Physiology Exam For Students! Advanced Level Trivia Quiz

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Physiology Exam For Students! Advanced Level Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Are you a physiology student taking up the advanced level this year? If you just said yes and are looking for a way to refresh your knowledge in what we learned so far you are in luck as the quiz below is perfect for that. Not only does it test what you understood but gives you a glimpse of how the exams are set out. Give it a shot!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The myelin sheaths of axons in the peripheral nervous system are formed by

    • A.

      Astrocytes

    • B.

      Microglial cells

    • C.

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D.

      Schwann cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Schwann cells
    Explanation
    Schwann cells are responsible for forming the myelin sheaths of axons in the peripheral nervous system. Myelin sheaths are important for insulating and protecting nerve fibers, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses. This process is known as myelination. Oligodendrocytes, on the other hand, form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system, while astrocytes and microglial cells have different functions within the nervous system.

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  • 2. 

    The intervals between myelin sheath segments are called

    • A.

      Sheath segments

    • B.

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • C.

      Internodal segments

    • D.

      Nodes of Schwann

    Correct Answer
    B. Nodes of Ranvier
    Explanation
    The intervals between myelin sheath segments are called nodes of Ranvier. These nodes are small gaps in the myelin sheath where the axon is exposed. They play a crucial role in the conduction of nerve impulses, as they allow for the rapid and efficient transmission of electrical signals along the axon. At these nodes, the action potential is regenerated, which helps in the saltatory conduction of the nerve impulse, speeding up the transmission process.

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  • 3. 

    In which region of a neuron is its neurotransmitter synthesised?

    • A.

      Dendrites

    • B.

      Cell body

    • C.

      Axon hillock

    • D.

      Axon terminals

    Correct Answer
    D. Axon terminals
    Explanation
    Neurotransmitters are synthesized in the axon terminals of a neuron. Axon terminals are the end points of the neuron where it forms synapses with other neurons or target cells. These terminals contain the necessary enzymes and machinery for the synthesis of neurotransmitters, which are chemical messengers that transmit signals between neurons. The neurotransmitters are then packaged into vesicles and released into the synaptic cleft to transmit the signal to the next neuron or target cell.

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  • 4. 

    The endoneurium

    • A.

      Surrounds nerve cell bodies

    • B.

      Surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells

    • C.

      Bundles axons into fascicles

    • D.

      Bundles fascicles into nerves

    Correct Answer
    B. Surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells
    Explanation
    The endoneurium is a connective tissue layer that surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. This layer provides support and protection to the axons and Schwann cells, helping to maintain their structural integrity. It also helps to insulate the axons, allowing for efficient conduction of nerve impulses.

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  • 5. 

    A stimulus that is just strong enough to initiate an impulse in a neuron is called a ___________ stimulus

    • A.

      Base line

    • B.

      Synaptic

    • C.

      Threshold

    • D.

      Differential

    Correct Answer
    C. Threshold
    Explanation
    A stimulus that is just strong enough to initiate an impulse in a neuron is called a threshold stimulus. This means that the stimulus reaches the minimum level of intensity required to trigger a response in the neuron, causing it to generate an impulse or action potential. The threshold stimulus is important because it determines whether or not a neuron will fire and transmit information to other neurons in the neural network.

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  • 6. 

    Assume that an EPSP is being generated on the dendritic membrane. Which will occur?

    • A.

      Specific Na+ gates will open

    • B.

      Specific K+ gates will open

    • C.

      A single type of channel will open permitting simultaneous flow of Na+ and K+

    • D.

      Na+ gates will open first and then close as K+ gates open

    Correct Answer
    C. A single type of channel will open permitting simultaneous flow of Na+ and K+
    Explanation
    When an EPSP (Excitatory Post-Synaptic Potential) is generated on the dendritic membrane, a single type of channel will open permitting simultaneous flow of Na+ (Sodium) and K+ (Potassium). This is because EPSPs are depolarizing events that occur when excitatory neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the dendritic membrane, causing the membrane potential to become less negative. The opening of a single type of channel allows both Na+ and K+ ions to flow through, leading to depolarization of the membrane and the initiation of an action potential.

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  • 7. 

    Chemical synapses are characterised by all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      The release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic membrane

    • B.

      Postsynaptic membranes bearing receptors that bind neurotransmitter

    • C.

      Ions flowing through protein channels from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neuron

    • D.

      A fluid-filled gap separating the neurons

    Correct Answer
    C. Ions flowing through protein channels from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neuron
    Explanation
    Chemical synapses are characterized by the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic membrane, postsynaptic membranes bearing receptors that bind neurotransmitter, and a fluid-filled gap separating the neurons. However, ions flowing through protein channels from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neuron is not a characteristic of chemical synapses. Instead, it is a characteristic of electrical synapses, where ions can pass directly from one neuron to another through gap junctions.

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  • 8. 

    An IPSP is inhibitory because it

    • A.

      Hyperpolarises the postsynaptic membrane

    • B.

      Reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal

    • C.

      Prevents calcium ion entry into the presynaptic terminal

    • D.

      Changes the threshold of the neuron

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperpolarises the postsynaptic membrane
    Explanation
    An IPSP (inhibitory postsynaptic potential) is inhibitory because it hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane. When an IPSP occurs, the postsynaptic membrane becomes more negative, making it less likely for the neuron to generate an action potential. This inhibitory effect is crucial for maintaining the balance between excitatory and inhibitory signals in the nervous system, allowing for precise control of neuronal activity.

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  • 9. 

    An action potential

    • A.

      Results from movement of Na+ and K+ ions across the neuron's membrane

    • B.

      Is the event following depolarisation to threshold

    • C.

      Is a signal that is transmitted to the distal end of a neuron to signal the release of a neurotransmitter

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    An action potential is a rapid change in the electrical potential across a neuron's membrane, which results from the movement of Na+ and K+ ions. It is triggered when the membrane depolarizes to a certain threshold. Once initiated, the action potential travels along the neuron and reaches the distal end, where it signals the release of a neurotransmitter. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct and describe different aspects of an action potential.

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  • 10. 

    The summation of EPSPs from numerous presynaptic nerve fibres converging onto one postsynaptic neuron is called

    • A.

      Spatial summation

    • B.

      Long-term potentiation

    • C.

      Temporal summation

    • D.

      Synaptic plasticity

    Correct Answer
    A. Spatial summation
    Explanation
    Spatial summation refers to the process in which multiple excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) from different presynaptic nerve fibers are added together at the same time in order to reach the threshold for an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron. This occurs when the EPSPs are generated simultaneously in different locations on the postsynaptic neuron, thus enhancing the overall effect and increasing the likelihood of an action potential being generated.

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  • 11. 

    Hyperpolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane in response to glycine or GABA is produced by the opening of

    • A.

      Na+ channels

    • B.

      K+ channels

    • C.

      Ca2+ channels

    • D.

      Cl- channels

    Correct Answer
    D. Cl- channels
    Explanation
    When glycine or GABA bind to their respective receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, it causes an influx of chloride ions (Cl-) into the neuron. This influx of negative ions hyperpolarizes the membrane, making it more negative than the resting potential. This inhibitory effect reduces the likelihood of an action potential being generated, thus preventing the transmission of signals between neurons. Therefore, the correct answer is Cl- channels.

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  • 12. 

    Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include all EXCEPT

    • A.

      Noradrenaline

    • B.

      Acetylcholine

    • C.

      Dopamine

    • D.

      Serotonin

    Correct Answer
    B. Acetylcholine
    Explanation
    Acetylcholine is not classified as a biogenic amine neurotransmitter. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters are a specific group of neurotransmitters that are derived from amino acids and have specific functions in the central nervous system. Noradrenaline, dopamine, and serotonin are all examples of biogenic amine neurotransmitters, as they are derived from amino acids and play important roles in regulating mood, behavior, and cognition. Acetylcholine, on the other hand, is not derived from amino acids and is considered a different class of neurotransmitter.

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  • 13. 

    In the control of emotion and motivation, the limbic system works together with the

    • A.

      Pons

    • B.

      Thalamus

    • C.

      Hypothalamus

    • D.

      Basal ganglia

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating emotions and motivation. It plays a crucial role in controlling various bodily functions such as hunger, thirst, body temperature, and sleep. Additionally, it helps to regulate the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, which further influences our emotions and motivations. Thus, the hypothalamus works in coordination with the limbic system to control and modulate our emotional and motivational responses.

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  • 14. 

    The consolidation of short-term memory appears to be a function of the

    • A.

      Substantia nigra

    • B.

      Hippocampus

    • C.

      Cerebral peduncles

    • D.

      Cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    B. Hippocampus
    Explanation
    The hippocampus is responsible for the consolidation of short-term memory. It plays a crucial role in converting short-term memories into long-term memories. This process involves the transfer of information from the hippocampus to other areas of the brain for permanent storage. Damage to the hippocampus can result in difficulties in forming new memories or retaining information for longer periods. Therefore, the hippocampus is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 15. 

    A patient has suffered a cerebral haemorrhage that has caused dysfunction of the precentral gyrus of the right cerebral cortex. As a result the patient(s)

    • A.

      Cannot voluntarily move their left arm or leg

    • B.

      Feels no sensation on the left side of their body

    • C.

      Feels no sensation on their right side

    • D.

      Head falls off

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannot voluntarily move their left arm or leg
    Explanation
    The precentral gyrus, also known as the primary motor cortex, is responsible for voluntary movements of the body. Dysfunction of the precentral gyrus on the right cerebral cortex would affect the voluntary movement of the opposite side of the body, which is the left side. Therefore, the patient would not be able to voluntarily move their left arm or leg.

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  • 16. 

    The thalamus is

    • A.

      The source of nearly all the axons that project to the cerebral cortex

    • B.

      Concerned mainly with vision

    • C.

      Concerned mainly with hearing

    • D.

      Concerned with autonomic regulation

    Correct Answer
    A. The source of nearly all the axons that project to the cerebral cortex
    Explanation
    The thalamus is responsible for relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. It acts as a gateway, receiving sensory input from various parts of the body and sending it to the appropriate areas of the cortex for further processing. The thalamus is connected to almost all areas of the cortex, making it the primary source of axons that project to the cerebral cortex. This allows for efficient and organized transmission of sensory information, ultimately contributing to our perception and understanding of the world around us.

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  • 17. 

    The reticular formation

    • A.

      Is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebellum

    • B.

      Coordinates fine motor movements

    • C.

      Maintains alertness and attention

    • D.

      Is responsible for pain interpretation

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintains alertness and attention
    Explanation
    The reticular formation is a network of nuclei located in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in maintaining alertness and attention. It receives sensory input from various parts of the body and relays it to the cerebral cortex, helping to regulate arousal levels and keep the individual awake and focused. This function of the reticular formation is essential for staying attentive and aware of the surrounding environment.

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  • 18. 

    There are _________ pairs of cranial nerves and __________ pairs of spinal nerves

    • A.

      10;30

    • B.

      31;21

    • C.

      12;31

    • D.

      30;10

    Correct Answer
    C. 12;31
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12;31. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body. Cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and are responsible for various functions such as vision, hearing, and facial movements. Spinal nerves, on the other hand, originate from the spinal cord and control motor and sensory functions in different parts of the body.

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  • 19. 

    Interneurons are found only in

    • A.

      The brain

    • B.

      The spinal cord

    • C.

      The CNS

    • D.

      Spinal nerves

    Correct Answer
    C. The CNS
    Explanation
    Interneurons are a type of neuron that function as connectors between sensory and motor neurons within the central nervous system (CNS). They are responsible for transmitting signals between different parts of the CNS, including the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, interneurons are found exclusively within the CNS, making the correct answer "the CNS".

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  • 20. 

    Destruction of the ventral horn cells of the spinal cord results in loss of

    • A.

      Integrating impulses

    • B.

      Sensory impulses

    • C.

      Voluntary motor impulses

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Voluntary motor impulses
    Explanation
    The destruction of the ventral horn cells of the spinal cord would result in the loss of voluntary motor impulses. The ventral horn cells are responsible for transmitting motor signals from the brain to the muscles, allowing for voluntary movement. Therefore, if these cells are destroyed, the ability to generate and control voluntary motor impulses would be compromised.

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  • 21. 

    The grey matter of the spinal cord consists of

    • A.

      Cell bodies and dendrites of motor neurons

    • B.

      Interneurons

    • C.

      Axon terminals of sensory neurons

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    The grey matter of the spinal cord consists of all of these components: cell bodies and dendrites of motor neurons, interneurons, and axon terminals of sensory neurons. This means that the grey matter contains the cell bodies and dendrites of motor neurons, which are responsible for sending signals from the brain to muscles and glands. It also contains interneurons, which are responsible for relaying signals between sensory and motor neurons. Lastly, it contains axon terminals of sensory neurons, which receive signals from sensory receptors and transmit them to the central nervous system.

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  • 22. 

    In a single reflex arc involved in the knee-jerk reflex, how many synapses are activated within the spinal cord?

    • A.

      Thousands

    • B.

      Twelve

    • C.

      Two

    • D.

      One

    Correct Answer
    D. One
    Explanation
    In a single reflex arc involved in the knee-jerk reflex, only one synapse is activated within the spinal cord. This means that the sensory neuron carrying the signal from the muscle spindle directly synapses with the motor neuron that sends the signal back to the muscle, without involving any interneurons or additional synapses. This allows for a rapid and automatic response to the stimulus, as the signal is quickly transmitted from the sensory neuron to the motor neuron, resulting in the contraction of the muscle without the need for conscious thought or decision-making.

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  • 23. 

    An ipsilateral reflex that causes rapid withdrawal from a painful stimulus is the

    • A.

      Crossed extensor

    • B.

      Flexor

    • C.

      Golgi tendon

    • D.

      Muscle stretch

    Correct Answer
    B. Flexor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is flexor because a flexor reflex is an ipsilateral reflex that causes rapid withdrawal from a painful stimulus. This reflex is commonly known as the "withdrawal reflex" and involves the contraction of flexor muscles to move the affected limb away from the painful stimulus. The crossed extensor reflex, on the other hand, involves the contraction of extensor muscles on the opposite side of the body to help maintain balance and support during the withdrawal reflex. The Golgi tendon reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents excessive muscle tension, while the muscle stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that regulates muscle length and tone.

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  • 24. 

    Golgi tendon organs

    • A.

      Are silenced when a muscle is stretched

    • B.

      Inhibit the discharge of muscle spindles

    • C.

      Produce inhibition of the motor neurons of their own muscle when they are activated

    • D.

      Behave as receptors in parallel with contracting muscle fibres

    Correct Answer
    C. Produce inhibition of the motor neurons of their own muscle when they are activated
    Explanation
    Golgi tendon organs produce inhibition of the motor neurons of their own muscle when they are activated. This means that when the Golgi tendon organs are stimulated, they send signals to the spinal cord to inhibit the motor neurons that control the muscle they are located in. This inhibitory response helps prevent excessive tension and protects the muscle from damage.

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  • 25. 

    Which statement is INCORRECT?

    • A.

      Intrafusal muscle fibres are smaller than extrafusal fibres

    • B.

      Tendon organs are commonly located in the belly of the muscle

    • C.

      Gamma motor neurones do not innervate extrafusal muscle fibres

    • D.

      The primary endings of muscle spindles terminate on more than one intrafusal fibre

    Correct Answer
    B. Tendon organs are commonly located in the belly of the muscle
    Explanation
    Tendon organs are not commonly located in the belly of the muscle. Tendon organs, also known as Golgi tendon organs, are sensory receptors located at the junction between the muscle and its tendon. They are responsible for detecting changes in muscle tension and providing feedback to the central nervous system. Their location allows them to monitor the force exerted by the muscle during contraction.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following occurs in a crossed extensor reflex but NOT in a stretch reflex?

    • A.

      Sense organs are stimulated

    • B.

      Sensory neurones are stimulated

    • C.

      Commissural interneurones are stimulated

    • D.

      Motor neurones are stimulated

    Correct Answer
    C. Commissural interneurones are stimulated
    Explanation
    In a crossed extensor reflex, the commissural interneurons are stimulated. This reflex involves the activation of both flexor and extensor muscles in response to a stimulus. The sensory neurons transmit the sensory information to the spinal cord, where the commissural interneurons are responsible for sending signals to activate the motor neurons that control the extensor muscles. This results in the contraction of the extensor muscles on the opposite side of the body from the stimulus. In contrast, in a stretch reflex, only sensory neurons and motor neurons are involved, and there is no activation of commissural interneurons.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following occurs when the parasympathetic system is stimulated?

    • A.

      Increased blood pressure

    • B.

      Increased motility of the digestive tract

    • C.

      Increased metabolism in skeletal muscle

    • D.

      Increased heart rate

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased motility of the digestive tract
    Explanation
    When the parasympathetic system is stimulated, it causes increased motility of the digestive tract. The parasympathetic system is responsible for the "rest and digest" response in the body, which promotes digestion and absorption of nutrients. Stimulation of the parasympathetic system leads to the release of acetylcholine, which increases the activity of smooth muscles in the digestive tract, resulting in increased motility and movement of food through the gastrointestinal system. This helps in the breakdown and absorption of nutrients from the food.

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  • 28. 

    All of the following characterise the autonomic nervous system EXCEPT

    • A.

      A two neuron efferent chain

    • B.

      The presence of nerve cell bodies in the CNS

    • C.

      The presence of nerve cell bodies in the ganglia

    • D.

      Innervation of skeletal muscles

    Correct Answer
    D. Innervation of skeletal muscles
    Explanation
    The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating involuntary bodily functions, such as heart rate and digestion. It consists of a two-neuron efferent chain, with one neuron located in the central nervous system (CNS) and the other in the ganglia. These ganglia contain nerve cell bodies that help transmit signals between the CNS and target organs. However, the autonomic nervous system does not directly innervate skeletal muscles, which are controlled by the somatic nervous system. Therefore, the correct answer is "innervation of skeletal muscles."

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  • 29. 

    The vagus nerve innervates all of the following EXCEPT the

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Parotid gland

    • C.

      Oesophagus

    • D.

      Small intestine

    Correct Answer
    B. Parotid gland
    Explanation
    The vagus nerve is responsible for controlling various functions in the body, including the heart, esophagus, and small intestine. However, it does not innervate the parotid gland. The parotid gland is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX).

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibres?

    • A.

      Facial

    • B.

      Hypoglossal

    • C.

      Optic

    • D.

      Vestibulocochlear

    Correct Answer
    A. Facial
    Explanation
    The facial nerve contains parasympathetic fibers. These fibers are responsible for controlling various glands and organs in the head and neck region, including the lacrimal glands (tear production), salivary glands, and nasal and oral mucous glands. They also play a role in regulating the muscles involved in facial expressions.

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  • 31. 

    Muscarinic receptors

    • A.

      Always mediate relaxation of smooth muscle

    • B.

      Are important in skeletal neuromuscular transmission

    • C.

      React primarily to histamine

    • D.

      Can be blocked by low doses of atropine

    Correct Answer
    D. Can be blocked by low doses of atropine
    Explanation
    Muscarinic receptors can be blocked by low doses of atropine. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. By blocking these receptors, atropine inhibits the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to various effects such as increased heart rate, bronchodilation, and decreased secretions. Low doses of atropine can selectively block muscarinic receptors without affecting other receptor types, making it useful in certain medical conditions such as bradycardia or excessive salivation.

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  • 32. 

    Which one of the following statements applies to the autonomic nervous system?

    • A.

      The ANS innervates skeletal muscle

    • B.

      ANS functions are consciously controlled

    • C.

      The ANS controls unconscious movement of skeletal muscles

    • D.

      The receptors of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic or adrenergic

    Correct Answer
    D. The receptors of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic or adrenergic
    Explanation
    The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for regulating involuntary bodily functions, such as heart rate, digestion, and breathing. It does not innervate skeletal muscle, as that is the role of the somatic nervous system. The ANS functions are not consciously controlled, as they occur automatically without conscious effort. The ANS controls the unconscious movement of smooth muscles and glands, not skeletal muscles. The receptors of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic, or adrenergic, referring to the different types of neurotransmitter receptors that are present in the ANS.

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  • 33. 

    Consider the following statement: It releases acetylcholine at the neuroeffector synapse

    • A.

      This is a true statement only for the sympathetic division of the nervous system

    • B.

      This is a true statement only for the parasympathetic division of the nervous system

    • C.

      This statement is true for both of these divisions of the nervous system

    • D.

      This statement is not true for either of these divisions of the nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. This statement is true for both of these divisions of the nervous system
    Explanation
    Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is released at the neuroeffector synapse in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system. Therefore, the statement "It releases acetylcholine at the neuroeffector synapse" is true for both divisions of the nervous system.

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  • 34. 

    The neurotransmitter of preganglionic sympathetic fibres is

    • A.

      Noradrenaline

    • B.

      Adrenaline

    • C.

      Acetylcholine

    • D.

      Dopamine

    Correct Answer
    C. Acetylcholine
    Explanation
    Preganglionic sympathetic fibers release acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter. This neurotransmitter is responsible for transmitting signals from the central nervous system to the ganglia in the sympathetic nervous system. Once the preganglionic fibers release acetylcholine, it binds to nicotinic receptors on the postganglionic fibers, leading to the transmission of the signal to the target organs or tissues. Noradrenaline and adrenaline are released by postganglionic sympathetic fibers, while dopamine is mainly associated with the central nervous system and the dopaminergic system.

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  • 35. 

    A drug that serves as an agonist for beta 1 receptors can be used to

    • A.

      Increase the heart rate

    • B.

      Decrease the heart rate

    • C.

      Dilate the bronchioles

    • D.

      Constrict the bronchioles

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the heart rate
    Explanation
    A drug that serves as an agonist for beta 1 receptors can be used to increase the heart rate. Beta 1 receptors are found primarily in the heart and when stimulated, they increase the heart rate and force of contraction. Therefore, a drug that acts as an agonist for these receptors would mimic the effects of natural stimulation and result in an increased heart rate.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following cells are the receptor structures for olfaction?

    • A.

      Sustenacular cells

    • B.

      Olfactory bulbs

    • C.

      Bipolar cells

    • D.

      Mitral cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Bipolar cells
    Explanation
    Bipolar cells are the receptor structures for olfaction. These cells are located in the olfactory epithelium, which is responsible for detecting and transmitting smells to the brain. Bipolar cells play a crucial role in the process of olfaction by receiving signals from olfactory receptor neurons and relaying them to the olfactory bulb. They help in the transmission and processing of odor information, allowing us to perceive different smells.

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  • 37. 

    Free nerve endings respond to

    • A.

      Temperature change and pain

    • B.

      Pressure and vibration

    • C.

      Light touch and two-point discrimination

    • D.

      Temperature change and pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Temperature change and pain
    Explanation
    Free nerve endings are sensory receptors that are found throughout the body and respond to various stimuli. They are responsible for detecting temperature changes and pain. When there is a change in temperature, such as exposure to heat or cold, free nerve endings send signals to the brain, allowing us to perceive the sensation of temperature. Additionally, when there is tissue damage or injury, free nerve endings detect the pain signals and transmit them to the brain, alerting us to potential harm or injury. Therefore, the correct answer is temperature change and pain.

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  • 38. 

    Taste buds are found on the

    • A.

      Anterior part of the tongue

    • B.

      Posterior part of the tongue

    • C.

      The palate

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    Taste buds are sensory organs that allow us to perceive different tastes. They are found on the anterior part of the tongue, the posterior part of the tongue, and the palate. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of these" as taste buds can be found in all of these locations.

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  • 39. 

    Olfactory nerve filaments are found

    • A.

      In the optic bulbs

    • B.

      Passing through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

    • C.

      In the optic tracts

    • D.

      In the olfactory cortex

    Correct Answer
    B. Passing through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
    Explanation
    The olfactory nerve filaments are found passing through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. The cribriform plate is a thin, sieve-like structure located in the skull that separates the nasal cavity from the brain. It contains small openings called cribriform foramina through which the olfactory nerve fibers pass. These nerve fibers are responsible for carrying the sense of smell from the nose to the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is passing through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.

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  • 40. 

    The direction from which a sound is coming can be determined by the

    • A.

      Volume of the sound

    • B.

      Frequency of sound waves

    • C.

      Amplitude of the sound waves

    • D.

      Differences in the time that sound waves take to reach each ear

    Correct Answer
    D. Differences in the time that sound waves take to reach each ear
    Explanation
    The direction from which a sound is coming can be determined by the differences in the time that sound waves take to reach each ear. This is because sound waves travel at a finite speed, and when a sound source is not directly in front or behind us, the sound waves will reach one ear slightly before the other. The brain uses this time difference to calculate the direction of the sound source. This phenomenon is known as interaural time difference, and it helps us perceive the location of sounds in our environment.

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  • 41. 

    The position of the head with respect to gravity is determined by the

    • A.

      Shift of fluid in the semicircular canals

    • B.

      Movements of otoliths in response to gravity

    • C.

      Movements of perilymph in the vestibular chamber

    • D.

      Impulses transmitted from the macula of the semicircular canals

    Correct Answer
    D. Impulses transmitted from the macula of the semicircular canals
    Explanation
    The correct answer is impulses transmitted from the macula of the semicircular canals. The macula is a sensory receptor located in the utricle and saccule of the inner ear. It contains hair cells that are sensitive to changes in head position. When the head moves, the fluid in the semicircular canals also moves, causing the hair cells to bend and generate nerve impulses. These impulses are then transmitted to the brain, which processes the information and helps determine the position of the head with respect to gravity.

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  • 42. 

    Conduction of sound from the middle ear to the inner ear occurs via vibration of the

    • A.

      Malleus against the tympanic membrane

    • B.

      Stapes in the oval window

    • C.

      Incus in the round window

    • D.

      Stapes against the tympanic membrane

    Correct Answer
    B. Stapes in the oval window
    Explanation
    The conduction of sound from the middle ear to the inner ear occurs via vibration of the stapes in the oval window. The middle ear consists of three tiny bones called ossicles, which are the malleus, incus, and stapes. These bones transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The stapes is the last bone in the chain and it connects to the oval window, which is the entrance to the inner ear. When sound waves reach the eardrum, they cause the malleus to vibrate, which then transfers the vibrations to the incus and finally to the stapes. The stapes then transmits these vibrations to the fluid-filled inner ear through the oval window, allowing us to hear.

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  • 43. 

    Four refractory media of the eye, listed in the sequence in which they refract light, are

    • A.

      Vitreous humour, lens, aqueous humour, cornea

    • B.

      Cornea, aqueous humour, lens, vitreous humour

    • C.

      Cornea, vitreous humour, lens, aqueous humour

    • D.

      Lens, aqueous humour, cornea, vitreous humour

    Correct Answer
    B. Cornea, aqueous humour, lens, vitreous humour
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cornea, aqueous humour, lens, vitreous humour. The cornea is the clear outer layer of the eye that refracts light as it enters the eye. The aqueous humour is the clear fluid that fills the space between the cornea and the lens, and it also helps to refract light. The lens is a transparent structure located behind the iris that further refracts light to focus it on the retina. Finally, the vitreous humour is a gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina, helping to maintain the shape of the eye.

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  • 44. 

    The ability of the lens to increase its curvature and maintain a focus at close distances is called

    • A.

      Covergence

    • B.

      Accommodation

    • C.

      Astigmatism

    • D.

      Ambylopia

    Correct Answer
    B. Accommodation
    Explanation
    Accommodation refers to the ability of the lens in the eye to adjust its shape and increase its curvature in order to focus on objects at different distances. This process allows the eye to maintain clear vision both up close and at a distance. When we look at something close, the lens becomes thicker, and when we focus on something far away, the lens becomes thinner. This adjustment in lens shape is controlled by the ciliary muscles in the eye.

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  • 45. 

    Arrange the following events in correct sequence: 1.retinal cells generate action potential 2.person becomes aware of the information obtained by the CNS 3.visual cortex translates action potential 4.bright light is shone into the eye 5.optic nerve conducts action potential to CNS

    • A.

      4-5-1-3-2

    • B.

      4-1-2-3-5

    • C.

      4-1-5-3-2

    • D.

      4-2-1-5-3

    Correct Answer
    C. 4-1-5-3-2
  • 46. 

    The correct pathway for impulses leaving the retina is

    • A.

      Photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, optic nerve

    • B.

      Optic nerve, photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells

    • C.

      Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, optic nerve

    • D.

      Optic nerve, ganglion cells, photoreceptors, bipolar cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, optic nerve
    Explanation
    The correct pathway for impulses leaving the retina starts with the photoreceptors, which detect light and convert it into electrical signals. These signals are then passed on to the bipolar cells, which transmit the signals to the ganglion cells. Finally, the ganglion cells send the signals through the optic nerve to the brain for processing and interpretation of visual information.

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  • 47. 

    A bird hits the windscreen of your car and you reflexly duck and close your eyes. Which of the following is responsible for this action?

    • A.

      Medulla oblongata

    • B.

      Superior colliculus

    • C.

      Primary visual cortex

    • D.

      Thalamus

    Correct Answer
    B. Superior colliculus
    Explanation
    The superior colliculus is responsible for the reflex action of ducking and closing your eyes when a bird hits the windscreen of your car. The superior colliculus is a structure in the midbrain that plays a crucial role in coordinating visual and motor responses. It receives visual information from the eyes and rapidly initiates appropriate motor responses, such as moving the body to avoid a potential threat. In this case, when the bird hits the windscreen, the superior colliculus quickly processes the visual input and triggers the reflex action of ducking and closing the eyes to protect them from potential harm.

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  • 48. 

    There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to a different range of photons. These cones are designated

    • A.

      Red, yellow, blue

    • B.

      Red, blue, green

    • C.

      Red, green, yellow

    • D.

      Yellow, green, blue

    Correct Answer
    B. Red, blue, green
    Explanation
    The cones in our eyes are responsible for detecting different colors of light. There are three types of cones, each sensitive to a specific range of photons. The correct answer, "red, blue, green," indicates the order in which these cones are sensitive. The red cones are most sensitive to longer wavelengths of light, the blue cones are most sensitive to shorter wavelengths, and the green cones are sensitive to medium wavelengths. These three types of cones working together allow us to perceive a wide range of colors.

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  • 49. 

    The thalamic nucleus receiving optic nerve fibres is the

    • A.

      Medial geniculate nucleus

    • B.

      Ventrobasal complex

    • C.

      Lateral geniculate nucleus

    • D.

      Visual cortex

    Correct Answer
    C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
    Explanation
    The lateral geniculate nucleus is the correct answer because it is the thalamic nucleus that receives optic nerve fibers. It is located in the posterior part of the thalamus and is responsible for relaying visual information from the retina to the visual cortex in the brain. The other options, such as the medial geniculate nucleus and ventrobasal complex, are involved in auditory and somatosensory processing respectively, and the visual cortex is the area in the brain where visual information is further processed and interpreted.

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