically a ring and not logically using a ring topology.

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  • 5. 

    What network topology is shown in the image below?

    • A ring

    • A star

    • A bus

    • A mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. A bus
    Explanation
    A bus can be linear or tree-shaped and connects each system to trunk or backbone
    cable. Ethernet networks operate on a bus topology.

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  • 6. 

    What network topology is shown below?

    • A ring

    • A bus

    • A star

    • A mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. A mesh
    Explanation
    Fully connected mesh networks provide each system with a direct physical link to
    every other system in the mesh. This is very expensive but can provide performance
    advantages for specific types of computational work.

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  • 7. 

    Ben is an information security professional at an organization that is replacing its physical servers with virtual machines. As the organization builds its virtual environment, it is decreasing the number of physical servers it uses while purchasing more powerful servers to act as the virtualization platforms.Ben is concerned about exploits that allow VM escape. What option should Ben suggest to help limit the impact of VM escape exploits?

    • Separate virtual machines onto separate physical hardware based on task or data types.

    • Use VM escape detection tools on the underlying hypervisor.

    • Restore machines to their original snapshots on a regular basis.

    • Use a utility like Tripwire to look for changes in the virtual machines.

    Correct Answer
    A. Separate virtual machines onto separate physical hardware based on task or data types.
    Explanation
    While virtual machine escape has only been demonstrated in laboratory
    environments, the threat is best dealt with by limiting what access to the underlying
    hypervisor can prove to a successful tracker. Segmenting by data types or access levels
    can limit the potential impact of a hypervisor compromise. If attackers can access the
    underlying system, restricting the breach to only similar data types or systems will
    limit the impact. Escape detection tools are not available on the market, restoring
    machines to their original snapshots will not prevent the exploit from occuring again,
    and Tripwire detects file changes and is unlikely to catch exploits that escape the
    virtual machines themselves.

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  • 8. 

    Which authentication protocol commonly used for PPP links encrypts both the username and password and uses a challenge/response dialog that cannot be replayed and periodically reauthenticates remote systems throughout its use in a session?

    • PAP

    • CHAP

    • EAP

    • LEAP

    Correct Answer
    A. CHAP
    Explanation
    The Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol, or CHAP, is used by PPP
    servers to authenticate remote clients. It encrypts both the username and password
    and performs periodic reauthentication while connected using techniques to prevent
    replay attacks. LEAP provides reauthentication but was designed for WEP, while PAP
    sends passwords unencrypted. EAP is extensible and was used for PPP connections,
    but it doesn’t directly address the listed items.

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  • 9. 

    What type of attack is most likely to occur after a successful ARP spoofing attempt?

    • A DoS attack

    • A Trojan

    • A replay attack

    • A man-in-the-middle attack

    Correct Answer
    A. A man-in-the-middle attack
    Explanation
    ARP spoofing is often done to replace a target’s cache entry for a destination IP,
    allowing the attacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. A denial of service attack
    would be aimed at disrupting services rather than spoofing an ARP response, a replay
    attack will involve existing sessions, and a Trojan is malware that is disguised in a way
    that makes it look harmless.

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  • 10. 

    An attack that causes a service to fail by exhausting all of a system’s resources is what type of attack?

    • A worm

    • A denial of service attack

    • A virus

    • A smurf attack

    Correct Answer
    A. A denial of service attack
    Explanation
    A denial of service attack is an attack that causes a service to fail or to be
    unavailable. Exhausting a system’s resources to cause a service to fail is a common
    form of denial of service attack. A worm is a self-replicating form of malware that
    propagates via a network, a virus is a type of malware that can copy itself to spread,
    and a Smurf attack is a distributed denial of service attack (DDoS) that spoofs a
    victim’s IP address to systems using an IP broadcast, resulting in traffic from all of
    those systems to the target.

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  • 11. 

    Lauren uses the ping utility to check whether a remote system is up as part of a penetration testing exercise. If she wants to filter ping out by protocol, what protocol should she filter out from her packet sniffer’s logs?

    • UDP

    • TCP

    • IP

    • ICMP

    Correct Answer
    A. ICMP
    Explanation
    Ping uses ICMP, the Internet Control Message Protocol, to determine whether a
    system responds and how many hops there are between the originating system and
    the remote system. Lauren simply needs to filter out ICMP to not see her pings.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Ben has deployed a 1000Base-T 1 gigabit network and needs to run a cable to another building. If Ben is running his link directly from a switch to another switch in that building, what is the maximum distance Ben can cover according to the 1000Base-T specification?

    • 2 kilometers

    • 500 meters

    • 185 meters

    • 100 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 meters
    Explanation
    1000Base-T is capable of a 100 meter run according to its specifications. For longer
    distances, a fiber-optic cable is typically used in modern networks.

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  • 13. 

    What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network?

    • 255.0.0.0

    • 255.255.0.0

    • 255.254.0.0

    • 255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 255.255.0.0
    Explanation
    A Class B network holds 2^16 systems, and its default network mask is 255.255.0.0.

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  • 14. 

    A phreaking tool used to manipulate line voltages to steal long-distance service is known as what type of box?

    • A black box

    • A red box

    • A blue box

    • A white box

    Correct Answer
    A. A black box
    Explanation
    Black boxes are designed to steal long-distance service by manipulating line
    voltages. Red boxes simulate tones of coins being deposited into payphones; blue
    boxes were tone generators used to simulate the tones used for telephone networks;
    and white boxes included a dual tone, multifrequency generator to control phone
    systems.

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  • 15. 

    What type of network device modulates between an analog carrier signal and digital information for computer communications?

    • A bridge

    • A router

    • A brouter

    • A modem

    Correct Answer
    A. A modem
    Explanation
    A modem (MOdulator/DEModulator) modulates between an analog carrier like a
    phone line and digital communications like those used between computers. While
    modems aren’t in heavy use in most areas, they are still in place for system control
    and remote system contact and in areas where phone lines are available but other
    forms of communication are too expensive or not available.

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  • 16. 

    During a forensic investigation, Charles is able to determine the Media Access Control address of a system that was connected to a compromised network. Charles knows that MAC addresses are tied back to a manufacturer or vendor and are part of the fingerprint of the system. To which OSI layer does a MAC address belong?

    • The Application layer

    • The Session layer

    • The Physical layer

    • The Data Link layer

    Correct Answer
    A. The Data Link layer
    Explanation
    MAC addresses and their organizationally unique identifiers are used at the Data
    Link layer to identify systems on a network. The Application and Session layers don’t
    care about physical addresses, while the Physical layer involves electrical connectivity
    and handling physical interfaces rather than addressing.

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  • 17. 

    What common security issue is often overlooked with cordless phones?

    • Their signal is rarely encrypted and thus can be easily monitored.

    • They use unlicensed frequencies.

    • They can allow attackers access to wireless networks.

    • They are rarely patched and are vulnerable to malware.

    Correct Answer
    A. Their signal is rarely encrypted and thus can be easily monitored.
    Explanation
    Most cordless phones don’t use encryption, and even modern phones that use
    DECT (which does provide encryption) have already been cracked. This means that a
    determined attacker can almost always eavesdrop on cordless phones, and makes
    them a security risk if they’re used for confidential communication.

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  • 18. 

    What type of firewall design is shown in the image below?

    • Single tier

    • Two tier

    • Three tier

    • Next generation

    Correct Answer
    A. Single tier
    Explanation
    A single-tier firewall deployment is very simple and does not offer useful design
    options like a DMZ or separate transaction subnets.

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  • 19. 

    During a review of her organization’s network, Angela discovered that it was suffering from broadcast storms and that contractors, guests, and organizational administrative staff were on the same network segment. What design change should Angela recommend?

    • Require encryption for all users.

    • Install a firewall at the network border.

    • Enable spanning tree loop detection.

    • Segment the network based on functional requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Segment the network based on functional requirements.
    Explanation
    Network segmentation can reduce issues with performance as well as diminish the
    chance of broadcast storms by limiting the number of systems in a segment. This
    decreases broadcast traffic visible to each system and can reduce congestion.
    Segmentation can also help provide security by separating functional groups who
    don’t need to be able to access each other’s systems. Installing a firewall at the border
    would only help with inbound and outbound traffic, not cross-network traffic.
    Spanning tree loop prevention helps prevent loops in Ethernet networks (for example,
    when you plug a switch into a switch via two ports on each), but it won’t solve
    broadcast storms that aren’t caused by a loop or security issues. Encryption might help
    prevent some problems between functional groups, but it won’t stop them from
    scanning other systems, and it definitely won’t stop a broadcast storm!

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  • 20. 

    Angela needs to choose between EAP, PEAP, and LEAP for secure authentication. Which authentication protocol should she choose and why?

    • EAP, because it provides strong encryption by default

    • LEAP, because it provides frequent re-authentication and changing of WEP keys

    • PEAP, because it provides encryption and doesn’t suffer from the same vulnerabilities that LEAP does

    • None of these options can provide secure authentication, and an alternate solution should be chosen.

    Correct Answer
    A. PEAP, because it provides encryption and doesn’t suffer from the same vulnerabilities that LEAP does
    Explanation
    Of the three answers, PEAP is the best solution. It encapsulates EAP in a TLS
    tunnel, providing strong encryption. LEAP is a Cisco proprietary protocol that was
    originally designed to help deal with problems in WEP. LEAP’s protections have been
    defeated, making it a poor choice.

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  • 21. 

    What network tool can be used to protect the identity of clients while providing Internet access by accepting client requests, altering the source addresses of the requests, mapping requests to clients, and sending the modified requests out to their destination?

    • A gateway

    • A proxy

    • A router

    • A firewall

    Correct Answer
    A. A proxy
    Explanation
    A proxy is a form of gateway that provide clients with a filtering, caching, or other
    service that protects their information from remote systems. A router connects
    networks, while a firewall uses rules to limit traffic permitted through it. A gateway
    translates between protocols.

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  • 22. 

    What does a bluesnarfing attack target?

    • Data on IBM systems

    • An outbound phone call via Bluetooth

    • 802.11b networks

    • Data from a Bluetooth-enabled device

    Correct Answer
    A. Data from a Bluetooth-enabled device
    Explanation
    Bluesnarfing targets the data or information on Bluetooth-enabled devices.
    Bluejacking occurs when attackers send unsolicited messages via Bluetooth.

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  • 23. 

    What type of firewall design does the image below show?

    • A single-tier firewall

    •  A two-tier firewall

    • A three-tier firewall

    • A fully protected DMZ firewall

    Correct Answer
    A.  A two-tier firewall
    Explanation
    A two-tier firewall uses a firewall with multiple interfaces or multiple firewalls in
    series. This image shows a firewall with two protected interfaces, with one used for a
    DMZ and one used for a protected network. This allows traffic to be filtered between
    each of the zones (Internet, DMZ, and private network).

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  • 24. 

    What speed and frequency range is used by 802.11n?

    • 54 Mbps, 5 GHz

    • 200+ Mbps, 5GHz

    • 200+ Mbps, 2.4 and 5 GHz

    • 1 Gbps, 5 GHz4

    Correct Answer
    A. 200+ Mbps, 2.4 and 5 GHz
    Explanation
    802.11n can operate at speeds over 200 Mbps, and it can operate on both the 2.4
    and 5 GHz frequency range. 802.11g operates at 54 Mbps using the 2.4 GHz frequency
    range, and 802.11ac is capable of 1 Gbps using the 5 GHz range. 802.11a and b are both
    outdated and are unlikely to be encountered in modern network installations.

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  • 25. 

    Chris needs to design a firewall architecture that can support separately a DMZ, a database, and a private internal network. What type of design should he use, and how many firewalls does he need?

    • A four-tier firewall design with two firewalls

    • A two-tier firewall design with three firewalls

    • A three-tier firewall design with at least one firewall

    • A single-tier firewall design with three firewalls

    Correct Answer
    A. A three-tier firewall design with at least one firewall
    Explanation
    A three-tier design separates three distinct protected zones and can be
    accomplished with a single firewall that has multiple interfaces. Single- and two-tier
    designs don’t support the number of protected networks needed in this scenario, while
    a four-tier design would provide a tier that isn’t needed.

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  • 26. 

    WPA2’s Counter Mode Ciper Block Chaining Message Authentication Mode Protocol (CCMP) is based on which common encryption scheme?

    • DES

    • 3DES

    • AES

    • TLS

    Correct Answer
    A. AES
    Explanation
    WPA2’s CCMP encryption scheme is based on AES. As of the writing of this book,
    there have not been any practical real-world attacks against WPA2.
    DES has been successfully broken, and neither 3DES nor TLS is used for WPA2.

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  • 27. 

    What is the speed of a T3 line?

    • 128 kbps

    • 1.544 Mbps

    • 44.736 Mbps

    • 155 Mbps

    Correct Answer
    A. 44.736 Mbps
    Explanation
    A T3 (DS-3) line is capable of 44.736 Mbps. This is often referred to as 45 Mbps. A
    T1 is 1.544 Mbps, ATM is 155 Mbps, and ISDN is often 64 or 128 Mbps.

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  • 28. 

    What type of firewall is known as a second-generation firewall?

    • Static packet filtering firewalls

    • Application-level gateway firewalls

    • Stateful inspection firewalls

    • Unified Threat Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Application-level gateway firewalls
    Explanation
    Application-level gateway firewalls are known as second-generation firewalls. Static
    packet filtering firewalls are known as first-generation firewalls, and stateful packet
    inspection firewalls are known as third-generation firewalls. UTM, or Unified Threat
    Management is a concept used in next generation firewalls.

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  • 29. 

    During a security assessment, Jim discovers that the organization he is working with uses a multilayer protocol to handle SCADA systems and recently connected the SCADA network to the rest of the organization’s production network. What concern should he raise about serial data transfers carried via TCP/IP?

    • SCADA devices that are now connected to the network can now be attacked over the network.

    • Serial data over TCP/IP cannot be encrypted.

    • Serial data cannot be carried in TCP packets.

    • TCP/IP’s throughput can allow for easy denial of service attacks against serial devices.

    Correct Answer
    A. SCADA devices that are now connected to the network can now be attacked over the network.
    Explanation
    Multilayer protocols like DNP3 allow SCADA and other systems to use TCP/IPbased networks to communicate. Many SCADA devices were never designed to be
    exposed to a network, and adding them to a potentially insecure network can create
    significant risks. TLS or other encryption can be used on TCP packets, meaning that
    even serial data can be protected. Serial data can be carried via TCP packets because
    TCP packets don’t care about their content; it is simply another payload. Finally,
    TCP/IP does not have a specific throughput as designed, so issues with throughput are
    device-level issues.

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  • 30. 

    Lauren’s organization has used a popular instant messaging service for a number of years. Recently, concerns have been raised about the use of instant messaging.What protocol is the instant messaging traffic most likely to use based on the diagram?

    • AOL

    • HTTP

    • SMTP

    • HTTPS

    Correct Answer
    A. HTTP
    Explanation
    TCP 80 is typically HTTP.

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  • 31. 

    Lauren’s organization has used a popular instant messaging service for a number of years. Recently, concerns have been raised about the use of instant messaging.What security concern does sending internal communications from A to B cause?

    • The firewall does not protect system B.

    • System C can see the broadcast traffic from system A to B.

    • It is traveling via an unencrypted protocol.

    • IM does not provide nonrepudation.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is traveling via an unencrypted protocol.
    Explanation
    HTTP traffic is typically sent via TCP 80. Unencrypted HTTP traffic can be easily
    captured at any point between A and B, meaning that the instant messaging solution
    chosen does not provide confidentiality for the organization’s corporate
    communications.

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  • 32. 

    One of the findings that Jim made when performing a security audit was the use of non-IP protocols in a private network. What issue should Jim point out that may result from the use of these non-IP protocols?

    • They are outdated and cannot be used on modern PCs.

    • They may not be able to be filtered by firewall devices.

    • They may allow Christmas tree attacks.

    • IPX extends on the IP protocol and may not be supported by all TCP stacks.

    Correct Answer
    A. They may not be able to be filtered by firewall devices.
    Explanation
    While non-IP protocols like IPX/SPX, NetBEUI, and AppleTalk are rare in modern
    networks, they can present a challenge because many firewalls are not capable of
    filtering them. This can create risks when they are necessary for an application or
    system’s function because they may have to be passed without any inspection.
    Christmas tree attacks set all of the possible flags on a TCP packet (and are thus
    related to an IP protocol), IPX is not an IP-based protocol, and while these protocols
    are outdated, there are ways to make even modern PCs understand them

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  • 33. 

    One of Susan’s attacks during a penetration test involves inserting false ARP data into a system’s ARP cache. When the system attempts to send traffic to the address it believes belongs to a legitimate system, it will instead send that traffic to a system she controls. What is this attack called?

    • RARP Flooding

    • ARP cache poisoning

    • A denial of ARP attack

    • ARP buffer blasting

    Correct Answer
    A. ARP cache poisoning
    Explanation
    ARP cache poisoning occurs when false ARP data is inserted into a system’s ARP
    cache, allowing the attacker to modify its behavior. RARP flooding, denial of ARP
    attacks, and ARP buffer blasting are all made-up terms.

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  • 34. 

    Sue modifies her MAC address to one that is allowed on a network that uses MAC filtering to provide security. What is the technique Sue used, and what non-security issue could her actions cause?

    • Broadcast domain exploit, address conflict

    • Spoofing, token loss

    • Spoofing, address conflict

    • Sham EUI creation, token loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Spoofing, address conflict
    Explanation
    The process of using a fake MAC (Media Access Control) address is called spoofing,
    and spoofing a MAC address already in use on the network can lead to an address
    collision, preventing traffic from reaching one or both systems. Tokens are used in
    token ring networks, which are outdated, and EUI refers to an Extended Unique
    Identifier, another term for MAC address, but token loss is still not the key issue.
    Broadcast domains refers to the set of machines a host can send traffic to via a
    broadcast message.

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  • 35. 

    Jim’s audit of a large organization’s traditional PBX showed that Direct Inward System Access (DISA) was being abused by third parties. What issue is most likely to lead to this problem?

    • The PBX was not fully patched.

    • The dial-in modem lines use unpublished numbers.

    • DISA is set up to only allow local calls.

    • One or more users’ access codes have been compromised.

    Correct Answer
    A. One or more users’ access codes have been compromised.
    Explanation
    Direct Inward System Access uses access codes assigned to users to add a control
    layer for external access and control of the PBX. If the codes are compromised,
    attackers can make calls through the PBX or even control it. Not updating a PBX can
    lead to a range of issues, but this question is looking for a DISA issue. Allowing only
    local calls and using unpublished numbers are both security controls and might help
    keep the PBX more secure.

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  • 36. 

    Jim’s remote site has only ISDN as an option for connectivity. What type of ISDN should he look for to get the maximum speed possible?

    • BRI

    • BPRI

    • PRI

    • D channel

    Correct Answer
    A. PRI
    Explanation
    PRI, or Primary Rate Interface, can use between 2 and 23 64 Kbps channels, with a
    maximum potential bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. Actual speeds will be lower due to the D
    channel, which can’t be used for actual data transmission, but PRI beats BRI’s two B
    channels paired with a D channel for 144 Kbps of bandwidth.

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  • 37. 

    SPIT attacks target what technology?

    • Virtualization platforms

    • Web services

    • VoIP systems

    • Secure Process Internal Transfers

    Correct Answer
    A. VoIP systems
    Explanation
    SPIT stands for Spam over Internet Telephony and targets VoIP systems.

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  • 38. 

    Ben is an information security professional at an organization that is replacing its physical servers with virtual machines. As the organization builds its virtual environment, it is decreasing the number of physical servers it uses while purchasing more powerful servers to act as the virtualization platforms.The VM administrators recommend enabling cut and paste between virtual machines. What security concern should Ben raise about this practice?

    • It can cause a denial of service condition.

    • It can serve as a covert channel.

    • It can allow viruses to spread.

    • It can bypass authentication controls.

    Correct Answer
    A. It can serve as a covert channel.
    Explanation
    Cut and paste between virtual machines can bypass normal network-based data loss
    prevention tools and monitoring tools like an IDS or IPS. Thus, it can act as a covert
    channel, allowing the transport of data between security zones. So far, cut and paste
    has not been used as a method for malware spread in virtual environments and has
    not been associated with denial of service attacks. Cut and paste requires users to be
    logged in and does not bypass authentication requirements.

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  • 39. 

    Chris is building an Ethernet network and knows that he needs to span a distance of over 150 meters with his 1000Base-T network. What network technology should he use to help with this?

    • Install a repeater or a concentrator before 100 meters.

    • Use Category 7 cable, which has better shielding for higher speeds.

    • Install a gateway to handle the distance.

    • Use STP cable to handle the longer distance at high speeds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Install a repeater or a concentrator before 100 meters.
    Explanation
    A repeater or concentrator will amplify the signal, ensuring that the 100-meter
    distance limitation of 1000Base-T is not an issue. A gateway would be useful if
    network protocols were changing, while Cat7 cable is appropriate for a 10Gbps
    network at much shorter distances. STP cable is limited to 155 Mbps and 100 meters,
    which would leave Chris with network problems.

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  • 40. 

    The DARPA TCP/IP model’s Application layer matches up to what three OSI model layers?

    • Application, Presentation, and Transport

    • Presentation, Session, and Transport

    • Application, Presentation, and Session

    • There is not a direct match. The TCP model was created before the OSI model.

    Correct Answer
    A. Application, Presentation, and Session
    Explanation
    The DARPA TCP/IP model was used to create the OSI model, and the designers of
    the OSI model made sure to map the OSI model layers to it. The Application layer of
    the TCP model maps to the Application, Presentation, and Session layers, while the
    TCP and OSI models both have a distinct Transport layer.

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  • 41. 

    Segmentation, sequencing, and error checking all occur at what layer of the OSI model that is associated with SSL, TLS, and UDP?

    • The Transport layer

    • The Network layer

    • The Session layer

    • The Presentation layer

    Correct Answer
    A. The Transport layer
    Explanation
    The Transport layer provides logical connections between devices, including end-toend transport services to ensure that data is delivered. Transport layer protocols
    include TCP, UDP, SSL, and TLS.

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  • 42. 

    Chris has been asked to choose between implementing PEAP and LEAP for wireless authentication. What should he choose, and why?

    • LEAP, because it fixes problems with TKIP, resulting in stronger security

    • PEAP, because it implements CCMP for security

    • LEAP, because it implements EAP-TLS for end-to-end session encryption

    • PEAP, because it can provide a TLS tunnel that encapsulates EAP methods, protecting the entire session

    Correct Answer
    A. PEAP, because it can provide a TLS tunnel that encapsulates EAP methods, protecting the entire session
    Explanation
    PEAP provides encryption for EAP methods and can provide authentication. It does
    not implement CCMP, which was included in the WPA2 standard. LEAP is
    dangerously insecure and should not be used due to attack tools that have been
    available since the early 2000s.

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  • 43. 

    Cable modems, ISDN, and DSL are all examples of what type of technology?

    • Baseband

    • Broadband

    • Digital

    • Broadcast

    Correct Answer
    A. Broadband
    Explanation
    ISDN, cable modems, DSL, and T1 and T3 lines are all examples of broadband
    technology that can support multiple simultaneous signals. They are analog, not
    digital, and are not broadcast technologies

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  • 44. 

    ICMP, RIP, and network address translation all occur at what layer of the OSI model?

    • Layer 1

    • Layer 2

    • Layer 3

    • Layer 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Layer 3
    Explanation
    ICMP, RIP, and network address translation all occur at layer 3, the Network layer.

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  • 45. 

    Which list presents the layers of the OSI model in the correct order?

    • Presentation, Application, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

    • Application, Presentation, Session, Network, Transport, Data Link, Physical

    • Presentation, Application, Session, Transport, Data Link, Network, Physical

    • Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
    Explanation
    The OSI layers in order are Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network,
    Data Link, and Physical

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  • 46. 

    Lauren has been asked to replace her organization’s PPTP implementation with an L2TP implementation for security reasons. What is the primary security reason that L2TP would replace PPTP?

    • L2TP can use IPsec.

    • L2TP creates a point-to-point tunnel, avoiding multipoint issues.

    • PPTP doesn’t support EAP.

    • PPTP doesn’t properly encapsulate PPP packets.

    Correct Answer
    A. L2TP can use IPsec.
    Explanation
    L2TP can use IPsec to provide encryption of traffic, ensuring confidentiality of the
    traffic carried via an L2TP VPN. PPTP sends the initial packets of a session in
    plaintext, potentially including usernames and hashed passwords. PPTP does support
    EAP and was designed to encapsulate PPP packets. All VPNs are point to point, and
    multipoint issues are not a VPN problem.

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  • 47. 

    What topology correctly describes Ethernet?

    • A ring

    • A star

    • A mesh

    • A bus

    Correct Answer
    A. A bus
    Explanation
    Ethernet uses a bus topology. While devices may be physically connected to a
    switch in a physical topology that looks like a star, systems using Ethernet can all
    transmit on the bus simultaneously, possibly leading to collisions.

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  • 48. 

    Gary is deploying a wireless network and wants to deploy the fastest possible wireless technology. Of the 802.11 standards listed below, which is the fastest 2.4 GHz option he has?

    • 802.11a

    • 802.11g

    • 802.11n

    • 802.11ac

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11n
    Explanation
    He should choose 802.11n, which supports 200+ Mbps in the 2.4 GHz or the 5 GHz
    frequency range. 802.11a and 802.11ac are both 5 GHz only, while 802.11g is only
    capable of 54 Mbps.

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  • 49. 

    If Chris wants to stop cross-site scripting attacks against the web server, what is the best device for this purpose, and where should he put it?

    • A firewall, location A

    • An IDS, location A

    • An IPS, location B

    • A WAF, location C

    Correct Answer
    A. An IPS, location B
    Explanation
    An intrusion protection system can scan traffic and stop both known and unknown
    attacks. A web application firewall, or WAF, is also a suitable technology, but placing it
    at location C would only protect from attacks via the organization’s VPN, which should
    only be used by trusted users. A firewall typically won’t have the ability to identify and
    stop cross-site scripting attacks, and IDS systems only monitor and don’t stop attacks.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 17, 2020
    Quiz Created by
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