Ccs Genereal Quiz VII
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The hemic and lymphatic system covers procedures of
- A.
The spleen
- B.
Bone marrow
- C.
Stem cells
- D.
The lymph nodes
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The spleen is similar in structure to the lymph nodes, and acts as a blood filter (hence 'hemic').Rate this question:
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- 2.
A procedure site documented as involving the periosteum is coded to the corresponding ________ body part.
- A.
Bowel
- B.
Bone
- C.
Lower GI Tract
Correct Answer
B. BoneExplanation
When a procedure site is documented as involving the periosteum, it means that the procedure is related to the outer layer of the bone. Therefore, the correct body part to code for this procedure would be "Bone".Rate this question:
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- 3.
Ectopic pancreatic malignant neoplasms involving the stomach are coded to malignant neoplasm of ___________, unspecified (C25.9)
- A.
Stomach
- B.
Pancreas
- C.
Duodenum
- D.
Ileum
Correct Answer
B. PancreasExplanation
ectopic- in an abnormal place or position.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy (MSBP) is also referred to as “factitious disorder imposed on another” or “factitious disorder by proxy.” The __________________ receives this diagnosis.
- A.
Perpatrator
- B.
Victim
- C.
Both
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. PerpatratorExplanation
For the victim, assign the appropriate code from categories T74, Adult and child abuse,
neglect and other maltreatment, confirmed, or T76, Adult and child abuse,
neglect and other maltreatment, suspected.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Hemorrhage resulting in blood loss anemia codes to_______________________ secondary to blood loss (chronic)
- A.
Hematemesis
- B.
Iron deficiency anemia
- C.
Aphagia
- D.
Hematoma
Correct Answer
B. Iron deficiency anemiaExplanation
The correct answer is iron deficiency anemia because hemorrhage resulting in blood loss can lead to a decrease in the body's iron levels. Iron is necessary for the production of red blood cells, and a deficiency in iron can cause anemia. In this case, the blood loss is chronic, meaning it has been occurring over a long period of time. This further supports the diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia as chronic blood loss can lead to a gradual depletion of iron stores in the body.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The principal procedure by uhdds definition is for________________________
- A.
Outpatient procedures
- B.
Any given procedure
- C.
Definitive treatment or treatment of a complication
- D.
Anlingus
Correct Answer
C. Definitive treatment or treatment of a complicationExplanation
The principal procedure, as defined by the Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS), refers to the main treatment or intervention performed during a hospital stay. This can include either the definitive treatment for a specific condition or the treatment of any complications that arise during the course of the patient's care. It is important to identify the principal procedure in medical records for accurate coding and billing purposes.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Hippa requires organizations to have both privacy and security officers
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Besides appointing a HIPAA Security Officer, covered entities also need to appoint a HIPAA Privacy Officer. It is a mandate of HIPAA to have both, but they can be the same person.Rate this question:
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- 8.
If a pt requires two injections as a procedure because the first did not provide adequate distribution, it is coded a second time with mod -59
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
When a patient requires two injections as a procedure because the first one did not provide adequate distribution, it is coded a second time with modifier -59. This modifier is used to indicate that the second injection is a separate and distinct service from the first one. It helps to differentiate between the two procedures and ensure proper reimbursement for the additional injection. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Reflex sympathetic dystrophy is coded as ____________________________
- A.
Fibromyalgia
- B.
Pain, NOS
- C.
Complex Regional Pain Syndrome
- D.
Upper Quadrant Paralysis
Correct Answer
C. Complex Regional Pain SyndromeExplanation
Reflex sympathetic dystrophy, also known as complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), is a neurological disorder characterized by chronic pain, inflammation, and changes in the skin. It typically affects one limb, but can spread to other parts of the body. CRPS is the most appropriate code for reflex sympathetic dystrophy because it accurately describes the condition and its symptoms. Fibromyalgia is a separate condition characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, while pain, NOS (not otherwise specified) is a general code for unspecified pain. Upper quadrant paralysis is not related to reflex sympathetic dystrophy and is therefore an incorrect choice.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The CPT anesthesia complication codes are for extreme age (1 and 70), hypothermia, ______________, and emergency conditions
Correct Answer
hypotensionExplanation
99100 – Anesthesia for patient of extreme age, younger than 1 year and older than 70 (1 unit)
99116 – Anesthesia complicated by utilization of total body hypothermia (5 units)
99135 – Anesthesia complicated by utilization of controlled hypotension (5 units)
99140 – Anesthesia complicated by emergency conditions (2 units)Rate this question:
- 11.
Ulcers can also occur in part of the intestine just beyond the stomach. These are called ___________.
- A.
Large intestine
- B.
Peptic
- C.
Duodenal
- D.
B and C are correct
Correct Answer
D. B and C are correctExplanation
Stomach and duodenal ulcers are sometimes called peptic ulcers. This information applies to both.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The ___________ Act encouraged healthcare providers to adopt electronic health records and improve privacy and security protections for healthcare data. This was achieved through financial incentives for adopting EHRs and increased penalties for violations of the HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules.
- A.
LOWTECH
- B.
HILYFE
- C.
LOJAK
- D.
HITECH
Correct Answer
D. HITECHExplanation
HITECH The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act, enacted as part of the
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, was signed into law on February 17, 2009, to promote the adoption and
meaningful use of health information technology.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A completed and signed operative report needs clarification of the size of the skin lesions that were removed. What process is used for that clarification?
- A.
Ammendment
- B.
Addendum
Correct Answer
A. AmmendmentExplanation
An addendum is used to provide information that was not available at the time of the original entry
A late entry supplies additional information that was omitted from the original entry.
When making a correction to the medical record, never write over, or otherwise obliterate the passage when an entry to a medical record is made in error. Draw a single line through the erroneous information, keeping the original entry legibleRate this question:
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- 14.
A 7-year-old patient was admitted to the emergency department for treatment of shortness of breath. The patient is given epinephrine and nebulizer treatments. The shortness of breath and wheezing are unabated following treatment. What diagnosis should be suspected?
- A.
Acute bronchitis
- B.
Asthma with status asthmaticus
Correct Answer
B. Asthma with status asthmaticusExplanation
“Status asthmaticus is an acute asthmatic attack in which the degree of bronchial obstruction is not relieved by the usual treatment, such as by epinephrine or aminophylline”Rate this question:
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- 15.
When a patient goes home with an order for home health to start one week after an inpatient admission, this is categorized as a(n):
- A.
Discharge
- B.
Transfer
- C.
Readmission
- D.
Outlier
Correct Answer
A. DischargeExplanation
A written order for home health to begin within three days of inpatient discharge is considered a transfer. Beyond that, it is a dischargeRate this question:
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- 16.
Medicare payment to physicians for services rendered is made under the:
- A.
OPPS
- B.
RBRVS (Resource Based RElative Value Scale
- C.
APC
- D.
Conditions of Participation
Correct Answer
B. RBRVS (Resource Based RElative Value ScaleExplanation
Physician payment from Medicare is based on the Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS)Rate this question:
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- 17.
A patient has a principal diagnosis of pneumonia (J18.9) (MS-DRG 195). Which of the following may legitimately change the coding of the pneumonia in accordance with the UHDDS and relevant clinical documentation?
- A.
Sputum culture reflects growth of normal flora
- B.
Patient has a high fever
- C.
Patient is found to have dysphagia with aspiration
- D.
Patient has nonproductive cough
Correct Answer
C. Patient is found to have dysphagia with aspirationExplanation
“Patient is found to have dysphagia with aspiration” is the correct answer because with documentation that links the pneumonia and aspiration, it changes the coding to aspiration pneumonia and results in MS-DRG 179 RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS & INFLAMMATIONS W/O CC/MCC, which has a weight of 0.8711 (CMS 2021d). This is in comparison to MS-DRG 195, SIMPLE PNEUMONIA & PLEURISY W/O CC/MCC MDC: 04, which has a DRG weight of 0.6650Rate this question:
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- 18.
The electronic transactions and code sets standards are found under which part of HIPAA?
- A.
Administrative Simplification
- B.
Privacy Rule
- C.
Security Rule
- D.
Health Information Technology
Correct Answer
A. Administrative SimplificationExplanation
The electronic transactions and code sets standards are found under the Administrative Simplification part of HIPAA. This part of HIPAA aims to streamline and simplify the administrative processes in healthcare, including the electronic exchange of healthcare information. The electronic transactions and code sets standards provide guidelines for the standardized formats and codes used in electronic healthcare transactions, ensuring consistency and interoperability between different healthcare systems and organizations.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A payer’s policy does not cover tetanus injections when provided as a preventive service but will cover them when provided as a postinjury service. If the injection is provided in the emergency department, what part of the claim will need to be modified to indicate the injection was a postinjury service rather than a preventive service?
- A.
Diagnosis code
- B.
Procedure code
- C.
Revenue code
- D.
Disposition code
Correct Answer
C. Revenue codeExplanation
The revenue code will need to be changed according to the payer guidelines from one that indicates preventive service to one that indicates the emergency department
The revenue code tells an insurance company whether the procedure was performed in the emergency room, operating room or another department.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The Joint Commission considers management that supports decision making to be important for safety and quality. What kind of management supports decision making?
- A.
Resource management
- B.
Risk management
- C.
Information management
- D.
Case management
Correct Answer
C. Information managementExplanation
The Joint Commission considers information management to be important for safety and quality because it supports decision making. Information management involves gathering, organizing, and analyzing data to provide accurate and timely information to support decision-making processes. By effectively managing information, organizations can make informed decisions that contribute to improved safety and quality outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A toddler comes into the hospital admitted from the ER with the following: shortness of breath, wheezing, runny nose, and positive RSV test. The final diagnosis was viral infection upon discharge three days later. What condition should the coder query for in this scenario?
- A.
Acute bronchiolitis
- B.
Acute bronchitis
- C.
Croup
- D.
Laryngitis
Correct Answer
A. Acute bronchiolitisExplanation
Query for acute bronchiolitis—in this case a viral infection caused by the RSV
(Respiratory syncytial virus). Symptoms of bronchiolitis include the shortness of breath, wheezing, and runny noseRate this question:
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- 22.
A patient is diagnosed with infertility due to endometriosis and undergoes an outpatient laparoscopic laser destruction of pelvic endometriosis. Which condition is coded secondary
Correct Answer
infertilityExplanation
The patient is diagnosed with infertility due to endometriosis, meaning that the primary reason for the procedure is to address the infertility issue. The outpatient laparoscopic laser destruction of pelvic endometriosis is performed as a secondary step to treat the underlying cause of infertility. Therefore, the condition coded secondary is infertility.Rate this question:
- 23.
Tests for antigens show if the disease is ____________. Tests for antibodies (assay tests) show what will treat the disease.
Correct Answer
presentExplanation
For example, the Chlamydia antigen test is 87270 (under microbiology) and Chlamydia antibody test is 86631.Rate this question:
- 24.
Chemistry tests are typically ______________in nature
Correct Answer
quantitativeExplanation
Chemistry tests are typically quantitative in nature because they involve the measurement and analysis of quantities, such as the amount of a substance, the concentration of a solution, or the mass of a sample. These tests often require the use of mathematical calculations, such as stoichiometry, to determine the relationships between different substances and their quantities. By focusing on quantitative aspects, chemistry tests aim to provide objective and precise data that can be used to make accurate conclusions and predictions about chemical reactions and properties.Rate this question:
- 25.
Whether a substance is present or absent in specimen is a _____________ measurement
Correct Answer
qualitativeExplanation
A qualitative measurement is used to determine the presence or absence of a substance in a specimen. It focuses on the qualities or characteristics of the substance rather than the exact quantity or measurement. In this case, the question is asking about whether the substance is present or absent, which falls under the category of qualitative measurement.Rate this question:
- 26.
A drug assay is a _____________ test to detect a specific drug and to quantify the amount of that drug that is present.
Correct Answer
quantitativeExplanation
A drug assay is a test used to detect and measure the amount of a specific drug present. In this context, the term "quantitative" refers to the ability of the assay to provide a quantitative measurement or numerical value of the drug concentration. This means that the assay can accurately determine the exact amount of the drug that is present, allowing for precise analysis and monitoring of drug levels in various samples.Rate this question:
- 27.
A comprehensive consultation includes everything in a limited consultation with the addition of a review of the ______________________
Correct Answer
medical recordExplanation
A comprehensive consultation includes everything in a limited consultation with the addition of a review of the medical record. This means that in a comprehensive consultation, not only will the healthcare provider discuss and examine the patient's current condition and symptoms, but they will also take the time to thoroughly review the patient's medical record. This allows them to gather important information about the patient's medical history, previous diagnoses, treatments, and any relevant test results. By reviewing the medical record, the healthcare provider can have a more complete understanding of the patient's overall health and make more informed decisions about their care.Rate this question:
- 28.
Modifier ___ is not used with Pathology or Laboratory codes.
Correct Answer
51Explanation
Modifier 51 Multiple Procedures indicates that multiple procedures were performed at the same session.Rate this question:
- 29.
The only CPT modifiers used in the Pathology and Laboratory section are _______________
Correct Answer
90 and 91Explanation
Modifier 90 is to identify laboratory procedures performed by a party other than the treating or reporting party
Modifier 91 is used when multiple, serial laboratory tests are needed in the course of treatment of a patient (e.g., repeat blood glucose tests)Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 01, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 04, 2017Quiz Created by
Mike