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Are you ready to test your knowledge of computer security & domain administrator? Try our ' Network administrator MCQ Questions And Answers' and see how well aware you are of computers' technical aspects. All the questions on our quiz are to the point, and you will only get points by choosing the correction option. We strongly suggest that you answer all the questions on the quiz & try to get a good score. We wish you good luck, and make sure you try more fun quizzes! Have fun!
Questions and Answers
1.
Your IT Company is constantly changing, with new users coming and going throughout the year. One of your common tasks requires the deletion of user accounts for employees who have left the company. Which command can be used to delete user accounts?
A. 
Dsmod
B. 
LDIFDE
C. 
Netsh
D. 
Dcpromo
Correct Answer B. LDIFDE
Explanation LDIFDE can be used to delete user accounts. LDIFDE stands for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Data Interchange Format Editor. It is a command-line tool used to import, export, and modify objects in the Active Directory. In this scenario, LDIFDE can be used to delete user accounts for employees who have left the company, allowing for efficient management of user accounts in a constantly changing IT company.
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2.
What type of DNS record is the record that points out the location of the mail server?
A. 
PTR
B. 
MX
C. 
SVR
D. 
SOA
Correct Answer B. MX
Explanation The correct answer is MX. MX stands for Mail Exchanger, and it is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail server responsible for accepting incoming email messages for a particular domain. This record points out the location of the mail server and helps in the routing of email traffic.
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3.
You install Active Directory on a server. You want it to be a separate domain that is part of an existing forest but containing a namespace separate from the forest where you are installing it. What is this type of domain called?
A. 
A replica
B. 
A child domain
C. 
A forest root
D. 
A tree root
Correct Answer D. A tree root
Explanation A tree root is a type of domain that is part of an existing forest but has a separate namespace. It is created when you install Active Directory on a server and want to establish a separate domain within the forest. This allows for the organization of resources and users in a distinct namespace while still being connected to the existing forest.
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4.
You are installing Active Directory on a new domain controller and selecting options for placing the database and log files. Which of the following options would produce the optimum performance of these files? Each answer represents part of the solution.(Choose two.)
A. 
Placing them on the same NTFS partition
B. 
Ensuring plenty of hard disk space for these files to expand
C. 
Placing them on NTFS partitions located on separate physical disks
D. 
Restricting them to small partitions to control their size
Correct Answer C. Placing them on NTFS partitions located on separate physical disks
Explanation Placing the Active Directory database and log files on separate physical disks would ensure optimum performance. This is because it allows for parallel disk operations, reducing the potential for disk I/O bottlenecks. By separating the files onto different disks, the system can read and write data simultaneously, improving overall performance.
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5.
Which of the following is the most appropriate scenario where you would want to install a read-only domain controller?
A. 
In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum
B. 
In the head office near the receptionist’s desk
C. 
In the server room where the forest root domain is located and you need an optimum location for the schema master and domain naming master
D. 
In a branch office server room where you need to place the infrastructure master, RID master, and PDC emulator close to clients requiring their services
Correct Answer A. In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum
Explanation Installing a read-only domain controller in a branch office with less than optimum physical security would be the most appropriate scenario. A read-only domain controller provides an additional layer of security by preventing any modifications to the Active Directory database. This is particularly useful in locations where there is a higher risk of unauthorized access or physical tampering. By installing a read-only domain controller, the branch office can still authenticate users and provide services, while minimizing the risk of compromising the entire Active Directory infrastructure.
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6.
Which of the following are valid domain and forest functional levels for a Windows Server 2008 domain?
A. 
Windows 2000 mixed
B. 
Windows 2000 native
C. 
Windows Server 2003 mixed
D. 
Windows Server 2003 /2008
Correct Answer D. Windows Server 2003 /2008
Explanation The valid domain and forest functional levels for a Windows Server 2008 domain include Windows Server 2003 /2008. This means that the domain and forest functional levels can be set to either Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008.
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7.
How can you create a user object with the help of a single command?
A. 
The Dsadd command
B. 
The Create Method
C. 
The Create-item cmdlet
D. 
The set info method
Correct Answer A. The Dsadd command
Explanation The Dsadd command is used to create a user object with a single command. It is a command-line tool in Windows Server that allows administrators to create objects in Active Directory. By using the Dsadd command, you can specify the necessary parameters such as the user's name, password, and other attributes, and the user object will be created in Active Directory. This command simplifies the process of creating user objects by combining multiple steps into a single command.
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8.
You are the administrator of an active directory domain. A user complains to you that he is unable to change his password. No other users have this issue. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. 
Insufficient login credentials
B. 
He is a member of the Administrators group
C. 
He is not a member of the domain
D. 
The property “User cannot change password” has been enabled when it was created
Correct Answer D. The property “User cannot change password” has been enabled when it was created
Explanation The most likely cause of the user's inability to change his password is that the property "User cannot change password" has been enabled when the user account was created. This property restricts the user from changing their password, which could explain the issue reported by the user.
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9.
Which of the following is arranged in the correct Active Directory organizational order (largest to smallest)?
A. 
Forest, Domain, Tree, Branch, Computer
B. 
Computer, Forest, Domain, Tree
C. 
Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer
D. 
Forest, Tree, Computer, Domain
Correct Answer C. Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer
Explanation The correct order for Active Directory organizational structure is Forest, Tree, Domain, and Computer. A forest is the highest level of organization, containing multiple trees. Each tree represents a domain, which is a logical group of objects, such as users and computers. Within each domain, there can be multiple computers. Therefore, Forest, Tree, Domain, Computer is the correct order.
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10.
Which of the following groupings of linked domains would be a tree?
A. 
Mycorp.com and newcorp.com
B. 
Mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com
C. 
Marketing and Talent
D. 
Windows 2000 and Window NT
Correct Answer B. Mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com
Explanation A tree is a hierarchical structure where each node has only one parent, except for the root node which has no parent. In the given options, the grouping "mycorp.com and newsite.mycorp.com" forms a tree because "newsite.mycorp.com" is a subdomain of "mycorp.com". This means that "mycorp.com" is the parent node and "newsite.mycorp.com" is the child node. Since all nodes have only one parent, this grouping satisfies the definition of a tree.
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11.
A user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com may administer which of the following groupings?
A. 
Mycorp.com within the central USA site
B. 
Dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain
C. 
Austin.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain
D. 
Managers organizational unit within the dallas.mycorp.com Sales organizational unit
Correct Answer B. Dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain
Explanation The user granted Domain Administrator access over the domain dallas.mycorp.com may administer the grouping of dallas.mycorp.com within the mycorp.com domain. This means that the user has administrative control over the dallas.mycorp.com subdomain within the larger mycorp.com domain. They would not have administrative control over other subdomains like austin.mycorp.com or any specific organizational units within the dallas.mycorp.com domain.
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12.
Which of the following commands will force an update of group policy of computers on the domain Airtel?
A. 
GPUPDATE –airtel/all
B. 
GPFORCE /airtel
C. 
GPUPDATE /force –all
D. 
GPUPDATE /force
Correct Answer D. GPUPDATE /force
Explanation The correct answer is GPUPDATE /force. This command is used to force an immediate update of group policy settings on the computers in the domain Airtel. The /force parameter ensures that all policies are reapplied, even if there are no changes detected. This command is useful when there is a need to immediately apply new or updated group policy settings to the computers in the domain.
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13.
Groups are considered an organizing component of Active Directory ?
A. 
True
B. 
False
Correct Answer B. False
Explanation Groups are not considered an organizing component of Active Directory. In Active Directory, objects such as users, computers, and resources are organized into containers called Organizational Units (OUs). Groups, on the other hand, are used to simplify the management of permissions and access control by grouping users and assigning permissions to the group instead of individual users. Therefore, the statement is false.
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14.
You run the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role. After the wizard is finished, you check the Administrative Tools folder but don't find any of the Active Directory management tools. What should you do?
A. 
ADSI Edit
B. 
Run Dcpromo.exe
C. 
Global catalog
D. 
None of the above
Correct Answer B. Run Dcpromo.exe
Explanation After running the Add Roles Wizard in Server Manager to add the AD DS role, if the Active Directory management tools are not found in the Administrative Tools folder, the correct action to take is to run Dcpromo.exe. This command is used to promote a server to a domain controller and will ensure that the necessary Active Directory management tools are installed and available.
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15.
Which of the following is a container object?
A. 
Domain & OU
B. 
Users
C. 
Computers
D. 
Groups
Correct Answer A. Domain & OU
Explanation Domain & OU stands for Domain and Organizational Unit, which are both container objects in a network environment. A domain is a logical group of network resources, such as computers, users, and groups, that share a common directory database. An Organizational Unit (OU) is a container within a domain that can hold users, groups, computers, and other OUs. Both Domain and OU are used to organize and manage network resources, making them container objects.
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16.
To which of the following can a GPO be linked?
A. 
Domains
B. 
Sites
C. 
Leaf object
D. 
Container object
Correct Answer B. Sites
Explanation A Group Policy Object (GPO) can be linked to Sites. Sites in Active Directory represent physical locations and are used to manage network traffic and replication. By linking a GPO to a site, the policies defined in the GPO can be applied to all the objects (such as users and computers) within that site, ensuring consistent configuration and settings across the network.
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17.
If a policy is defined in a GPO linked to a domain, and that policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to an OU, which is true by default?
A. 
The policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied
B. 
The policy setting in the GPO linked to the domain is applied
C. 
Neither policy setting is not applied, nor is an error message generated
D. 
The policy in both GPOs defaults to Not Defined so that no conflict exists
Correct Answer A. The policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied
Explanation When a policy is defined in a GPO linked to a domain and the same policy is defined with a different setting in a GPO linked to an OU, the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU is applied by default. This means that the policy setting in the GPO linked to the OU takes precedence over the one linked to the domain.
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18.
The policy in both GPOs defaults to Not Defined so that no conflict exists ?
A. 
Similar to a list of information in a text file
B. 
Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it
C. 
A program for managing the user interface on a server
D. 
A program for managing folders, files, and permissions on a distributed server
Correct Answer B. Similar to a database program but with the capability to manage objects in it
19.
At about what interval are GPOs updated on domain controllers?
A. 
5 seconds
B. 
15 minutes
C. 
50 minutes
D. 
5 hours
Correct Answer B. 15 minutes
Explanation GPOs (Group Policy Objects) are updated on domain controllers at approximately 15-minute intervals. This means that any changes made to GPOs will be applied to the domain controllers and subsequently to the client computers within the domain within this time frame. This periodic update ensures that the most recent policies are enforced across the network, allowing administrators to make necessary changes and have them implemented in a timely manner.
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20.
When configuring GPOs, which node contains the majority of account policies?
A. 
Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node
B. 
Computer Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder, Windows Components node
C. 
The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder
D. 
The User Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node
Correct Answer A. Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder, Security Settings node
Explanation The majority of account policies are contained in the Computer Configuration node, specifically within the Windows Settings folder and the Security Settings node. This is where administrators can configure various security-related settings and policies for computer accounts in the domain. The Administrative Templates folder and the Windows Components node do not specifically focus on account policies, while the User Configuration node is primarily used for configuring policies related to user accounts.
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21.
What are the two default GPOs that are created when Active Directory is installed?
A. 
Default Directory Policy and Default Domain Policy
B. 
Default Domain Controllers Policy and Default Directory Policy
C. 
Default Domain-Wide Policy and Default Active Directory Policy
D. 
Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy
Correct Answer D. Default Domain Policy and Default Domain Controllers Policy
Explanation When Active Directory is installed, two default Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are created. The first is the Default Domain Policy, which is linked to the entire domain and applies to all users and computers within the domain. The second is the Default Domain Controllers Policy, which is linked specifically to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU) and applies to all domain controllers in the domain. These default GPOs provide a baseline configuration for the domain and domain controllers, allowing administrators to define and enforce specific settings and restrictions.
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22.
Under what circumstances are the built-in user accounts no longer local user accounts?
A. 
When accessing a network resource in a workgroup environment
B. 
After installing Active Directory
C. 
This is impossible; built-in user accounts cannot be converted
D. 
When using dsadd on the built-in accounts
Correct Answer B. After installing Active Directory
Explanation After installing Active Directory, the built-in user accounts are no longer local user accounts. Active Directory is a directory service that centralizes the management of user accounts, groups, and resources in a network environment. When Active Directory is installed, the built-in user accounts become part of the domain and are managed centrally by Active Directory instead of being local to a specific computer.
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23.
After receiving several support calls, you have decided to prevent users of the DomA-Group from being able to access the Control Panel regardless of what machine they log into. Where would you configure this setting?
A. 
The User Configuration node, Windows Settings folder
B. 
The Computer Configuration node, Administrative templates folder
C. 
The Computer Configuration node, Windows Settings folder
D. 
The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder
Correct Answer D. The User Configuration node, Administrative Templates folder
Explanation In order to prevent users of the DomA-Group from accessing the Control Panel, you would need to configure this setting in the User Configuration node, specifically in the Administrative Templates folder. This folder contains various policy settings that can be applied to user accounts. By configuring the appropriate policy setting within this folder, you can restrict access to the Control Panel for users in the DomA-Group, regardless of the machine they log into.
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24.
An Active Directory container used to organize a network’s users and resources into logical administrative units ?
A. 
Organizational Units
B. 
Users Units
C. 
Container object
D. 
Leaf object
Correct Answer A. Organizational Units
Explanation Organizational Units are a type of Active Directory container that is used to organize a network's users and resources into logical administrative units. This helps in managing and delegating administrative tasks more efficiently. By organizing users and resources into Organizational Units, administrators can apply policies, permissions, and settings to specific groups of users or resources. This allows for better control and management of the network, making it easier to assign and revoke access rights, apply group policies, and streamline administrative tasks.
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25.
The main purpose of Active Directory is to ________. ?
A. 
Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers
B. 
Provide File and Print services
C. 
Give administrators the ability to control access to restricted hardware
D. 
Allow users to organize their file systems into a cohesive and high performance directory
Correct Answer A. Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers
Explanation Active Directory is a directory service that provides authentication and authorization to users and computers. It allows administrators to control access to resources, such as files and printers, by verifying the identity of users and granting them appropriate permissions. Active Directory also enables users to organize their file systems into a cohesive and high-performance directory structure, but its main purpose is to provide authentication and authorization.
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26.
What is the address given to a computer connected to a network called?
A. 
System Address
B. 
SYSID
C. 
Process ID
D. 
Structure
Correct Answer D. Structure
Explanation The address given to a computer connected to a network is called a structure. A structure refers to the arrangement and organization of components within a computer system. In the context of networking, a structure is used to identify and locate devices within a network. It provides a unique identifier for each computer, allowing data to be sent and received accurately. Therefore, the correct answer is structure.
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27.
The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called: ?
A. 
Assembly language programs
B. 
Firmware
C. 
BASIC interpreter instructions
D. 
Flowchart instructions
Correct Answer A. Assembly language programs
Explanation Assembly language programs are the software used to drive microprocessor-based systems. Assembly language is a low-level programming language that is specific to a particular processor architecture. It uses mnemonic codes to represent the machine instructions that the processor can execute. These programs are written using assembly language and are then translated into machine code that the processor can understand and execute. Firmware, BASIC interpreter instructions, and flowchart instructions are not specific to microprocessor-based systems and do not directly drive them.
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28.
A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a: ?
A. 
CPU
B. 
Compiler
C. 
Microcomputer
D. 
ALU
Correct Answer C. Microcomputer
Explanation A microcomputer is formed by combining a microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit. The microprocessor unit is responsible for executing instructions, the memory unit stores data and instructions, and the input/output unit allows the microcomputer to interact with external devices. Therefore, the combination of these three units forms a microcomputer.
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29.
Index hole is related to?
A. 
Hard disk
B. 
Floppy disk
C. 
Printer
D. 
CPU
Correct Answer B. Floppy disk
Explanation The index hole is a feature found in floppy disks. It is a small hole located near the center of the disk. When the disk is inserted into a floppy disk drive, a sensor detects the presence or absence of the index hole as the disk rotates. This allows the drive to accurately determine the starting point of each track on the disk. The index hole is crucial for the proper functioning of floppy disks, as it helps in reading and writing data to the correct locations on the disk.
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30.
Secondry memory is also know as?
A. 
Auxiliary memory
B. 
Primery memory
C. 
Virtual memory
D. 
None of above
Correct Answer A. Auxiliary memory
Explanation Secondary memory refers to the storage devices that are external to the computer's main memory (RAM) and are used to store data for long-term use. It is also known as auxiliary memory because it provides additional storage capacity to the computer system. This includes devices like hard disk drives, solid-state drives, optical drives, and magnetic tapes. Primary memory, on the other hand, refers to the computer's main memory where data is directly accessed by the CPU. Virtual memory is a memory management technique that uses a combination of primary memory and secondary memory to create an illusion of having more RAM than is physically available. Therefore, the correct answer is auxiliary memory.
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31.
It holds the address of the active memory?
A. 
MAR
B. 
MBR
C. 
PC
D. 
AR
Correct Answer A. MAR
Explanation The Memory Address Register (MAR) holds the address of the active memory location. It is responsible for storing the address of the data that needs to be accessed or modified in the memory. The MAR is used in conjunction with the Memory Buffer Register (MBR) to read or write data from or to the memory. The Program Counter (PC) holds the address of the next instruction to be executed, while the Address Register (AR) is a general-purpose register used to store memory addresses temporarily.
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32.
In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed ?
A. 
Parallel only
B. 
Sequentially only
C. 
Both sequentially and parallel
D. 
All of above
Correct Answer C. Both sequentially and parallel
Explanation In the latest generation computers, the instructions are executed both sequentially and in parallel. This means that some instructions are executed one after the other, in a sequential manner, while others are executed simultaneously, in parallel. This allows for better utilization of the computer's resources and improves overall performance. By combining sequential and parallel execution, modern computers can handle complex tasks more efficiently and effectively.
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33.
Which printer is very commonly used for desktop publishing?
A. 
Laser printer
B. 
Inkjet printer
C. 
Daisywheel printer
D. 
Dot matrix printer
Correct Answer A. Laser printer
Explanation The laser printer is commonly used for desktop publishing because it produces high-quality prints with sharp text and graphics. It uses a laser beam to create an electrostatic image on a drum, which is then transferred onto paper using toner. This technology allows for precise and detailed printing, making it ideal for professional documents and graphic design projects. Inkjet printers, daisywheel printers, and dot matrix printers are also used for printing, but they are not as commonly used for desktop publishing due to their lower print quality and speed.
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34.
Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location?
A. 
It will add to the content of the location
B. 
It will change the address of the memory location
C. 
It will erase the previous content
D. 
It will not be fruitful if there is already some data at the location
Correct Answer C. It will erase the previous content
Explanation When data is entered into a memory location, it will erase the previous content. This means that any existing data in that memory location will be overwritten or replaced by the new data that is being entered.
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35.
____ is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network.
A. 
NNTP
B. 
NTP
C. 
PING
D. 
ARP
Correct Answer B. NTP
Explanation NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. It allows computers to accurately maintain the same time by exchanging time information between them. This is particularly important in scenarios where accurate timekeeping is crucial, such as in financial transactions, network logging, or distributed systems. NTP achieves synchronization by utilizing a hierarchical system of time servers, where lower-level servers synchronize with higher-level ones, ultimately obtaining time from highly accurate reference clocks.
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36.
A ____ is a repeater with more than one output port
A. 
Bridge
B. 
Switch
C. 
hub
D. 
Router
Correct Answer C. hub
Explanation A hub is a repeater with more than one output port. A hub is a networking device that connects multiple devices in a network, and it broadcasts the incoming data to all connected devices. It does not perform any filtering or routing of data, and all devices connected to a hub share the same bandwidth. Therefore, a hub is the correct answer as it fits the description of a repeater with multiple output ports.
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37.
____ are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks.
A. 
Routers
B. 
Switches
C. 
Gateways
D. 
Broadcast domains
Correct Answer C. Gateways
Explanation Gateways are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks. Unlike routers and switches, which primarily connect similar networks, gateways are specifically designed to bridge the gap between different types of networks. They act as intermediaries, translating data between the two networks and enabling communication between them. Gateways are essential for connecting networks that use different protocols or technologies, allowing them to exchange information and function seamlessly together.
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38.
A physical topology ____.
A. 
Specifies device types
B. 
Depicts a network in broad scope
C. 
Specifies connectivity methods
D. 
Specifies addressing schemes
Correct Answer B. Depicts a network in broad scope
Explanation A physical topology refers to the physical layout of devices and cables in a network. It depicts how devices are connected and arranged in a network, providing a visual representation of the network's structure. It does not specify device types, connectivity methods, or addressing schemes, but rather focuses on the overall scope and layout of the network.
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39.
The most common logical topologies are ____ and ring.
A. 
Bus
B. 
Star
C. 
Wired
D. 
Hybrid
Correct Answer A. Bus
Explanation The most common logical topologies are bus and ring. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a central cable called the bus. This allows for easy communication between devices, as data travels along the bus and can be accessed by any device. On the other hand, a ring topology connects devices in a circular manner, where each device is connected to two neighboring devices. Data travels in one direction around the ring, passing through each device until it reaches its destination. Both bus and ring topologies have their advantages and disadvantages, and their common usage makes them important to understand in networking.
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40.
NICs contain a(n) ____ which transmits and receives data signals.
A. 
Keyboard port
B. 
Mouse port
C. 
Data transceiver
D. 
All of above
Correct Answer C. Data transceiver
Explanation NICs (Network Interface Cards) are hardware devices that enable computers to connect to a network. They contain a data transceiver, which is responsible for transmitting and receiving data signals. The data transceiver allows the NIC to send and receive data packets over the network, enabling communication between the computer and other devices on the network. This functionality is essential for networking and data transfer purposes.
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41.
TCP is a(n)___ sub protocol.
A. 
Open-ended
B. 
indiscriminating
C. 
Connection-oriented
D. 
Connectionless
Correct Answer C. Connection-oriented
Explanation TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a connection-oriented sub protocol. This means that it establishes a reliable and ordered connection between two devices before transmitting data. TCP ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and handles any lost or corrupted packets by retransmitting them. This connection-oriented nature of TCP makes it suitable for applications that require a guaranteed delivery of data, such as web browsing, file transfer, and email communication.
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42.
Traditional switches operate at the ____ layer of the OSI model.
A. 
Physical
B. 
Data link
C. 
Network
D. 
Session
Correct Answer B. Data link
Explanation Traditional switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model. The data link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network devices over a local area network (LAN). Switches use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a LAN, making decisions based on the destination MAC address. By operating at the data link layer, switches can efficiently and accurately direct network traffic within a LAN, improving network performance and reducing collisions.
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43.
The sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork - that is, to traverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network throughout a router is ____
A. 
TCP
B. 
ICMP
C. 
UDP
D. 
IP
Correct Answer D. IP
Explanation The correct answer is IP. IP (Internet Protocol) is the sub protocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork by allowing data packets to traverse multiple LAN segments and different types of networks through routers. TCP/IP uses IP to route the packets from the source to the destination by assigning unique IP addresses to each device on the network. IP ensures that the packets are delivered to the correct destination by using routing tables and addressing schemes.
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44.
By far, the most popular expansion board NIC today is one that uses a(n) ____ bus.
A. 
Onboard
B. 
PCIe
C. 
ExpressCard
D. 
ISA
Correct Answer B. PCIe
Explanation The correct answer is PCIe. PCIe stands for Peripheral Component Interconnect Express and is the most popular expansion board NIC (Network Interface Card) bus today. PCIe provides high-speed data transfer rates and is widely used in modern computer systems for connecting various peripherals, including network cards.
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45.
To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the ____.
A. 
RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
B. 
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
C. 
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
D. 
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) protocol
Correct Answer B. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
Explanation To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). STP is a network protocol that prevents loops in Ethernet networks by creating a loop-free logical topology. It achieves this by selecting a root bridge and then determining the best path from each bridge to the root bridge. Any redundant paths are blocked, ensuring that there are no loops in the network. This prevents broadcast storms, which can occur when broadcast or multicast packets are continuously forwarded in a loop, causing network congestion and degradation.
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46.
In IPv4 addressing, a node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class ____ network.
A. 
A
B. 
B
C. 
C
D. 
D
Correct Answer B. B
Explanation A node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class B network. This is because in IPv4 addressing, the first octet of the IP address determines the class of the network. Class B networks have a range of IP addresses from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, and the given IP address falls within this range.
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47.
The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.
A. 
255.0.0.0
B. 
255.255.0.0
C. 
255.255.255.0
D. 
255.255.255.255
Correct Answer B. 255.255.0.0
Explanation The default subnet mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. In Class B networks, the first two octets are used to identify the network, while the last two octets are used to identify the hosts within the network. The subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 allows for a larger number of hosts compared to the other options given.
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48.
On an Ethenet network, a(n) ____ is the portion of a network in which collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time.
A. 
Collision domain
B. 
Crash domain
C. 
Interference domain
D. 
Duplicate domain
Correct Answer A. Collision domain
Explanation A collision domain refers to the portion of an Ethernet network where collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time. In other words, it is the area where network devices share the same network segment and can potentially interfere with each other's transmissions. This can happen when multiple devices try to send data simultaneously, resulting in collisions and degraded network performance.
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49.
A ____ is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network
A. 
Switch
B. 
Bridge
C. 
Router
D. 
Gateway
Correct Answer C. Router
Explanation A router is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network. Unlike switches and bridges which operate at the data link layer, a router operates at the network layer of the OSI model. It uses routing tables and protocols to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. Routers are commonly used in home and business networks to connect different networks together and allow for communication between devices on those networks.
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50.
In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique ____ number
A. 
12-bit
B. 
32-bit
C. 
64-bit
D. 
128-bit
Correct Answer B. 32-bit
Explanation In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique 32-bit number. This means that an IPv4 address is composed of 32 binary digits, which are divided into four groups of 8 bits each, separated by periods. The 32-bit address allows for a total of approximately 4.3 billion unique IP addresses, which are used to identify devices on a network.