Endocrine Pharmacology MCQ With Answers

Reviewed by Farah Naz
Farah Naz, MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
Review Board Member
Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.
, MBBS, Medicine
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Endocrine Pharmacology MCQ With Answers - Quiz


This time we have developed an endocrine system pharmacology MCQ quiz with answers to check your knowledge about endocrine glands and disorders. The endocrine system makes hormones that control moods, organs, and growth. The endocrine glands are divided into the thyroid gland and the adrenal glands. There are a lot of issues that can arise in the system and prevent it from functioning correctly. There are also different prescribed drugs; this quiz will test how well you know them and their effect.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which condition results from over secretion of growth hormone?

    • A.

      Panhypopituitarism

    • B.

      Addison's

    • C.

      Acromegaly

    • D.

      Diabetes

    Correct Answer
    C. Acromegaly
    Explanation
    Acromegaly is a condition that occurs due to the over secretion of growth hormone. It is characterized by the enlargement of the bones and tissues in the body, especially in the extremities. This excess growth hormone is usually caused by a benign tumor in the pituitary gland. Symptoms of acromegaly include enlarged hands and feet, facial changes, joint pain, and thickened skin. Panhypopituitarism, Addison's disease, and diabetes are not caused by the over secretion of growth hormone, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 2. 

    Which drug may be prescribed to treat hypothyroidism?

    • A.

      Pegvisomant

    • B.

      Insulin

    • C.

      Desmopressin

    • D.

      Levothyroxine

    Correct Answer
    D. Levothyroxine
    Explanation
    Levothyroxine may be prescribed to treat hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine, which helps to regulate the body's metabolism. By taking levothyroxine, it can help to restore the levels of thyroid hormone in the body and alleviate the symptoms of hypothyroidism. Pegvisomant, insulin, and desmopressin are not typically used to treat hypothyroidism.

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  • 3. 

    This G protein-coupled receptor acts to decrease cAMP concentration intracellularly.

    • A.

      Gs protein coupled receptor

    • B.

      Gi protein coupled receptor

    • C.

      Gq protein coupled receptor

    • D.

      Gh protein coupled receptor

    Correct Answer
    B. Gi protein coupled receptor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gi protein coupled receptor. Gi protein coupled receptors are a class of G protein-coupled receptors that inhibit the production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) within the cell. When activated, Gi protein coupled receptors bind to and activate Gi proteins, which in turn inhibit the activity of adenylate cyclase, an enzyme responsible for producing cAMP. As a result, the concentration of cAMP decreases intracellularly.

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  • 4. 

    Activation of this G protein-coupled receptor results in the second messengers IP3 and DAG.

    • A.

      Gq coupled receptor

    • B.

      Gi coupled receptor

    • C.

      Gb coupled receptor

    • D.

      Gs coupled receptor

    Correct Answer
    A. Gq coupled receptor
    Explanation
    Activation of Gq coupled receptors leads to the activation of phospholipase C (PLC), which in turn catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) into inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). IP3 then binds to its receptor on the endoplasmic reticulum, causing the release of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cytoplasm, while DAG activates protein kinase C (PKC). These second messengers, IP3 and DAG, play crucial roles in various signaling pathways, including intracellular calcium release and PKC-mediated signaling. Therefore, activation of Gq coupled receptors results in the production of IP3 and DAG as second messengers.

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  • 5. 

    Lack of ADH causes diabetes insipidus. This drug may be prescribed to combat the disorder.

    • A.

      Insulin

    • B.

      Metformin

    • C.

      Desomopressin

    • D.

      Octreotide

    Correct Answer
    C. Desomopressin
    Explanation
    Desomopressin is the correct answer because it is a synthetic form of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) that can be prescribed to combat diabetes insipidus, a disorder caused by a lack of ADH. Desomopressin helps to regulate water balance in the body by reducing urine output and increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Insulin and Metformin are not used to treat diabetes insipidus, and Octreotide is typically used for a different condition called acromegaly.

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  • 6. 

    This drug combats acromegaly by acting as somatostatin, a growth hormone release inhibiting factor.

    • A.

      Octreotide

    • B.

      Pegvisomant

    • C.

      Sodium iodide 131

    • D.

      Desmopressin

    Correct Answer
    A. Octreotide
    Explanation
    Octreotide is the correct answer because it acts as somatostatin, a growth hormone release inhibiting factor. Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone production, and octreotide helps to regulate this by inhibiting the release of growth hormone. This drug is commonly used in the treatment of acromegaly to control symptoms and reduce the size of tumors that cause the excessive hormone production.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary?

    • A.

      Prolactin

    • B.

      ADH

    • C.

      TSH

    • D.

      Oxytocin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Prolactin
    C. TSH
    Explanation
    The hormones Prolactin and TSH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. Prolactin is responsible for stimulating milk production in the mammary glands, while TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) regulates the production and release of thyroid hormones. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and Oxytocin, on the other hand, are released from the posterior pituitary gland. ADH helps regulate water balance in the body, while Oxytocin is involved in various reproductive functions, such as uterine contractions during childbirth and milk letdown during breastfeeding.

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  • 8. 

    This drug acts as a synthetic T4 hormone.

    • A.

      Levothyroxine

    • B.

      Pegvisomant

    • C.

      Metformin

    • D.

      PTU

    Correct Answer
    A. Levothyroxine
    Explanation
    Levothyroxine is the correct answer because it acts as a synthetic T4 hormone. T4 is the inactive form of thyroid hormone, and levothyroxine is a synthetic version of this hormone. It is commonly used to treat an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism) by replacing or supplementing the body's natural thyroid hormone. Levothyroxine helps to regulate metabolism and energy levels in the body. Pegvisomant is used to treat acromegaly, metformin is used to treat diabetes, and PTU is used to treat hyperthyroidism.

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  • 9. 

    This drug treats hyperthyroidism by inhibiting T3 and T4 production in the thyroid gland, and by preventing T3 conversion to T4 in tissues.

    • A.

      Mineralocorticoids

    • B.

      Propylthiouracil

    • C.

      Sodium iodide 131

    • D.

      Insulin

    Correct Answer
    B. Propylthiouracil
    Explanation
    Propylthiouracil is the correct answer because it is a drug that is used to treat hyperthyroidism. It works by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones T3 and T4 in the thyroid gland. Additionally, it also prevents the conversion of T3 to T4 in tissues. This helps to reduce the levels of thyroid hormones in the body and alleviate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

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  • 10. 

    Lack of glucocorticoids with primary causes would be attributed to which condition?

    • A.

      Cushing's

    • B.

      Hashimoto's

    • C.

      Addison's

    • D.

      Hyperthyroidism

    Correct Answer
    C. Addison's
    Explanation
    Lack of glucocorticoids is a characteristic symptom of Addison's disease, which is caused by primary adrenal insufficiency. In this condition, the adrenal glands do not produce enough glucocorticoids, such as cortisol. Cushing's disease, on the other hand, is characterized by excessive production of glucocorticoids. Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland, and hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Therefore, the correct answer is Addison's disease.

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  • 11. 

    Which drug increases liver and tissue sensitivity to insulin by activating AMP-activated protein kinases which play a key role in insulin signaling?

    • A.

      Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

    • B.

      Orlistat

    • C.

      Metformin

    • D.

      Dopamine agonist

    Correct Answer
    C. Metformin
    Explanation
    Metformin is the correct answer because it increases liver and tissue sensitivity to insulin by activating AMP-activated protein kinases (AMPK), which are key players in insulin signaling. By activating AMPK, metformin helps to lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin resistance in individuals with type 2 diabetes. This mechanism of action sets metformin apart from the other options listed, as alpha glucosidase inhibitors, orlistat, and dopamine agonists do not directly target insulin signaling or sensitivity.

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  • 12. 

    This drug inhibits/slows the digestion of sugars in the digestive tract.

    • A.

      Biguanides

    • B.

      Bile acid sequestrants

    • C.

      Alpha glucosidase inhibitor

    • D.

      Orlistat

    Correct Answer
    C. Alpha glucosidase inhibitor
    Explanation
    Alpha glucosidase inhibitors are a class of drugs that work by inhibiting the enzymes in the digestive tract responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into simple sugars. By slowing down the digestion of sugars, these drugs help to control blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. This explanation aligns with the statement that the drug inhibits/slows the digestion of sugars in the digestive tract.

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  • 13. 

    Anti-obesity agents (orlistat) work by...

    • A.

      Inhibiting lipase

    • B.

      Stimulating lipase

    • C.

      Inhibiting glucagon

    • D.

      Stimulating glucagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibiting lipase
    Explanation
    Orlistat is an anti-obesity agent that works by inhibiting lipase. Lipase is an enzyme responsible for breaking down dietary fats in the intestines. By inhibiting lipase, orlistat reduces the absorption of dietary fats, leading to a decrease in calorie intake and ultimately aiding in weight loss.

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  • 14. 

    Insulin secretagogues include...

    • A.

      TZD

    • B.

      Sulfonylureas

    • C.

      Meglitinides

    • D.

      GLP-1

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Sulfonylureas
    C. Meglitinides
    Explanation
    Insulin secretagogues are a class of medications that stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides are both examples of insulin secretagogues. Sulfonylureas work by increasing the release of insulin from the beta cells in the pancreas, while meglitinides stimulate insulin secretion in a similar manner. These medications are commonly used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes to help lower blood sugar levels. TZD (thiazolidinediones) and GLP-1 (glucagon-like peptide-1) are not insulin secretagogues, as they work through different mechanisms to improve insulin sensitivity and regulate blood sugar levels.

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  • 15. 

    Sulfonylureas and meglitinides both work by inhibiting the outflux of potassium ions from the beta cells in the pancreas. This then causes depolarization of the cell, leading to the release of insulin. They differ from each other in the following way.

    • A.

      Sulfonylureas have less efficacy then meglitinides, leading to less incidences of hypoglycemia

    • B.

      Meglitinides bind to a different site then sulfonylureas, have a shorter duration of action, and have less risk of hypoglycemia

    • C.

      Meglitinides only cause partial depolarization of the cell, resulting in less insulin release

    Correct Answer
    B. Meglitinides bind to a different site then sulfonylureas, have a shorter duration of action, and have less risk of hypoglycemia
    Explanation
    Sulfonylureas and meglitinides both work by inhibiting the outflux of potassium ions from the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to depolarization and insulin release. However, meglitinides bind to a different site than sulfonylureas, have a shorter duration of action, and have less risk of hypoglycemia. Meglitinides only cause partial depolarization of the cell, resulting in less insulin release. This explains why meglitinides have a different efficacy and safety profile compared to sulfonylureas.

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  • 16. 

    The sodium glucose co-transporter is a _________ and its function is to_____________.

    • A.

      Anti-hypertensive, reduce blood pressure through the kidneys

    • B.

      Anti-hypoglycemic, increase blood sugar through the liver

    • C.

      Anti-hypothyrodic, increase levels of T4 from thyroid gland

    • D.

      Anti-diabetic, decrease amount of glucose reabsorbed by kidney

    Correct Answer
    D. Anti-diabetic, decrease amount of glucose reabsorbed by kidney
    Explanation
    The sodium glucose co-transporter is an anti-diabetic agent that works by decreasing the amount of glucose reabsorbed by the kidney. This helps to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes by promoting the excretion of excess glucose through urine. By inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose, the medication helps to prevent hyperglycemia and improve glycemic control.

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  • 17. 

    Postmenopausal women should not take hormone replacement therapy if...

    • A.

      They have an absence of troublesome symptoms

    • B.

      They have a family Hx of estrogen sensitive breast cancer

    • C.

      They have begun menopause less than five years ago

    • D.

      They have begun menopause more than five years ago

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They have an absence of troublesome symptoms
    B. They have a family Hx of estrogen sensitive breast cancer
    D. They have begun menopause more than five years ago
    Explanation
    Postmenopausal women should not take hormone replacement therapy if they have begun menopause more than five years ago because the benefits of hormone therapy decrease significantly after this time period. Additionally, if they have an absence of troublesome symptoms, hormone replacement therapy may not be necessary as it is primarily used to alleviate menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Lastly, if they have a family history of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer, hormone replacement therapy may increase the risk of developing breast cancer, and therefore should be avoided.

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  • 18. 

    Estriol is a type of estrogen that is predominantly present during...

    • A.

      Fertile years

    • B.

      Menopause

    • C.

      Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    C. Pregnancy
    Explanation
    Estriol is a type of estrogen that is predominantly present during pregnancy. During pregnancy, the placenta produces estriol in large quantities to support the growth and development of the fetus. Estriol plays a crucial role in maintaining the pregnancy, promoting fetal organ development, and preparing the body for childbirth. It is also used as a marker to monitor the health and well-being of the fetus during pregnancy.

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  • 19. 

    Oral contraceptives consisting of progesterone-only consist of a cycle of....

    • A.

      21 days on, 7 days off

    • B.

      84 days on, 7 days off

    • C.

      Continuous administration

    • D.

      30 days on, 7 days off

    Correct Answer
    C. Continuous administration
    Explanation
    Oral contraceptives consisting of progesterone-only are administered continuously without any breaks or days off. This means that the medication is taken every day without any interruption for a certain period of time. Continuous administration ensures that the hormone levels in the body remain stable, preventing ovulation and reducing the risk of pregnancy. This method is different from other types of oral contraceptives that have a cycle of taking active pills for a certain number of days followed by a period of inactive pills or no pills at all.

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  • 20. 

    Depo-Provera is not recommended for use longer than 2 years. This is because...

    • A.

      It has been shown to decrease bone mass

    • B.

      It can cause breast cancer

    • C.

      It carries high risk of thromboembolism

    • D.

      It can cause endometrial cancers

    Correct Answer
    A. It has been shown to decrease bone mass
    Explanation
    Depo-Provera is not recommended for use longer than 2 years because it has been shown to decrease bone mass. This means that prolonged use of Depo-Provera can lead to a loss of bone density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis and fractures. It is important for individuals using Depo-Provera to be aware of this potential side effect and discuss with their healthcare provider the duration of use and any necessary measures to maintain bone health.

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  • 21. 

    This type of estrogen is primarily present in menopausal women.

    • A.

      Estradiol

    • B.

      Estrone

    • C.

      Estriol

    • D.

      Progesterone

    Correct Answer
    B. Estrone
    Explanation
    Estrone is the correct answer because it is a type of estrogen that is primarily present in menopausal women. During menopause, the levels of estradiol, which is the predominant estrogen in premenopausal women, decrease significantly, while the levels of estrone become relatively higher. Estriol is another type of estrogen that is primarily produced during pregnancy, and progesterone is a hormone involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, but it is not primarily present in menopausal women.

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  • 22. 

    Oral contraceptives can come with the following administration instructions.

    • A.

      84 days on, 7 days off

    • B.

      21 days on, 7 days off

    • C.

      30 days on, 7 days off

    • D.

      42 days on, 7 days off

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 84 days on, 7 days off
    B. 21 days on, 7 days off
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 84 days on, 7 days off, 21 days on, 7 days off. This administration schedule is commonly known as a "continuous" or "extended" regimen. It involves taking the oral contraceptive continuously for 84 days (12 weeks) followed by a 7-day break, during which withdrawal bleeding occurs. After the break, another pack of oral contraceptives is started and taken for 21 days, followed by another 7-day break. This schedule allows for fewer menstrual periods throughout the year and may be preferred by some individuals.

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  • 23. 

    If two doses of the progesterone-only pill are missed, the client should be advised to...

    • A.

      Use a barrier method for one week

    • B.

      Use a barrier method for 48 hours

    • C.

      Use a barrier method for 24 hours

    • D.

      Use a barrier method for the rest of the monthly cycle

    Correct Answer
    D. Use a barrier method for the rest of the monthly cycle
    Explanation
    If two doses of the progesterone-only pill are missed, the client should be advised to use a barrier method for the rest of the monthly cycle. This is because missing two doses of the progesterone-only pill increases the risk of ovulation and pregnancy. Using a barrier method, such as condoms, for the rest of the monthly cycle can help to prevent pregnancy.

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  • 24. 

    The following are examples of post-coital contraception.

    • A.

      Mifepristone

    • B.

      High dose estrogen

    • C.

      Estrogen and progesterone combinations

    • D.

      Misoprostol

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Mifepristone
    B. High dose estrogen
    C. Estrogen and progesterone combinations
    Explanation
    These are examples of post-coital contraception methods. Mifepristone is a medication that can be used to prevent pregnancy after unprotected intercourse. High dose estrogen and estrogen and progesterone combinations are also used as emergency contraception to prevent pregnancy. Misoprostol, although mentioned in the list, is not a post-coital contraception method, so it is not included in the correct answer.

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  • 25. 

    Mifepristone works by...

    • A.

      Causing uterine contractions

    • B.

      Thickening cervical mucus

    • C.

      Creating a hostile endometrium

    • D.

      Causing the slough off of the endometrium

    Correct Answer
    D. Causing the slough off of the endometrium
    Explanation
    Mifepristone works by causing the slough off of the endometrium. This means that it causes the shedding of the lining of the uterus, which is necessary for the termination of pregnancy. By inducing the shedding of the endometrium, Mifepristone helps to detach the fertilized egg from the uterus, leading to the termination of the pregnancy.

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  • 26. 

    High dose estrogen postcoital contraception administration consists of...

    • A.

      Administration within 72 hours, 2 more doses per day for 5 days

    • B.

      Administration within 72 hours, 1 more dose per day for 5 days

    • C.

      Administration within 48 hours, 2 more doses 12 hours after

    • D.

      Administration within 72 hours, 2 more doses 12 hours later

    Correct Answer
    A. Administration within 72 hours, 2 more doses per day for 5 days
    Explanation
    High dose estrogen postcoital contraception involves administering the medication within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse and then taking two additional doses per day for a total of five days. This regimen helps to prevent pregnancy by providing a high level of estrogen to disrupt the normal hormonal balance and inhibit ovulation. Taking multiple doses over several days ensures that the body receives a sustained level of estrogen to effectively prevent fertilization.

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  • 27. 

    Estrogen progesterone combination post-coital contraception is administered...

    • A.

      Within 72 hours, 2 more doses per day for 5 days after

    • B.

      Within 72 hours, 2 more doses 12 hours later

    • C.

      Within 48 hours, 2 more doses 24 hours later

    • D.

      Within 24 hours, 2 more doses 24 hours later

    Correct Answer
    B. Within 72 hours, 2 more doses 12 hours later
    Explanation
    The correct answer is within 72 hours, 2 more doses 12 hours later. This is the correct administration schedule for the estrogen progesterone combination post-coital contraception. The initial dose should be taken within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse, followed by 2 more doses taken 12 hours apart. This schedule helps to effectively prevent pregnancy by providing a high dose of hormones that can inhibit ovulation and implantation of a fertilized egg.

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  • 28. 

    This class of drugs is used to prevent contractions of the uterus.

    • A.

      Oxytocics

    • B.

      Tocolytics

    • C.

      Estradiol

    • D.

      Anti progesterones

    Correct Answer
    B. Tocolytics
    Explanation
    Tocolytics are a class of drugs used to prevent contractions of the uterus. They work by relaxing the uterine muscles, thereby delaying or stopping premature labor. This can be beneficial in cases where the baby needs more time to develop or when there are complications that could be worsened by early delivery. Tocolytics are commonly used in obstetrics to help prolong pregnancy and improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

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  • 29. 

    These are types of tocolytics.

    • A.

      Ritodrine

    • B.

      Calcium channel blockers

    • C.

      Oxytocin receptor antagonists

    • D.

      Pitocin

    • E.

      Ergot alkaloids

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ritodrine
    B. Calcium channel blockers
    C. Oxytocin receptor antagonists
    Explanation
    The given answer consists of three types of tocolytics: ritodrine, calcium channel blockers, and oxytocin receptor antagonists. Tocolytics are medications used to delay or inhibit premature labor. Ritodrine is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine muscles. Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, work by blocking the influx of calcium into smooth muscle cells, thereby reducing contractions. Oxytocin receptor antagonists, like atosiban, block the action of oxytocin, a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions. These three types of tocolytics are commonly used in the management of preterm labor.

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  • 30. 

    Inhibiting this G protein-coupled receptor would result in decreased cAMP in the intracellular fluid, decreased sequestering of calcium, and increased muscle contraction of the uterus?

    • A.

      Gs

    • B.

      Gp

    • C.

      Gi

    • D.

      Gq

    Correct Answer
    A. Gs
    Explanation
    Inhibiting the Gs protein-coupled receptor would result in decreased cAMP in the intracellular fluid, which would lead to decreased sequestering of calcium. This would ultimately result in increased muscle contraction of the uterus.

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Farah Naz |MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.

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  • Feb 20, 2024
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