PMP Quiz 3 (100 Questions)

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1. The customer has reviewed the deliverables of a project and finds that they are acceptable, and must now communicate that acceptance to the project manager. Which form of communication is appropriate?

Explanation

C- Once your project team is done with the work, it’s time to check the deliverables against the scope statement, WBS, and scope management plan. If your deliverables have everything in those documents, then they should be acceptable to stakeholders. What comes next? Formal acceptance, which means you have written confirmation from the stakeholders that the deliverables match the requirements and the project management plan. Since this communication is a project document, it’s formal written communication.

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About This Quiz
PMP Quiz 3 (100 Questions) - Quiz

PMP Quiz 3 features 100 questions on key project management processes and knowledge areas, including inputs, process groups, and planning stages. It tests understanding of PMBOK guidelines and... see moreprepares learners for PMP certification. see less

2. A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform earned value analysis. You spend a weekend with him to teach him how to do this. This is an example of:

Explanation

A- Any time you do coaching, mentoring, training, or anything else to help others learn about project management, you’re contributing to the project management body of knowledge.

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3. You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just prepared an RFP to send around to electrical contractors. You get a call from your uncle who owns an electrical contracting company. He wants to bid on your project. You know he's done good work before, and it may be a good fit for your company. How do you proceed?

Explanation

B- Any time there’s a conflict of interest, it’s your duty to disclose it to your company. After that, you should always proceed based on your company’s policies.

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4. In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep people informed throughout the project?

Explanation

D- The Communications Management Plan defines all of the processes that will be used for communication on the project.

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5. If you have an unresolved issue while working on a project, what is the best way to communicate that issue?

Explanation

C - An issue log allows you to communicate, track, and resolve project issues.

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6. Brandi is a project manager on a software project. About halfway through development, her team found that they had not estimated enough time for some of the technical work they needed to do. She requested that the new work be added to the scope statement and that the time to do the work be added to the schedule. The change control board approved her change. What's her next step?

Explanation

A - When a change has been approved you always need to update the baseline and then implement the change.

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7. If you want to have multiple vendors bid on your contract, what is the best way to ensure that all vendors have the same information before bidding?

Explanation

B - A bidder's conference is a good way to ensure all bidders have the same information at the same time and to ensure fairness and equity within the bidding process.

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8. Which is the BEST definition of quality?

Explanation

C- Quality management is all about making sure that the product you are building conforms to your customer’s requirements.

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9. You are the project manager for a software development project. When you need to get staff from the manager of the QA department, he suggests a few test engineers with performance problems for your team. Which is the BEST response to this situation?

Explanation

B- You need to figure out the root cause of the problem if you are going to find a lasting solution to it.

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10. You are working on a construction project. You, your team, and your senior manager all feel that the work is complete. However, one of your important clients disagrees, and feels that one deliverable is not acceptable. What is the BEST way to handle this conflict?

Explanation

A- When there’s a dispute between a buyer and a seller, that’s called a claim. Most contracts have some language that explains exactly how claims should be resolved—and since it’s in the contract, it’s legally binding, and both the buyer and seller need to follow it.

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11. You are the project manager for a software development project. When you need to get staff from the manager of the QA department, he suggests a few test engineers with performance problems for your team. Which is the BEST response to this situation?

Explanation

B- You need to figure out the root cause of the problem if you are going to find a lasting solution to it.

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12. Which of the following best describes decomposition?

Explanation

B- Decomposition is the main tool for creating the WBS. It just means breaking the work down into smaller and smaller pieces based on how your company does the work until it is small enough to categorize and organize hierarchically.

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13. Tom is a project manager on an industrial design project. He is always watching when his team members come into the office, when they take their breaks, and when they leave. He periodically walks around the office to be sure that everyone is doing work when they are at their desks and he insists that he make every project decision, even minor ones. What kind of manager is he?

Explanation

A- Tom is a Theory X manager. He believes that employees need to be watched all of the time and that all of his team members are selfish and unmotivated.

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14. If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the recommended alternatives to consider?

Explanation

B - Crashing and fast tracking can increase the project's schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential.

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15. A team member approaches you with a change that could cut your schedule down by a month. What is the first thing you should do?

Explanation

C- Just because the change will help the project’s timeline doesn’t mean that it will be an overall benefit to the project. It’s important to check how the project will impact the other two constraints as part of your change request.

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16. Which is the BEST definition of quality?

Explanation

C- Quality management is all about making sure that the product you are building conforms to your customer’s requirements.

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17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project Management Plan?

Explanation

C- The Project Management Plan is not a bar chart (or a Gantt chart). It’s the collection of all of the planning documents you create through all of the knowledge areas within the five process groups.

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18. Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors influencing a project's success?

Explanation

D - All the three listed factors are enterprise environmental factors that influence a project's success. Enterprise environmental factors may enhance or constrain project management options.

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19. A change has occurred on your project. You've documented the change, filled out a change request, and submitted that request to the change control board (CCB). What's the NEXT thing that must happen on the project?

Explanation

C- A change control board (or CCB) is a group of people that approves or rejects changes. It usually includes the sponsor, which makes sense because the sponsor is the one funding the project.

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20. You have just delivered a product to your client for acceptance, when you get a call that some features they were expecting are missing. What's the first thing you should do?

Explanation

D- You can’t do anything about the problem until you understand it. You should meet with the client to get a better understanding of what went wrong and why the product is not meeting their needs.

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21. A project manager is reporting the final status of the closed contract to the stakeholders. Which form of communication is appropriate?

Explanation

C- All project reports must be communicated as formal written documents. Not only that, but anything that has to do with a contract DEFINITELY needs to be formal written.

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22. You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out various approaches to technical work. There's a 20% chance that a component you are going to license will be difficult to integrate and cost $3,000 in rework and delays. There's also a 40% chance that the component will save $10,000 in time and effort that would have been used to build the component from scratch. What's the EMV for these two possibilities?

Explanation

C- The expected monetary value (or EMV) of the problems integrating the component is the probability (20%) times the cost ($3,000), but don’t forget that since it’s a risk, that number should be negative.
So its EMV is 20% x $3,000 = -$600.
The savings from not having to build the component from scratch is an opportunity. It has an EMV of
40% x $10,000 = $4,000.
Add them up and you get
-$600 + $4,000 = $3,400.

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23. Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations technique?

Explanation

D - Analogous, parametric, and three- point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project.

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24. You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're planning out the work your team will do, you divide up all of the work into work packages and create a WBS that shows how they fit into categories. For each one of the work packages, you write down details such as initial estimates and information about what account it should be billed against. Where do you store all of that information?

Explanation

C- The WBS Dictionary is the companion document to the WBS. It gives all the details that you know about each work package in the WBS, including estimates and billing information.

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25. Which of the following is NOT a type of communication ?

Explanation

D- Noise is something that interferes with communication. It’s not a communication type.

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26. Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and Schedule Management Plan in your Project Management Plan. Is this the appropriate place for those items?

Explanation

D - These are subsidiary plans and should be included in the Project Management Plan.

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27. You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your team members into a single room to work increases their communication, and helps build a sense of community. This is referred to as a:

Explanation

A- Co-location means that you have all of your team located in the same room. When you do this, you can increase communication and help them build a sense of community.

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28. Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?

Explanation

D- Any activity that helps you find, prevent or fix defects in your product is included in the cost of quality.

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29. You are managing a software project. You are partway through the project, and your team has just delivered a preliminary version of part of the software. Your team gives a demonstration to the project sponsor and key stakeholders. Later, the sponsor informs you that there is an important client who will be using the software your team is building, and whose needs are not being met. As a result, you must now make a large and expensive change to accommodate that client. What is the BEST explanation for this?

Explanation

B- Stakeholder analysis means talking to the stakeholders and figuring out their needs, and it’s something that you do when you’re defining the project scope.

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30. A senior manager is presenting to your client's board of directors about your project. As part of distributing information, you must deliver status updates and other project materials to him via overnight mail. If the materials do not arrive tomorrow, your company will miss a major contract deadline and you will lose future business from this important client. The deadline cannot be negotiated. The team worked right up to the last minute in order to give you the files. Due to a traffic jam, you are running late and the overnight delivery company will close in five minutes. You can only make it if you drive over the speed limit. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

B- The PMP Code of Professional Conduct states that you must follow every law, no matter how trivial, and no matter how serious the consequences are.

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31. You are managing a software project. During a walkthrough of newly implemented functionality, your team shows you a new feature that they have added to help make the workflow in the product easier for your client. The client didn't ask for the feature, but it does look like it will make the product easier to use. The team developed it on their own time because they wanted to make the client happy. You know this change would never have made it through change control. What is this an example of?

Explanation

A- Gold plating is when you or your team add more work to the project that was not requested by the sponsor or client. It is always a bad idea to gold plate a project because the impact is sometimes not immediately known.

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32. A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout your project is called a _______________.

Explanation

C- The Resource Histogram is a bar chart that shows your staffing needs over time.

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33. In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep people informed throughout the project?

Explanation

D- The Communications Management Plan defines all of the processes that will be used for communication on the project.

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34. Which of the following is an Output of  Develop Project Charter?

Explanation

The output of Develop Project Charter is the Project Charter itself. The Project Charter is a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project, provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities, and gives the project manager the responsibility to deliver the project. It includes high-level information about the project, such as objectives, stakeholders, scope, and deliverables. It serves as a reference document throughout the project and is used to ensure that the project remains aligned with its objectives and stakeholders' expectations.

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35. Ongoing operations and a project both have Initiating Processes, but only a project has __________.

Explanation

B - A project is a finite effort; the Initiating Process Group starts the cycle, and the closing Process Group ends the cycle.

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36. You have been asked to establish a project charter for your new project. According to PMBOK, who normally has the responsibility to authorize the charter?

Explanation

B - The project initiator or sponsor external to the project authorizes the project charter. However, a project manager should be involved in the process as early as possible.

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37. A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout your project is called a _______________.

Explanation

C- The Resource Histogram is a bar chart that shows your staffing needs over time.

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38. A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts anonymously. What risk identification tool or technique is being performed?

Explanation

B- The Delphi technique is a way to get opinions and ideas from experts. This is a technique that uses a facilitator who uses questionnaires to ask experts about important project risks.

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39. You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your team members into a single room to work increases their communication, and helps build a sense of community. This is referred to as a:

Explanation

A- Co-location means that you have all of your team located in the same room. When you do this, you can increase communication and help them build a sense of community.

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40. What is a risk owner?

Explanation

D- Every risk should have a risk owner listed in the register. That person is responsible for keeping the response plan up to date and make sure the right actions are taken if the risk does occur.

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41. You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out various approaches to technical work. There's a 20% chance that a component you are going to license will be difficult to integrate and cost $3,000 in rework and delays. There's also a 40% chance that the component will save $10,000 in time and effort that would have been used to build the component from scratch. What's the EMV for these two possibilities?

Explanation

C- The expected monetary value (or EMV) of the problems integrating the component is the probability (20%) times the cost ($3,000), but don’t forget that since it’s a risk, that number should be negative.
So its EMV is 20% x $3,000 = -$600.
The savings from not having to build the component from scratch is an opportunity. It has an EMV of
40% x $10,000 = $4,000.
Add them up and you get
-$600 + $4,000 = $3,400.

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42. Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8 stakeholders in the project. He is worried that he might end up with an unmanageable number of communication channels. In your view, how many communication channels does Randy have to plan for?

Explanation

D - The correct response is 28. The formula to identify the number of communication channels is n X (n-1) / 2 where n is the number of stakeholders. Hence in this case, it works out to 8 X (8-1) / 2 = 8 X 7 / 2 = 56 / 2 = 28.

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43. If you are working on a project where there is no definite project detailed scope, but similar projects have been completed in the past, what is the correct Estimate Activity Durations tool to use?

Explanation

A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous such projects that were similar in nature.

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44. Which of the following best describes decomposition?

Explanation

B- Decomposition is the main tool for creating the WBS. It just means breaking the work down into smaller and smaller pieces based on how your company does the work until it is small enough to categorize and organize hierarchically.

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45. Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just finished defining the scope for the project and is creating the WBS. He goes to his organizational process asset library and finds a WBS from a past project to use as a jumping off point. Which of the following describes the asset that Tom is using?

Explanation

D- Tom is using a Template. As your company completes projects, the documents created along the way are stored in an Organizational Process Asset library.

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46. A project manager is just finishing a project that has not gone well. Apart from cost overruns and schedule overruns, there have been a lot of quality defects and the project required a lot of senior management intervention to finally reach completion. The project manager should now:

Explanation

D - A project manager has a professional responsibility to conduct lessons learned sessions for all projects with key internal and external stakeholders, particularly if the project yielded less than desirable results.

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47. A notice sent to a subcontractor about the contract is an example of which kind of communication?

Explanation

B- Anytime you have any communication having to do with the contract, it’s always formal written communication.

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48. A company is about to begin work on a large construction project to build four new buildings for a bank that wants to open new branches. The sponsor is writing a project charter. She recalls that a previous project the company performed for another bank ran over budget because the team had underestimated the effort required to install the reinforced walls in the vault. The previous project manager had documented the details of the lessons learned from this project. Where should the sponsor look for these lessons learned?

Explanation

B- Lessons learned from past projects are always part of a company’s organizational process.

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49. Which of the following is NOT found in a project charter?

Explanation

C- The procedure for managing changes to a contract is found in the Contract Management Plan.
The other three answers are all things you typically find in a project charter.

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50. A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform earned value analysis. You spend a weekend with him to teach him how to do this. This is an example of:

Explanation

A- Any time you do coaching, mentoring, training, or anything else to help others learn about project management, you’re contributing to the project management body of knowledge.

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51. You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just prepared an RFP to send around to electrical contractors. You get a call from your uncle who owns an electrical contracting company. He wants to bid on your project. You know he's done good work before, and it may be a good fit for your company. How do you proceed?

Explanation

B- Any time there’s a conflict of interest, it’s your duty to disclose it to your company. After that, you should always proceed based on your company’s policies.

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52. Before closing a contract, the project manager should:

Explanation

B - Closing a contact should be done promptly after all contract work and deliverables are achieved.

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53. You have recently been assigned to be the project manager for a project that is already underway (the previous project manager has been moved to a different project). As you begin to learn about the project, you realize that a project charter was never established. What should you do?

Explanation

C - Even if done late, a project charter can help establish the legitimacy of a project and should be completed as soon as possible.

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54. Brandi is a project manager on a software project. About halfway through development, her team found that they had not estimated enough time for some of the technical work they needed to do. She requested that the new work be added to the scope statement and that the time to do the work be added to the schedule. The change control board approved her change. What's her next step?

Explanation

A - When a change has been approved you always need to update the baseline and then implement the change.

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55. Two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule performance of a project are:

Explanation

B - The CPI and SPI are two efficiency indicators in the project to reflect the cost and schedule performance of the project.

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56. When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to determine which companies you should request a bid from?

Explanation

D - A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and past experience, so that procurements are directed only to likely sellers who can work on the project.

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57. Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and Schedule Management Plan in your Project Management Plan. Is this the appropriate place for those items?

Explanation

D - These are subsidiary plans and should be included in the Project Management Plan.

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58. Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder?

Explanation

B- A stakeholder is anyone who is affected by the cost, time, or scope of your project. And that includes Unions

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59. Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?

Explanation

A- The records management system is one of the tools that you use in the Close Procurements process. It’s what you use to store your contracts and any related documents, so that future project managers can refer to them in future projects.

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60. You are managing a project with an EV of $15,000, PV of $12,000, and AC of $11,000. How would you BEST describe this project?

Explanation

A- This is a calculation question that’s asking you to use SPI and CPI to evaluate your project.
Luckily, it’s easy to do that!
First calculate SPI = EV / PV
SPI = $15,000 / $12,000 = 1.25—so your project is ahead of schedule.
Then calculate CPI = EV / AC = $15,000 / $11,000 = 1.36—so your project is within its budget.

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61. You are a project manager for a software project. Your team buys a component for a web page but they run into defects when they use it. Those defects slow your progress down considerably. Fixing the bugs in the component will double your development schedule and building your own component will take even longer. You work with your team to evaluate the cost and impact of all of your options and recommend hiring developers at the company that built the component to help you address problems in it. That will cost more but it will reduce your delay by a month. What is your next step?

Explanation

B- Once you’ve figured out the impact of the change to your schedule, budget, and scope, the next step is to take the change request to the Change Control Board.

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62. Midway through a project, a project manager determined that the project was running way behind schedule. If the project manager needs to now shorten the project schedule, without changing the project scope, which of the following schedule compression techniques could be applied?

Explanation

A - Crashing is the technique that can be applied to compress the project schedule without changing the project scope. The other technique is Fast tracking.

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63. Which of the following describes the Executing process group?

Explanation

The Executing process group is the phase in project management where project plans are put into action. This involves the actual implementation of the project activities and tasks as outlined in the project plans. It is the stage where the project team members work on their assigned tasks and the project progresses towards the achievement of its objectives. This phase also includes coordinating and communicating with stakeholders, managing resources, and resolving any issues or risks that may arise during the execution of the project.

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64. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?

Explanation

C- Cost Aggregation is used to build your budget, but it is not a tool for cost estimation. Bottom-up,
Parametric, and Analogous estimation techniques are used for both cost and time estimates.

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65. Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8 stakeholders in the project. He is worried that he might end up with an unmanageable number of communication channels. In your view, how many communication channels does Randy have to plan for?

Explanation

D - The correct response is 28. The formula to identify the number of communication channels is n X (n-1) / 2 where n is the number of stakeholders. Hence in this case, it works out to 8 X (8-1) / 2 = 8 X 7 / 2 = 56 / 2 = 28.

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66. When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to determine which companies you should request a bid from?

Explanation

D - A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and past experience, so that procurements are directed only to likely sellers who can work on the project.

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67. You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are considering two bids from companies on your qualified sellers list. Your project is on a tight budget, and you have been instructed by senior management to consider the cost over any other criteria. You used the company that submitted the lower bid on a previous project, and you were not happy with their work. The company that submitted the higher bid has a reputation for treating their clients well, flying project managers first class, and giving them accommodations in five-star hotels. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?

Explanation

A- There are a few really important ethical issues in this question. Your senior management was clear about the rules: go with the lowest bidder. And that’s what you should do. But on top of that, you shouldn’t choose your sellers based on perks that you’ll get—that’s called a bribe. And you should always refuse bribes.

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68. You have been hired by a contractor, who wants you to manage a construction project for one of their clients. The project team has been working for six weeks. You need to determine whether the team is ahead of or behind schedule. Which of the following tools and techniques is the BEST one for you to consult?

Explanation

A- Performance measurement is what you’re doing when you look at the work that the team is performing in order to determine whether the project is ahead or behind schedule.

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69. At the end of a project, what will your schedule variance be equal to?

Explanation

A - The schedule variance is the earned value minus the planned value. At the end of the project, all of the planned values should be earned and the difference should be zero.

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70. You're managing an industrial design project. Your project is currently in the Initiating phase. The project charter has been created, and you are working on identifying the stakeholders. Which of the following is NOT something that you should do?

Explanation

D- You don’t create the change control system in the Initiating phase—that’s something that you do as part of your project planning activities.

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71. Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists?

Explanation

B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios on one checklist.

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72. Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just finished defining the scope for the project and is creating the WBS. He goes to his organizational process asset library and finds a WBS from a past project to use as a jumping off point. Which of the following describes the asset that Tom is using?

Explanation

D- Tom is using a Template. As your company completes projects, the documents created along the way are stored in an Organizational Process Asset library.

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73. Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to reward her. She knows that you don't have enough money in the budget to give her a bonus, so she approaches you and requests an extra day off, even though she is out of vacation days. She asks if she can take one of her sick days, even though the company doesn't allow that. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

D- You must always follow your company’s policy—it’s your ethical duty as a project manager. You should find some other way to reward her that is not against your company’s rules.

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74. What is a risk owner?

Explanation

D- Every risk should have a risk owner listed in the register. That person is responsible for keeping the response plan up to date and make sure the right actions are taken if the risk does occur.

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75. If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the recommended alternatives to consider?

Explanation

B - Crashing and fast tracking can increase the project's schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential.

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76. A project team member finds that the color scheme of the webpage he is designing appears too gaudy and decides to change it to a mellowed down color scheme. The independent testing team flags this as a defect and there is a heated discussion between the team member and the testing team. What is your view?

Explanation

B - The testing team is correct in their findings. Even though the new color scheme might be a better choice than the old one, all changes need to follow the change management process and go through the appropriate change and approval process.

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77. Which of the following is an Input to Close Project or Phase?

Explanation

Accepted deliverables are the outputs of the project that have been reviewed and approved by the relevant stakeholders. These deliverables are the tangible results of the project's efforts and signify the completion of the project or phase. They are an input to the Close Project or Phase process because they need to be formally accepted and signed off before the project can be officially closed. Once the deliverables are accepted, the project team can proceed with closing any remaining tasks, documenting lessons learned, and transitioning any necessary project information to the appropriate parties.

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78. Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The project has a 60% chance of making the company $230,000 over the next year. It has a 40% chance of costing the company $150,000. What's the project's EMV?

Explanation

C- $230,000 x 0.70 = $ 138,000 savings, and $150,000 x 0.40 = -$60,000 expenses. Add them together and you get $78,000.

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79. At the close of your project, you measure the customer satisfaction and find that some customer needs were not fully met. Your supervisor asks you what steps you took on your project to improve customer satisfaction. Which subsidiary plan would you consult to determine this information?

Explanation

A- Customer satisfaction is an important part of modern quality management. Remember, customer satisfaction is about making sure that the people who are paying for the end product are happy with what they get.

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80. If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you determine the level of detail to be included in the plan?

Explanation

D - The level of detail required in a Project Management Plan would vary by project and would include only the details necessary for the project.

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81. You are managing a construction project. During your risk identification interviews you learn that there has been a string of construction site thefts over the past few months in the area where your will be building your project. The team agrees that it's unlikely that people will be able to steal from your site. Even if thieves could get around your security, it's even more unlikely that your project will lose a significant amount of material if a theft does occur. You decide to monitor the risk from time to time to be sure that it continues to have a low probability and impact. Where do you record the risk so that you don't lose track of it?

Explanation

B- A watchlist is where you keep risks that don’t have a high enough probability or impact to make it into the risk register but still need to be monitored.

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82. A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts anonymously. What risk identification tool or technique is being performed?

Explanation

B- The Delphi technique is a way to get opinions and ideas from experts. This is a technique that uses a facilitator who uses questionnaires to ask experts about important project risks.

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83. If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you determine the level of detail to be included in the plan?

Explanation

D - The level of detail required in a Project Management Plan would vary by project and would include only the details necessary for the project.

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84. Which of the following is an Output of Develop Project Management Plan?

Explanation

The Develop Project Management Plan process involves creating a comprehensive document that outlines the project's objectives, scope, deliverables, schedule, budget, and other essential components. The output of this process is the Project Management Plan, which serves as a roadmap for the project's execution and control. It includes all the necessary information and guidelines for managing and monitoring the project throughout its lifecycle. Therefore, the Project Management Plan is the correct answer as it is the primary output of the Develop Project Management Plan process.

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85. If you are working on a project where there is no definite project detailed scope, but similar projects have been completed in the past, what is the correct Estimate Activity Durations tool to use?

Explanation

A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous such projects that were similar in nature.

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86. Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?

Explanation

C- It’s not enough that the Project Manager approves of the Project Management Plan; it needs to be approved by all of the stakeholders in the project.

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87. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

D- The Project Scope Statement builds defines the scope of work for the project. It’s where everyone comes to a common understanding about the work that needs to be accomplished on the project.

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88. You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are considering two bids from companies on your qualified sellers list. Your project is on a tight budget, and you have been instructed by senior management to consider the cost over any other criteria. You used the company that submitted the lower bid on a previous project, and you were not happy with their work. The company that submitted the higher bid has a reputation for treating their clients well, flying project managers first class, and giving them accommodations in five-star hotels. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?

Explanation

A- There are a few really important ethical issues in this question. Your senior management was clear about the rules: go with the lowest bidder. And that’s what you should do. But on top of that, you shouldn’t choose your sellers based on perks that you’ll get—that’s called a bribe. And you should always refuse bribes.

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89. Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?

Explanation

D- Any activity that helps you find, prevent or fix defects in your product is included in the cost of quality.

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90. Tom is a project manager on an industrial design project. He is always watching when his team members come into the office, when they take their breaks, and when they leave. He periodically walks around the office to be sure that everyone is doing work when they are at their desks and he insists that he make every project decision, even minor ones. What kind of manager is he?

Explanation

A- Tom is a Theory X manager. He believes that employees need to be watched all of the time and that all of his team members are selfish and unmotivated.

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91. Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?

Explanation

A- The records management system is one of the tools that you use in the Close Procurements process. It’s what you use to store your contracts and any related documents, so that future project managers can refer to them in future projects.

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92. What is the purpose of the project charter?

Explanation

The purpose of the project charter is to recognize and acknowledge the existence of the project and commit organizational resources to it. The project charter serves as a formal document that outlines the project's objectives, scope, deliverables, and stakeholders. It also establishes the authority and responsibilities of the project manager and project team. By creating a project charter, the organization demonstrates its commitment to the project and provides the necessary resources for its successful execution.

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93. A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed through the course of her project. She figures out the number of people that will be needed in each role over time and displays that information in a chart as part of her staffing management plan. What is that chart called?

Explanation

D- A resource histogram is just a way to visualize the number of people in each role that you will need on your project as time goes on.

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94. Customer satisfaction should be measured at the end of the project to maintain long-term relationships. Which of the following is NOT always an aspect of customer satisfaction?

Explanation

B- Customers can be satisfied even when a project is not profitable—customer satisfaction isn’t always about money.

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95. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?

Explanation

C- Cost Aggregation is used to build your budget, but it is not a tool for cost estimation. Bottom-up,
Parametric, and Analogous estimation techniques are used for both cost and time estimates.

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96. Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The project has a 60% chance of making the company $230,000 over the next year. It has a 40% chance of costing the company $150,000. What's the project's EMV?

Explanation

C- $230,000 x 0.70 = $ 138,000 savings, and $150,000 x 0.40 = -$60,000 expenses. Add them together and you get $78,000.

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97. Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Explanation

B- The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle is a way of making small improvements and testing their impact before you make a change to the process as a whole. It comes from W. Edwards Deming’s work in process improvement, which popularized the cycle that was originally invented by Walter Shewhart in the 1930s.

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98. As an external vendor, you are managing a complex software project that has been contracted on Time & Material (T&M). One of your team- members reports a break-through in automating some of the testing activities. This will potentially result in cost savings to the project as well as the project getting completed ahead of schedule by a month. Which of the following actions would you take?

Explanation

C - A project manager should always communicate an accurate statement of the project status. There could be subsequent actions to discuss how the savings could be best utilized, whether there can be any cost sharing etc - but they would need to done following the appropriate procedure.

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99. Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in the procurement process do not receive preferential treatment?

Explanation

B - Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment.

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100. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

D- The Project Scope Statement builds defines the scope of work for the project. It’s where everyone comes to a common understanding about the work that needs to be accomplished on the project.

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101. Quantitative risk analysis should be performed:

Explanation

C - Since the quantitative risk analysis is a more in-depth process, it should only be performed on prioritized risks to minimize impact to the overall project schedule.

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102. Which of these items are important to address when determining each person's role in the project team?

Explanation

A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: role, authority, responsibility, and competency.

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103. The scope baseline consists of:

Explanation

D- The scope baseline is made up of the Project Scope Statement and the WBS and the WBS Dictionary. The WBS Dictionary is considered a supporting document to the WBS, so if the WBS were to change, then the dictionary would, too.

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104. You are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children's software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Which project Planning process are you working on?

Explanation

The correct answer is Human Resource Planning. In this question, the project manager is ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. This aligns with the activities involved in Human Resource Planning, which includes identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Resource Planning and Acquire Staff are not the correct answers because they do not specifically address the assignment of project roles and responsibilities. Human Resource Acquisition is also not the correct answer as it refers to the process of obtaining the necessary staff for the project, rather than the planning aspect.

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105. All of the following statements are true of the project Closing processes except for which one?

Explanation

The correct answer is that risk is greatest in the project Closing processes. This is because during the closing processes, most of the project work has been completed and the project is nearing its end. At this stage, there may be uncertainties and potential risks associated with finalizing the project, such as ensuring all deliverables are met, conducting final reviews and audits, and transitioning the project to the next phase or closure. Therefore, the closing processes may involve managing and mitigating any remaining risks to ensure a successful project closure.

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106. The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your project plan.

Explanation

B- When you work with a union then the union contract can have an impact on your project. That means you need to consider the union itself a stakeholder, and when you do your planning you need to make sure any union rules and agreements are considered as constraints.

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107. The scope baseline consists of:

Explanation

D- The scope baseline is made up of the Project Scope Statement and the WBS and the WBS Dictionary. The WBS Dictionary is considered a supporting document to the WBS, so if the WBS were to change, then the dictionary would, too.

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108. Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?

Explanation

B- Risk Urgency Assessment is a tool of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. Identify Risks is all about finding risks. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is about ranking them based on what your team thinks their impact and probability will be for your project.

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109. You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're planning out the work your team will do, you divide up all of the work into work packages and create a WBS that shows how they fit into categories. For each one of the work packages, you write down details such as initial estimates and information about what account it should be billed against. Where do you store all of that information?

Explanation

C- The WBS Dictionary is the companion document to the WBS. It gives all the details that you know about each work package in the WBS, including estimates and billing information.

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110. Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

B- Constrained Optimization doesn’t have anything to do with Define Scope—it’s a kind of benefit selection method.

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111. In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:

Explanation

D - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is quicker than Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis which is sometimes not required by the project.

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112. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project Management Plan?

Explanation

C- The Project Management Plan is not a bar chart (or a Gantt chart). It’s the collection of all of the planning documents you create through all of the knowledge areas within the five process groups.

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113. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?

Explanation

B- Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is all about figuring out prioritizing each risk, and figuring out its probability and impact. It’s an important part of risk planning. But it’s not about coming up with
specific numbers!

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114. When you look at a control chart that measures defects in the product produced by your project, you find that seven values are showing up below the mean on the chart. What should you do?

Explanation

A- Seven values on one side of the mean in a control chart indicate a problem with the process that is being measured.

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115. Two of your project team members approach you with a conflict that they are having with each other over the technical approach to their work. One of the two people is very aggressive, and tries to get you to make a decision quickly. The other team member is quiet, and seems less willing to talk about the issue. The conflict is starting to cause delays, and you need to reach a decision quickly. What's the BEST approach to solving this conflict?

Explanation

C- The best way to resolve any problem is to confront the issue—because “confronting” means figuring out the source of the problem and then resolving the root cause of the conflict.

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116. You're managing a construction project to install several hundred air conditioner panels in a new office building. Every floor has identical panels. The customer, a construction contracting company, has provided specifications for the installations. The team is using a process to install and verify each panel. As the team completes each panel, your team's quality control inspector measures it and adds the data point to a control chart. You examine the control chart, and discover that the process is out of control and you need to take close look at it immediately. Which of the following BEST describes what you found on the control chart?

Explanation

A- A control chart is a really valuable tool for visualizing how a process is doing over time. By taking one measurement after another and plotting them on a line chart, you can get a lot of great information about the process.

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117. You are managing a software engineering project. While investigating the cause of a low SPI, you discover that your team is having trouble completing their object design tasks, which are on the critical path. One of your team members tells you that her friend at another company sent her a copy of a software package they own that will help your team meet its deadline. Without that software package, your project will probably be late. But you don't have enough money in the budget to purchase it. What's the BEST way to handle this situation?

Explanation

A- As a certified project management professional, it’s your duty to respect copyrights. Purchased software is copyrighted, and you cannot use it without a license.

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118. You are managing a project with a total budget of $450,000. According to the schedule, your team should have completed 45% of the work by now. But at the latest status meeting, the team only reported that 40% of the work has actually been completed. The team has spent $165,000 so far on the project. How would you BEST describe this project?

Explanation

B- If you want to evaluate how the project is doing with respect to the schedule and budget, you need to calculate CPI and SPI.
The first step is to write down the information you have so far:
BAC = $450,000
planned % complete = 45%
actual % complete = 40%
AC = $165,000.
Now you can calculate PV = BAC x planned % complete
PV= $450,000 x 45% = $202,500.
And you can calculate EV = BAC x actual % complete
EV= $450,000 x 40% = $180,000.
Now you have the information you need to calculate CPI and SPI.
CPI = EV / AC = $180,000 / $165,000 = 1.09, which is above 1.0—so your project is within its budget. And you can calculate SPI = EV / PV = $180,000 / $202,500 = .89, which is below 1.0 - so your project is behind schedule.

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119. In a cause and effect diagram, which of these is not a potential cause?

Explanation

B - The potential causes of a specific effect fall into these categories: time, machine, method, material, energy, measurement, personnel, and environment.

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120. As a PMP, one of your responsibilities is to ensure integrity on the project. When your personal interests are put above the interests of the project or when you use your influence to cause others to make decisions in your favor without regard for the project outcome, this is considered:

Explanation

Conflict of interest refers to a situation where a person's personal interests or biases interfere with their ability to make fair and objective decisions in the best interest of the project. It occurs when someone prioritizes their own gain or advantage over the project's success, or when they manipulate others to make decisions that benefit them personally without considering the project's outcome. This behavior undermines the integrity of the project and can lead to biased decision-making and unfair treatment of stakeholders.

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121. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?

Explanation

B- Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is all about figuring out prioritizing each risk, and figuring out its probability and impact. It’s an important part of risk planning. But it’s not about coming up with
specific numbers!

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122. Your client has terminated your project before it is complete. Which of the following is true?

Explanation

B- Even if a project is shut down before the work is completed, you still need to document the lessons learned and add them to the organizational process assets.

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123. Which of the following is NOT an input of the Close Project or Phase process?

Explanation

B- The project management methodology describes the process (or lifecycle) that you use to manage your project. It really doesn’t have anything to do with closing a project or phase.

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124. While creating a project charter, you discover a new project management software tool has come onto the market. You spend the weekend taking an online tutorial to learn about it. This is an example of:

Explanation

D- The PMP Code of Professional Conduct tells us that an important part of any project manager’s career is enhancing personal professional competence. This means increasing your knowledge and applying it so that you can improve your ability to manage projects.

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125. You are managing a construction project. During your risk identification interviews you learn that there has been a string of construction site thefts over the past few months in the area where your will be building your project. The team agrees that it's unlikely that people will be able to steal from your site. Even if thieves could get around your security, it's even more unlikely that your project will lose a significant amount of material if a theft does occur. You decide to monitor the risk from time to time to be sure that it continues to have a low probability and impact. Where do you record the risk so that you don't lose track of it?

Explanation

B- A watchlist is where you keep risks that don’t have a high enough probability or impact to make it into the risk register but still need to be monitored.

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126. Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in the procurement process do not receive preferential treatment?

Explanation

B - Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment.

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127. Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

B- Constrained Optimization doesn’t have anything to do with Define Scope—it’s a kind of benefit selection method.

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128. You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your company. He'll be affected by all accounting projects in your company. What's the BEST thing for you to do?

Explanation

B- Since the CFO is affected by your project, that means he’s a stakeholder. The best thing you can do in this situation is get the new stakeholder’s opinion incorporated in the project up front.

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129. Which tools and techniques are recommended for developing a project team?

Explanation

B - Building teamwork and friendliness is important to the project's success. Activities such as team building and recognition and rewards can make a project successful and help it overcome barriers.

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130. A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed through the course of her project. She figures out the number of people that will be needed in each role over time and displays that information in a chart as part of her staffing management plan. What is that chart called?

Explanation

D- A resource histogram is just a way to visualize the number of people in each role that you will need on your project as time goes on.

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131. A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which of the following techniques should she consider?

Explanation

D - Advertising is a good avenue to expand existing lists of sellers. Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications in order to achieve this.

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132. Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations technique?

Explanation

D - Analogous, parametric, and three- point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project.

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133. Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists?

Explanation

B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios on one checklist.

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134. While identifying risks for a new construction project, you discover that a chemical you are using on your building cannot be applied in rainy conditions. You also learn that your project will be ready for the chemical application around the time when most of the rainfall happens in this part of the country. Since the project can't be delayed until after the rainy season and you need to make sure the building gets the chemical coating, you decide that your team will just have to allow enough time in the schedule for non worked rain days. This is an example of which strategy?

Explanation

C- This is an example of accepting a risk. The team can’t do anything about the weather, so the project manager has accepted the fact that they could end up being delayed by it.

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135. A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good idea of how long the project will take, or how much the materials will cost. Which contract type is MOST appropriate for this project?

Explanation

B-Time and Materials (T&M) contracts are used in labor contracts. In a T&M contract, the seller pays a rate for each of the people working on the team plus their material costs.

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136. Which of the following shows roles and responsibilities on your project?

Explanation

The RACI matrix shows roles and responsibilities on your project. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed.

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137. You are initiating project that has a virtual team. Half of your team members will be located in another country, where they are working for a subcontractor. The subcontractor's team members speak a different dialect of English than your team does. After a conference call to review the project charter, two of your team members make jokes about the way your subcontractor's team members speak. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?

Explanation

A- Sexism, racism, or other discrimination should never be tolerated, no matter what the circumstances.

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138. You are using a Pareto chart to examine the defects that have been found during an inspection of your product. Which process are you performing?

Explanation

C- Whenever you use any of the seven basic tools of quality to examine the results of an inspection of your product, you are in Perform Quality Control. If you were examining the process your company uses to build multiple projects, you would be in Perform Quality Assurance.

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139. Your company is going to introduce a new service called Phone Home. This service will allow you to speak the name of the person you want to call into your cellular phone. To call home, you would simply speak the word home into the phone, and it will dial that number for you. Your company is taking advantage of the progress that has been made recently with voice recognition software. Initial projections show that market demand is very high for this product. This project came about as a result of which of the following?  

Explanation

The introduction of the new service, Phone Home, is a result of technological advance. The company is taking advantage of the progress made in voice recognition software to develop this service. This suggests that the company is leveraging the advancements in technology to meet market demand and offer a convenient and innovative solution to customers.

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140. Deliverables can be described as?

Explanation

Deliverables can be described as the verifiable results of products or services that must be produced to consider the project complete. This means that deliverables are the tangible or intangible outcomes that the project aims to achieve. They can be measured and verified to ensure that the project has been successfully completed.

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141. Your project team has completed the project work. All of the following must be done before the project can be closed EXCEPT:

Explanation

A- Before you can close your project, there are a few things you need to do. Remember the acceptance criteria in the scope statement? Well, those criteria need to be met. And you need to get formal written acceptance from the customer. And every work item in the WBS needs to be completed.

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142. Which conflict resolution technique is most effective?

Explanation

D- Confronting means figuring out the cause of the problem and fixing it. That’s the best way to be
sure that the right decision is made.

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143. Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of the project charter?

Explanation

A- The project charter does several important things: it lays out the project requirements, describes
an initial summary milestone schedule, documents the business case, and identifies initial risks, assumptions, and constraints. But the most important thing that a project charter does is that it identifies the project manager, and assigns him or her the authority necessary to get the job done.

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144. While identifying risks for a new construction project, you discover that a chemical you are using on your building cannot be applied in rainy conditions. You also learn that your project will be ready for the chemical application around the time when most of the rainfall happens in this part of the country. Since the project can't be delayed until after the rainy season and you need to make sure the building gets the chemical coating, you decide that your team will just have to allow enough time in the schedule for non worked rain days. This is an example of which strategy?

Explanation

C- This is an example of accepting a risk. The team can’t do anything about the weather, so the project manager has accepted the fact that they could end up being delayed by it.

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145. A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which of the following techniques should she consider?

Explanation

D - Advertising is a good avenue to expand existing lists of sellers. Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications in order to achieve this.

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146. While analyzing a project, the project manager calculated the ratio of the Earned Value (EV) to the Actual Costs (AC) and obtained a value of 1.2. The project manager decided that this was an unfavorable condition to the project and decided to take corrective action. What is your view?

Explanation

C - The project manager is not correct. CPI = Cost Performance Index, and is the ratio of EV to AC. A value greater than 1 is a favorable condition for the project. The project manager has incorrectly interpreted the situation.

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147. Which quality control technique or tool should be used when trying to determine the cause of a major defect?

Explanation

D - A fishbone diagram, also called a cause and effect diagram, helps identify potential causes of an issue or problem.

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148. Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?

Explanation

C- It’s not enough that the Project Manager approves of the Project Management Plan; it needs to be approved by all of the stakeholders in the project.

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149. All of the following are inputs into the Directing and Managing Project Execution EXCEPT?

Explanation

The Risk Register is not an input into the Directing and Managing Project Execution process. The Risk Register is a tool used in the Risk Management process, which is a separate process from Directing and Managing Project Execution. The inputs into Directing and Managing Project Execution include the Project Management Plan, Organisational Process Assets, and Enterprise Environmental Factors, as these provide the necessary information and resources for executing the project.

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150. Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Explanation

B- The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle is a way of making small improvements and testing their impact before you make a change to the process as a whole. It comes from W. Edwards Deming’s work in process improvement, which popularized the cycle that was originally invented by Walter Shewhart in the 1930s.

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151. As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between two variables to help your project team understand the quality impacts better. Which tool should be used?

Explanation

A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables (one on each axis). A relationship can then often be determine between the two variables based on how closely they fit a geometric model.

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152. A project manager is faced with two team members who have conflicting opinions. One team member explains her side of the conflict. The other team member responds by saying, "I know you'll never really listen to my side, so let's just go with her opinion and get back to work." This is an example of:

Explanation

A- Withdrawal happens when someone gives up and walks away from the problem, usually because they’re frustrated or disgusted. If you see a team member doing this, it’s a warning sign that something’s wrong.

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153. You are managing a construction project to install new door frames in an office building. You planned on spending $12,500 on the project, but your costs are higher than expected, and now you're afraid that your project is spending too much money. What number tells you the difference between the amount of money you planned on spending and what you've actually spent so far on the project?

Explanation

C- The cost variance (CV) is the difference between the amount of money you planned on spending and the total that you’ve spent so far.

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154. Tom is the project manager on a construction project. Midway through his project, he realizes that there's a problem with the lumber they've been using in a few rooms and they're going to have to tear down some of the work they've done and rebuild. One of his team members suggests that the defect isn't bad enough to cause all of that re-work. Tom says that he's worked on a project that made this same mistake before and they ended up having to redo the work when inspectors looked at the house. He convinces the team member that it's probably better to fix it now than later. What kind of power is he using to make the decision?

Explanation

B- Tom is using expert power. Since he’s been through this problem before, his team is more likely to accept his authority.

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155. You are managing a construction project using a firm fixed price (FFP) contract. The contract is structured so that your company will be paid a fee of $85,000 to complete the work. There was a $15,000 overhead cost that your company had to cover. It's now three months into the project, and your costs have just exceeded $70,000. The project has now consumed the entire fee, and your company will now be forced to pay for all costs on the project from this point forward. What's the BEST way to describe this situation?

Explanation

C- The point of total assumption is the point at which the seller assumes the costs. In a firm fixed price contract, this is the point where the costs have gotten so large that the seller basically runs out of money from the contract and has to start paying the costs.

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156. Which tools and techniques are recommended for developing a project team?

Explanation

B - Building teamwork and friendliness is important to the project's success. Activities such as team building and recognition and rewards can make a project successful and help it overcome barriers.

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157. Which of the following is an Input to Monitor and Control Project Work?

Explanation

Organisational Process Assets are the documented procedures, guidelines, and knowledge base specific to an organization that can be used to monitor and control project work. These assets include historical information, lessons learned, and templates that provide guidance for managing projects. By using these assets, project managers can ensure that project work is being performed in accordance with the organization's established processes and standards. Therefore, Organisational Process Assets serve as an input to monitor and control project work.

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158. Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity is:

Explanation

D - Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity.

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159. Where would you find a detailed list and description of specific project assumptions associated with the project?

Explanation

B - The Project scope statement lists and describes the specific project assumptions associated with project scope and the potential impact of those assumptions if they prove to be false. The assumptions listed in the detailed project scope statement are typically more numerous and detailed than the project assumptions listed in the project charter.

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160. Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to reward her. She knows that you don't have enough money in the budget to give her a bonus, so she approaches you and requests an extra day off, even though she is out of vacation days. She asks if she can take one of her sick days, even though the company doesn't allow that. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

D- You must always follow your company’s policy—it’s your ethical duty as a project manager. You should find some other way to reward her that is not against your company’s rules.

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161. A project manager is working in a country where it is customary to pay the police for private protection services, and those costs have increased the AC. This has affected his earned value calculations. When he reviews the budget with his company's management, his supervisor tells him that in another country, those costs would be considered a bribe, and questions whether they should be added to the budget. What is the BEST way for the project manager to proceed?

Explanation

B- Some questions on the exam might ask you about how to operate in another country. In this case,
the question is about whether or not something is a bribe. Clearly, if it’s a bribe, you can’t pay it. But is it? If a payment to a government official (or anyone else) is customary, then it’s not a bribe. You
should go ahead and pay the police—as long as it’s acceptable and legal in that country.

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162. In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:

Explanation

D - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is quicker than Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis which is sometimes not required by the project.

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163. Which of these items are important to address when determining each person's role in the project team?

Explanation

A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: role, authority, responsibility, and competency.

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164. Which enterprise environmental factor defines how work is assigned to people?

Explanation

D- The work authorization system is a part of your company’s Enterprise Environmental Factors, and it’s generally part of any change control system.

Submit
165. A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good idea of how long the project will take, or how much the materials will cost. Which contract type is MOST appropriate for this project?

Explanation

B-Time and Materials (T&M) contracts are used in labor contracts. In a T&M contract, the seller pays a rate for each of the people working on the team plus their material costs.

Submit
166. As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between two variables to help your project team understand the quality impacts better. Which tool should be used?

Explanation

A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables (one on each axis). A relationship can then often be determine between the two variables based on how closely they fit a geometric model.

Submit
167. You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your company. He'll be affected by all accounting projects in your company. What's the BEST thing for you to do?

Explanation

B- Since the CFO is affected by your project, that means he’s a stakeholder. The best thing you can do in this situation is get the new stakeholder’s opinion incorporated in the project up front.

Submit
168. Your company's quality assurance department has performed a quality audit on your project. They have found that your team has implemented something inefficiently, and that could lead to defects. What's the NEXT thing that should happen on your project?

Explanation

B- Quality Audits are when your company reviews your project to see if you are following its processes. The point is to figure out if there are ways to help you be more effective by finding the stuff you are doing on your project that is inefficient or that causes defects.

Submit
169. On obtaining the project charter, the project manager of a project immediately put together the project team to execute the project. Is this correct?

Explanation

D - No, the project team is not acquired immediately after signing of the project charter. Acquisition of a project team starts with HR planning in the Planning process group, followed by the Acquisition of the team in the Execution phase. The other answers are wrong because the Acquisition of the project team is mentioned in the wrong phase. It is also not the responsibility of the Project Sponsor to provide the team for execution.

Submit
170. Which enterprise environmental factor defines how work is assigned to people?

Explanation

D- The work authorization system is a part of your company’s Enterprise Environmental Factors, and it’s generally part of any change control system.

Submit
171. The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your project plan.

Explanation

B- When you work with a union then the union contract can have an impact on your project. That means you need to consider the union itself a stakeholder, and when you do your planning you need to make sure any union rules and agreements are considered as constraints.

Submit
172. Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?

Explanation

B- Risk Urgency Assessment is a tool of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. Identify Risks is all about finding risks. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is about ranking them based on what your team thinks their impact and probability will be for your project.

Submit
173. As a project manager, you are performing various project performance measurements to assess the magnitude of variation. You then attempt to determine the cause and decide whether corrective action is required. This would be known as:

Explanation

B - This is known as Variance Analysis. As project manager, you would then attempt to determine the cause of the Variance, relative to the scope baseline and then decide on whether corrective action is required.

Submit
174. Joe is a project manager on an industrial design project. He has found a pattern of defects occurring in all of his projects over the past few years and he thinks there might be a problem in the process his company is using that is causing it. He uses Ishikawa diagrams to come up with the root cause for this trend over projects so that he can make recommendations for process changes to avoid this problem in the future. What process is he doing?

Explanation

B- Joe is doing root-cause analysis on process problems: that’s Perform Quality Assurance.

Submit
175. Quantitative risk analysis should be performed:

Explanation

C - Since the quantitative risk analysis is a more in-depth process, it should only be performed on prioritized risks to minimize impact to the overall project schedule.

Submit
176. During procurement closure, a procurement audit includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

D- Until the customer accepts the final product, your project isn’t done! Once you’ve closed out a procurement, it’s important to conduct a procurement audit.

Submit
177. Which of the following statements is true regarding Close Project?

Explanation

The correct answer is that Close Project occurs at the end of a project phase and at the end of the project. This means that the Close Project process is performed both when a project phase is completed and when the entire project is finished. It involves finalizing all activities, completing necessary documentation, and obtaining formal acceptance from stakeholders. By closing the project at the end of each phase and at the end of the project, it ensures that all deliverables have been achieved, resources are released, and lessons learned are captured for future projects.

Submit
178. All of the following processes form part of the Executing process group except?

Explanation

The Executing process group involves performing activities in accordance with the project management plan, completing the work in accordance with the defined quality framework and specification, and coordinating people and resources. Managing changes to the deliverables, on the other hand, falls under the Monitoring and Controlling process group. This process group focuses on tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project, including managing changes to the deliverables.

Submit
179. One way the Close Project or Phase process differs from Close Procurement is:

Explanation

C- When you’re performing the Close Procurements process, you’re closing out work done by a seller for a contract. To do that, you do a few things: you verify that all of the work and deliverables are acceptable, you finalize any open claims, and in case of early termination, you follow the termination clause in the contract.
On the other hand, when you’re performing the Close Project or Phase process, you’re finalizing all of the various activities that you do across all of the process groups, and you’re also verifying that the work and deliverables are complete.

Submit
180. Fill in the blank: A _______ is a document established by consensus and approved by a recognized body that provides, for common and repeated use, rules, guidelines or characteristics for activities or their results, aimed at the achievement of the optimum degree of order in a given context.

Explanation

B- Standards ensure reproducible results or products, within a specific set of parameters. Examples of standards are USB 2.0 and the octane rating of gasoline.

Submit
181. A company that designs and manufactures a series of new bicycles each year may manage the effort more efficiently how?

Explanation

A - A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually.

Submit
182. Which of the following is not a general management technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the project work?

Explanation

C - Alternatives Identification concerns itself with identifying techniques to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project. Map-Out is not a valid technique - the other three namely Brainstorming, Lateral thinking and Six Thinking Hats are techniques used to generate ideas for different approaches.

Submit
183. If you want to reduce the number of quality inspections and thus reduce the cost of quality control for your project, which technique should be used?

Explanation

C - Statistical sampling will provide sufficient inspection to ensure a high likelihood of a quality product, while saving money for the project.

Submit
184. Which of these tools is NOT part of the Seven Basic Tools of Quality?

Explanation

B - The seven basic tools of quality are: cause and effect diagrams, control charts, flowcharting, histograms, pareto charts, run charts, and scatter diagrams.

Submit
185. The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform which of the following?

Explanation

The primary function of the Closing processes is to formalize project completion and disseminate this information to project participants. This involves ensuring that all project deliverables have been completed, conducting a final review of the project to ensure it meets the requirements, and documenting any lessons learned throughout the project. By formalizing project completion and disseminating this information, project participants can be informed about the project's outcomes and achievements. This helps in evaluating the success of the project and provides valuable insights for future projects.

Submit
186. When is the BEST time to have project kickoff meetings?

Explanation

C- If your project is broken up into phases, you should have a kickoff meeting at the start of each phase.

Submit
187. You are managing a construction project that is currently being initiated. You met with the sponsors, and have started to work on identifying stakeholders. You've documented several key stakeholders and identified their needs. Before you can finish initiating the project, your company guidelines require that you make a rough order of magnitude estimate of both time and cost, so that the sponsor can allocate the final budget.   What's the range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate?

Explanation

B- A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is an estimate that is very rough. According to the PMBOK® Guide, you should expect a ROM estimate to be anywhere from half (-50%) to one and a half times (+50%) the actual result. That means that if your ROM estimate for a project is six months, then you should expect the actual project to be anywhere from three months to nine months.

Submit
188. You are a project manager working on a new software product. Your company plans for market businesses. The project sponsor told you that the project must be completed by September 1. The company plans to demo the new software product at a trade show in late September and therefore needs the project completed in time for the trade show. However, the sponsor has also told you that the budget is fixed at $85,000 and cannot be increased by even $10 due to overall budget cuts this year. You must complete the project within the given time frame and budget. Which of the following is the primary constraint? for this project?  

Explanation

The primary constraint for this project is the budget. The project sponsor has explicitly stated that the budget is fixed at $85,000 and cannot be increased. This means that the project must be completed within this budget constraint, and any additional expenses cannot be accommodated. The time frame and schedule are also important considerations, but the budget constraint takes precedence in this scenario.

Submit
189. You are developing the project charter for a new project. Which of the following is NOT part of the enterprise environmental factors?

Explanation

A- Lessons learned are part of the organizational process assets, not enterprise environmental factors. Your company’s enterprise environmental factors tell you about how your company typically does business—like how your company’s departments are structured, and the
regulatory and industry environment your company operates in.

Submit
190. All of the following are Inputs to Direct and Manage Project Execution EXCEPT?

Explanation

Risk Management Plans are not inputs to Direct and Manage Project Execution. This process focuses on executing the project work according to the project management plan, approved change requests, and organizational process assets. Risk management plans are part of the planning process group and are used to identify, assess, and mitigate project risks. They are not directly used during the execution phase but may be referenced if any identified risks occur during the execution process.

Submit
191. You have just been authorized to manage a new project for your company. Which of the following BEST describes your first action?

Explanation

D- Since the project charter is what authorizes a project manager to work on a project, it means that the Develop Project Charter process has just been performed. So which of the processes in the list comes next? The other Initiating process: Identify Stakeholders.

Submit
192. What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their mitigation plans to support the project schedule?

Explanation

A - The risk register helps a project manager identify risks and countermeasures that might impact schedule.

Submit
193. Which is the BEST description of project scope?

Explanation

D- Product scope means the features and functions of the product or service being built.

Submit
194. You are refining the product description for your company's new line of ski boots. Which of the following statements is true?

Explanation

In the initiating process of a project, the product description is typically at a high-level and contains less detail. As the project progresses and moves into the planning processes, more information and detail will be added to the product description. This is because the planning stage requires more specific and detailed information to effectively plan and execute the project. Therefore, the statement "You are in the Initiating process of your project and know that the product description will contain less detail in this stage and greater detail as the project progresses" is true.

Submit
195. What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their mitigation plans to support the project schedule?

Explanation

A - The risk register helps a project manager identify risks and countermeasures that might impact schedule.

Submit
196. You are managing a software engineering project, when two team members come to you with a conflict. The lead developer has identified an important project risk: you have a subcontractor that may not deliver on time. Another developer doesn't believe that the risk is likely to happen; however, you consult the lessons learned from previous projects and discover that subcontractors failed to deliver their work on two previous projects. You decide that the risk is too big; you terminate the contract with the subcontractor, and instead hire additional developers to build the component. Both team members agree that this has eliminated the risk. Which of the following BEST describes this scenario?

Explanation

C- The best thing that you can do with a risk is avoid it—if you can't prevent it from happening. In this case, getting rid of the subcontractor avoids the risk.

Submit
197. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of the Perform Quality Control process?

Explanation

B- Quality audits are when your company reviews your project to make sure that you are following all of the processes in your company correctly. They are a tool of the Perform Quality Assurance process.

Submit
198. The Project Management Knowledge Areas _______________

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the Project Management Knowledge Areas consist of nine areas that bring together processes that have things in common. This means that the knowledge areas are organized based on similarities in the processes involved. Each area focuses on a specific aspect of project management and includes related processes that share common characteristics or objectives. This approach helps to streamline project management practices and ensure consistency in the application of processes across different projects.

Submit
199. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.

Explanation

The ethical code that a PMP is required to adhere to is the Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct. This code outlines the ethical standards and principles that project managers should follow in their professional practice. It covers areas such as responsibility, honesty, fairness, and respect for stakeholders. Adhering to this code is important for maintaining professionalism and ensuring ethical behavior in project management.

Submit
200. Which of the following is an Input to Monitor and Control Project Work?

Explanation

Organisational Process Assets are an input to Monitor and Control Project Work. These assets include any relevant plans, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are used by the organization to execute projects. They provide guidance and direction for project execution, and can include templates, historical data, lessons learned, and other resources. By utilizing these assets, project managers can effectively monitor and control project work, ensuring that it is aligned with the organization's processes and standards.

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The customer has reviewed the deliverables of a project and finds that...
A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform...
You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just...
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If you have an unresolved issue while working on a project, what is...
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Which is the BEST definition of quality?
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You are the project manager for a software development project. When...
Which of the following best describes decomposition?
Tom is a project manager on an industrial design project. He is always...
If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the...
A team member approaches you with a change that could cut your...
Which is the BEST definition of quality?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project...
Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors...
A change has occurred on your project. You've documented the change,...
You have just delivered a product to your client for acceptance, when...
A project manager is reporting the final status of the closed contract...
You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out...
Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations...
You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're...
Which of the following is NOT a type of communication ?
Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and...
You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your...
Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?
You are managing a software project. You are partway through the...
A senior manager is presenting to your client's board of directors...
You are managing a software project. During a walkthrough of newly...
A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout...
In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep...
Which of the following is an Output of  Develop Project Charter?
Ongoing operations and a project both have Initiating Processes, but...
You have been asked to establish a project charter for your new...
A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout...
A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts...
You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your...
What is a risk owner?
You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out...
Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8...
If you are working on a project where there is no definite project...
Which of the following best describes decomposition?
Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just...
A project manager is just finishing a project that has not gone well....
A notice sent to a subcontractor about the contract is an example of...
A company is about to begin work on a large construction project to...
Which of the following is NOT found in a project charter?
A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform...
You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just...
Before closing a contract, the project manager should:
You have recently been assigned to be the project manager for a...
Brandi is a project manager on a software project. About halfway...
Two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule...
When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to...
Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and...
Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder?
Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?
You are managing a project with an EV of $15,000, PV of $12,000, and...
You are a project manager for a software project. Your team buys a...
Midway through a project, a project manager determined that the...
Which of the following describes the Executing process group?
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?
Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8...
When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to...
You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are...
You have been hired by a contractor, who wants you to manage a...
At the end of a project, what will your schedule variance be equal to?
You're managing an industrial design project. Your project is...
Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on...
Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just...
Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to...
What is a risk owner?
If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the...
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Which of the following is an Input to Close Project or Phase?
Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The...
At the close of your project, you measure the customer satisfaction...
If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you...
You are managing a construction project. During your risk...
A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts...
If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you...
Which of the following is an Output of Develop Project Management...
If you are working on a project where there is no definite project...
Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?
What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are...
Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?
Tom is a project manager on an industrial design project. He is always...
Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?
What is the purpose of the project charter?
A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed...
Customer satisfaction should be measured at the end of the project to...
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?
Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The...
Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
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Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in...
What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
Quantitative risk analysis should be performed:
Which of these items are important to address when determining each...
The scope baseline consists of:
You are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. This company...
All of the following statements are true of the project Closing...
The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your...
The scope baseline consists of:
Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?
You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're...
Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?
In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project...
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform...
When you look at a control chart that measures defects in the product...
Two of your project team members approach you with a conflict that...
You're managing a construction project to install several hundred air...
You are managing a software engineering project. While investigating...
You are managing a project with a total budget of $450,000. According...
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As a PMP, one of your responsibilities is to ensure integrity on the...
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform...
Your client has terminated your project before it is complete. Which...
Which of the following is NOT an input of the Close Project or Phase...
While creating a project charter, you discover a new project...
You are managing a construction project. During your risk...
Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in...
Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?
You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your...
Which tools and techniques are recommended for developing a project...
A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed...
A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which...
Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations...
Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on...
While identifying risks for a new construction project, you discover...
A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good...
Which of the following shows roles and responsibilities on your...
You are initiating project that has a virtual team. Half of your team...
You are using a Pareto chart to examine the defects that have been...
Your company is going to introduce a new service called Phone Home....
Deliverables can be described as?
Your project team has completed the project work. All of the following...
Which conflict resolution technique is most effective?
Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of the project...
While identifying risks for a new construction project, you discover...
A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which...
While analyzing a project, the project manager calculated the ratio of...
Which quality control technique or tool should be used when trying to...
Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?
All of the following are inputs into the Directing and Managing...
Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between...
A project manager is faced with two team members who have conflicting...
You are managing a construction project to install new door frames in...
Tom is the project manager on a construction project. Midway through...
You are managing a construction project using a firm fixed price (FFP)...
Which tools and techniques are recommended for developing a project...
Which of the following is an Input to Monitor and Control Project...
Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or...
Where would you find a detailed list and description of specific...
Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to...
A project manager is working in a country where it is customary to pay...
In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:
Which of these items are important to address when determining each...
Which enterprise environmental factor defines how work is assigned to...
A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good...
As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between...
You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your...
Your company's quality assurance department has performed a quality...
On obtaining the project charter, the project manager of a project...
Which enterprise environmental factor defines how work is assigned to...
The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your...
Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?
As a project manager, you are performing various project performance...
Joe is a project manager on an industrial design project. He has found...
Quantitative risk analysis should be performed:
During procurement closure, a procurement audit includes all of the...
Which of the following statements is true regarding Close Project?
All of the following processes form part of the Executing process...
One way the Close Project or Phase process differs from Close...
Fill in the blank: A _______ is a document established by consensus...
A company that designs and manufactures a series of new bicycles each...
Which of the following is not a general management technique used to...
If you want to reduce the number of quality inspections and thus...
Which of these tools is NOT part of the Seven Basic Tools of Quality?
The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform which of...
When is the BEST time to have project kickoff meetings?
You are managing a construction project that is currently being...
You are a project manager working on a new software product. Your...
You are developing the project charter for a new project. Which of the...
All of the following are Inputs to Direct and Manage Project Execution...
You have just been authorized to manage a new project for your...
What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their...
Which is the BEST description of project scope?
You are refining the product description for your company's new line...
What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their...
You are managing a software engineering project, when two team members...
Which of the following is not a tool or technique of the Perform...
The Project Management Knowledge Areas _______________
Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.
Which of the following is an Input to Monitor and Control Project...
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