Physiology Exam For Students! Advanced Level Trivia Quiz

49 Questions | Total Attempts: 293

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Physiology Quizzes & Trivia

Are you a physiology student taking up the advanced level this year? If you just said yes and are looking for a way to refresh your knowledge in what we learned so far you are in luck as the quiz below is perfect for that. Not only does it test what you understood but gives you a glimpse of how the exams are set out. Give it a shot!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The myelin sheaths of axons in the peripheral nervous system are formed by
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Microglial cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Schwann cells

  • 2. 
    The intervals between myelin sheath segments are called
    • A. 

      Sheath segments

    • B. 

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • C. 

      Internodal segments

    • D. 

      Nodes of Schwann

  • 3. 
    In which region of a neuron is its neurotransmitter synthesised?
    • A. 

      Dendrites

    • B. 

      Cell body

    • C. 

      Axon hillock

    • D. 

      Axon terminals

  • 4. 
    The endoneurium
    • A. 

      Surrounds nerve cell bodies

    • B. 

      Surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells

    • C. 

      Bundles axons into fascicles

    • D. 

      Bundles fascicles into nerves

  • 5. 
    A stimulus that is just strong enough to initiate an impulse in a neuron is called a ___________ stimulus
    • A. 

      Base line

    • B. 

      Synaptic

    • C. 

      Threshold

    • D. 

      Differential

  • 6. 
    Assume that an EPSP is being generated on the dendritic membrane. Which will occur?
    • A. 

      Specific Na+ gates will open

    • B. 

      Specific K+ gates will open

    • C. 

      A single type of channel will open permitting simultaneous flow of Na+ and K+

    • D. 

      Na+ gates will open first and then close as K+ gates open

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      The release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic membrane

    • B. 

      Postsynaptic membranes bearing receptors that bind neurotransmitter

    • C. 

      Ions flowing through protein channels from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neuron

    • D. 

      A fluid-filled gap separating the neurons

  • 8. 
    An IPSP is inhibitory because it
    • A. 

      Hyperpolarises the postsynaptic membrane

    • B. 

      Reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal

    • C. 

      Prevents calcium ion entry into the presynaptic terminal

    • D. 

      Changes the threshold of the neuron

  • 9. 
    An action potential
    • A. 

      Results from movement of Na+ and K+ ions across the neuron's membrane

    • B. 

      Is the event following depolarisation to threshold

    • C. 

      Is a signal that is transmitted to the distal end of a neuron to signal the release of a neurotransmitter

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 10. 
    The summation of EPSPs from numerous presynaptic nerve fibres converging onto one postsynaptic neuron is called
    • A. 

      Spatial summation

    • B. 

      Long-term potentiation

    • C. 

      Temporal summation

    • D. 

      Synaptic plasticity

  • 11. 
    Hyperpolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane in response to glycine or GABA is produced by the opening of
    • A. 

      Na+ channels

    • B. 

      K+ channels

    • C. 

      Ca2+ channels

    • D. 

      Cl- channels

  • 12. 
    Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include all EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Noradrenaline

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Serotonin

  • 13. 
    In the control of emotion and motivation, the limbic system works together with the
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Thalamus

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Basal ganglia

  • 14. 
    The consolidation of short-term memory appears to be a function of the
    • A. 

      Substantia nigra

    • B. 

      Hippocampus

    • C. 

      Cerebral peduncles

    • D. 

      Cerebellum

  • 15. 
    A patient has suffered a cerebral haemorrhage that has caused dysfunction of the precentral gyrus of the right cerebral cortex. As a result the patient(s)
    • A. 

      Cannot voluntarily move their left arm or leg

    • B. 

      Feels no sensation on the left side of their body

    • C. 

      Feels no sensation on their right side

    • D. 

      Head falls off

  • 16. 
    The thalamus is
    • A. 

      The source of nearly all the axons that project to the cerebral cortex

    • B. 

      Concerned mainly with vision

    • C. 

      Concerned mainly with hearing

    • D. 

      Concerned with autonomic regulation

  • 17. 
    The reticular formation
    • A. 

      Is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebellum

    • B. 

      Coordinates fine motor movements

    • C. 

      Maintains alertness and attention

    • D. 

      Is responsible for pain interpretation

  • 18. 
    There are _________ pairs of cranial nerves and __________ pairs of spinal nerves
    • A. 

      10;30

    • B. 

      31;21

    • C. 

      12;31

    • D. 

      30;10

  • 19. 
    Interneurons are found only in
    • A. 

      The brain

    • B. 

      The spinal cord

    • C. 

      The CNS

    • D. 

      Spinal nerves

  • 20. 
    Destruction of the ventral horn cells of the spinal cord results in loss of
    • A. 

      Integrating impulses

    • B. 

      Sensory impulses

    • C. 

      Voluntary motor impulses

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 21. 
    The grey matter of the spinal cord consists of
    • A. 

      Cell bodies and dendrites of motor neurons

    • B. 

      Interneurons

    • C. 

      Axon terminals of sensory neurons

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 22. 
    In a single reflex arc involved in the knee-jerk reflex, how many synapses are activated within the spinal cord?
    • A. 

      Thousands

    • B. 

      Twelve

    • C. 

      Two

    • D. 

      One

  • 23. 
    An ipsilateral reflex that causes rapid withdrawal from a painful stimulus is the
    • A. 

      Crossed extensor

    • B. 

      Flexor

    • C. 

      Golgi tendon

    • D. 

      Muscle stretch

  • 24. 
    Golgi tendon organs
    • A. 

      Are silenced when a muscle is stretched

    • B. 

      Inhibit the discharge of muscle spindles

    • C. 

      Produce inhibition of the motor neurons of their own muscle when they are activated

    • D. 

      Behave as receptors in parallel with contracting muscle fibres

  • 25. 
    Which statement is INCORRECT?
    • A. 

      Intrafusal muscle fibres are smaller than extrafusal fibres

    • B. 

      Tendon organs are commonly located in the belly of the muscle

    • C. 

      Gamma motor neurones do not innervate extrafusal muscle fibres

    • D. 

      The primary endings of muscle spindles terminate on more than one intrafusal fibre

  • 26. 
    Which of the following occurs in a crossed extensor reflex but NOT in a stretch reflex?
    • A. 

      Sense organs are stimulated

    • B. 

      Sensory neurones are stimulated

    • C. 

      Commissural interneurones are stimulated

    • D. 

      Motor neurones are stimulated

  • 27. 
    Which of the following occurs when the parasympathetic system is stimulated?
    • A. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • B. 

      Increased motility of the digestive tract

    • C. 

      Increased metabolism in skeletal muscle

    • D. 

      Increased heart rate

  • 28. 
    All of the following characterise the autonomic nervous system EXCEPT
    • A. 

      A two neuron efferent chain

    • B. 

      The presence of nerve cell bodies in the CNS

    • C. 

      The presence of nerve cell bodies in the ganglia

    • D. 

      Innervation of skeletal muscles

  • 29. 
    The vagus nerve innervates all of the following EXCEPT the
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Parotid gland

    • C. 

      Oesophagus

    • D. 

      Small intestine

  • 30. 
    Which of the following cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibres?
    • A. 

      Facial

    • B. 

      Hypoglossal

    • C. 

      Optic

    • D. 

      Vestibulocochlear

  • 31. 
    Muscarinic receptors
    • A. 

      Always mediate relaxation of smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Are important in skeletal neuromuscular transmission

    • C. 

      React primarily to histamine

    • D. 

      Can be blocked by low doses of atropine

  • 32. 
    Which one of the following statements applies to the autonomic nervous system?
    • A. 

      The ANS innervates skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      ANS functions are consciously controlled

    • C. 

      The ANS controls unconscious movement of skeletal muscles

    • D. 

      The receptors of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic or adrenergic

  • 33. 
    Consider the following statement: It releases acetylcholine at the neuroeffector synapse
    • A. 

      This is a true statement only for the sympathetic division of the nervous system

    • B. 

      This is a true statement only for the parasympathetic division of the nervous system

    • C. 

      This statement is true for both of these divisions of the nervous system

    • D. 

      This statement is not true for either of these divisions of the nervous system

  • 34. 
    The neurotransmitter of preganglionic sympathetic fibres is
    • A. 

      Noradrenaline

    • B. 

      Adrenaline

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine

    • D. 

      Dopamine

  • 35. 
    A drug that serves as an agonist for beta 1 receptors can be used to
    • A. 

      Increase the heart rate

    • B. 

      Decrease the heart rate

    • C. 

      Dilate the bronchioles

    • D. 

      Constrict the bronchioles

  • 36. 
    Which of the following cells are the receptor structures for olfaction?
    • A. 

      Sustenacular cells

    • B. 

      Olfactory bulbs

    • C. 

      Bipolar cells

    • D. 

      Mitral cells

  • 37. 
    Free nerve endings respond to
    • A. 

      Temperature change and pain

    • B. 

      Pressure and vibration

    • C. 

      Light touch and two-point discrimination

    • D. 

      Temperature change and pressure

  • 38. 
    Taste buds are found on the
    • A. 

      Anterior part of the tongue

    • B. 

      Posterior part of the tongue

    • C. 

      The palate

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 39. 
    Olfactory nerve filaments are found
    • A. 

      In the optic bulbs

    • B. 

      Passing through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

    • C. 

      In the optic tracts

    • D. 

      In the olfactory cortex

  • 40. 
    The direction from which a sound is coming can be determined by the
    • A. 

      Volume of the sound

    • B. 

      Frequency of sound waves

    • C. 

      Amplitude of the sound waves

    • D. 

      Differences in the time that sound waves take to reach each ear

  • 41. 
    The position of the head with respect to gravity is determined by the
    • A. 

      Shift of fluid in the semicircular canals

    • B. 

      Movements of otoliths in response to gravity

    • C. 

      Movements of perilymph in the vestibular chamber

    • D. 

      Impulses transmitted from the macula of the semicircular canals

  • 42. 
    Conduction of sound from the middle ear to the inner ear occurs via vibration of the
    • A. 

      Malleus against the tympanic membrane

    • B. 

      Stapes in the oval window

    • C. 

      Incus in the round window

    • D. 

      Stapes against the tympanic membrane

  • 43. 
    Four refractory media of the eye, listed in the sequence in which they refract light, are
    • A. 

      Vitreous humour, lens, aqueous humour, cornea

    • B. 

      Cornea, aqueous humour, lens, vitreous humour

    • C. 

      Cornea, vitreous humour, lens, aqueous humour

    • D. 

      Lens, aqueous humour, cornea, vitreous humour

  • 44. 
    The ability of the lens to increase its curvature and maintain a focus at close distances is called
    • A. 

      Covergence

    • B. 

      Accommodation

    • C. 

      Astigmatism

    • D. 

      Ambylopia

  • 45. 
    Arrange the following events in correct sequence: 1.retinal cells generate action potential 2.person becomes aware of the information obtained by the CNS 3.visual cortex translates action potential 4.bright light is shone into the eye 5.optic nerve conducts action potential to CNS
    • A. 

      4-5-1-3-2

    • B. 

      4-1-2-3-5

    • C. 

      4-1-5-3-2

    • D. 

      4-2-1-5-3

  • 46. 
    The correct pathway for impulses leaving the retina is
    • A. 

      Photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, optic nerve

    • B. 

      Optic nerve, photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells

    • C. 

      Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, optic nerve

    • D. 

      Optic nerve, ganglion cells, photoreceptors, bipolar cells

  • 47. 
    A bird hits the windscreen of your car and you reflexly duck and close your eyes. Which of the following is responsible for this action?
    • A. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • B. 

      Superior colliculus

    • C. 

      Primary visual cortex

    • D. 

      Thalamus

  • 48. 
    There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to a different range of photons. These cones are designated
    • A. 

      Red, yellow, blue

    • B. 

      Red, blue, green

    • C. 

      Red, green, yellow

    • D. 

      Yellow, green, blue

  • 49. 
    The thalamic nucleus receiving optic nerve fibres is the
    • A. 

      Medial geniculate nucleus

    • B. 

      Ventrobasal complex

    • C. 

      Lateral geniculate nucleus

    • D. 

      Visual cortex