This Is A Pharmaceutical Tests About Anticoagulants

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1. Proteins C and S are dependent on which vitamin for synthesis?

Explanation

Proteins C and S are dependent on Vitamin K for synthesis. Vitamin K is essential for the production of blood clotting proteins, including proteins C and S. These proteins play a crucial role in regulating blood clotting and preventing excessive clot formation. Without sufficient Vitamin K, the synthesis of proteins C and S would be impaired, leading to an increased risk of abnormal blood clotting. Therefore, Vitamin K is necessary for the proper functioning of proteins C and S in the body.

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About This Quiz
This Is A Pharmaceutical Tests About Anticoagulants - Quiz

Anticoagulants are medicines that help prevent blood clots. They're given to people at a high risk of getting clots, to reduce their chances of developing serious conditions such... see moreas strokes and heart attacks. A blood clot is a seal created by the blood to stop bleeding from wounds.
This is a pharmaceutical tests about Anticoagulants
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2. Does Warfarin or Heparin have a longer half-life?

Explanation

Warfarin has a 35 hour half-life! It is well absorbed by the oral route and is 99% bound to plasma proteins (albumin).

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3. Which drugs is used in the treatment of heparin toxicity?

Explanation

Protamine is a small, positively charged molecule that binds with heparin. Dosages is based on the level of heparin - must be dosed to titrate 1:1 with heparin, taking into account the different half lives of the drugs. Adverse effects of protamine are anticoagulation (acts as an anticoagulant if administered without heparin) and anaphylactic shock (derived from fish sperm).

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4. Which drug acts by competitive inhibition of vitamin K reductase?

Explanation

Warfarin acts thru competitive inhibition of vitamin K reductase - blocks the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X, and protein C and S - results in lack of gamma carboxylation of the factors (gamma carboxylation allows calcium to bind, which is necessary for activation and platelet binding).

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5. Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet aggregation?

Explanation

Mechanim of action: irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2). COX-1 is ubiquitously present in all cells - inhibiting COX-1 inhibits the synthesis of thromboxanes which inhibits platelet aggregation. COX-2 is not present on platelets.

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6. What are the advantages of the new derivatives of alteplase (reteplase and tenecteplase)?

Explanation

Increased half-life because the plasminogen activator inhibitor doesn't degrade these as quickly. Only specific approved indications.

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7. Heparin is metabolized in the:

Explanation

Heparinase in liver.

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8. What are the benefits of LMWHs?

Explanation

LMWHs are cleared renally. Less interactions with platelets means less risk of HIT! (Still can't use in patients who have had HIT.) Additional benefits include little monitoring (don't have to be in the hospital), self-administration SQ.

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9. What causes clot formation?

Explanation

Estrogen therapy increases the synthesis of clotting factors and can cause ischemic strokes. Protein C and S help keep clot formation in balance.

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10. Which of the following are Super Aspirins?

Explanation

abciximab (Reopro) = murine-human chimeric antibodies. eptifibatide (Integrelin) = synthetic peptide form. tirofiban (Aggrastat) = synthetic peptide forms.

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11. What disorder(s) can be caused by aspirin?

Explanation

Gout - low doses of aspirin increase uric acid levels - competes for excretion of uric acid. Salicylism - aspirin is an acid - use sodium bicarb to treat - excrete in anionic form.

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12. Heparin metabolites are excreted in the:

Explanation

Heparin metabolites are excreted in the kidneys. The kidneys play a vital role in the excretion of waste products and metabolites from the body. Heparin, a medication used as an anticoagulant, undergoes metabolism in the liver and is then excreted primarily through the kidneys. The kidneys filter the blood and remove waste products, including heparin metabolites, through urine. Therefore, the correct answer is kidneys.

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13. Which drug is a protein from group C, beta hemolytic streptococci that induces a lytic state?

Explanation

Streptokinase forms a non-enzymatic complex with circulating plasminogen which catalyzes thrombolytic reactions - used IV and infused directly into coronary arteries *(less than 6 hours for MI)*

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14. Low molecular weight heparins include which of the following:

Explanation

The correct answer is A, D, and E. Low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) are a type of anticoagulant medication. Enoxaparin (Lovenox), dalteparin (Fragmin), and tinzaparin (Innohep) are all examples of LMWHs. Warfarin and coumadin, on the other hand, are not LMWHs.

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15. Heparin's adverse effects include:

Explanation

Hypersensitivity is due to animal origin. Osteoporosis and alopecia are only seen in long-term use - 2-3 months. Hemorrhage is the major concern. Thrombocytopenia = hepairin induced (HIT) platelet aggregation - heparin antibody develops 7-14 days after start of treatment. Thromboembolism is induced by HIT.

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16. What factor is inhibited by Fondaparinux (Arixtra) in conjunction with antithrombin?

Explanation

Fondaparinux (Arixtra) inhibits factor Xa in conjunction with antithrombin. Factor Xa is a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade that plays a crucial role in the formation of blood clots. By inhibiting factor Xa, Fondaparinux prevents the formation of blood clots and reduces the risk of thromboembolic events.

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17. Which adenosine diphosphate receptor antagonist is similar to clopidogrel but has fewer thrombotic events but increased risk of major bleeding?

Explanation

indicated in arterial thromboembolism prophylaxis

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18. Is heparin ok in pregnancy?

Explanation

Heparin is the drug of choice for pregnant women because it does not cross the placental membrane.

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19. Which adenosine diphosphate receptor antagonist does not work any better than aspirin but is recommended for those patients allergic to aspirin?

Explanation

Clopidogrel (Plavix) is indicated in thrombosis and coronary artery disease - side effects include a low risk of TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura), bleeding, hypersensitivity, abdominal pain, constipation - resistance to clopidogrel (Plavix) can be seen if the patient has a defect in CYP450 enzymes - prodrug doesn't get converted to active form.

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20. How can heparin be administered?

Explanation

Cannot be administered orally - large and negative. Cannot be administered IM - hematoma. Only IV and SQ.

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21. What is the mechanism of action of LMWH and why is it different than heparin?

Explanation

LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin) inactivates Xa (Factor Xa) but has little inactivation at IIa (thrombin) via antithrombin because the chains of LMWH are shorter compared to heparin. Thrombin has a higher molecular weight and requires longer chains to bind effectively. Therefore, LMWH primarily targets and inhibits Xa, which is involved in the formation of blood clots, while having minimal effect on thrombin. This is different from heparin, which can inhibit both Xa and IIa.

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22. Which of the following is a synthetic pentasaccharide identical to the antithrombin binding region of heparin?

Explanation

Fondaparinux (Arixtra) is a LMW Heparin Derivative that does not originate from unfractionated heparin. It is a synthetic pentasaccharide identical to the antithrombin binding region of heparin.

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23. Which of these drugs is a tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA) and is basically the clone of what we produce in our bodies?

Explanation

activates plasminogen bound to platelets and endothelial cells (relatively clot specific) - not very antigenic (unless allergic to E. coli) - inhibited by t-PA inhibitor - short half-life of 5-10 minutes - long infusion of 90 min. infusion - higher intracranial bleeding risk but no hypotension (which can be an issue with streptokinase).

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24. What type of anticoagulant acts as a platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist?

Explanation

Acts as reversible antagonists of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa - the receptor on the platelet for adhesive proteins such as fibrinogen and von Willebrand factor. Maximally inhibit the final common pathway involved in platelet adhesion, activation, and aggregation.

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25. After tissue injury, place the following events in the correct order.
A. von Willebrand factors attracts platelets
B. Platelets secrete ADP - attracts more platelets
C. Collage is exposed, activating platelets
D. Platelets secrete serotonin and thromboxane A2 - vasoconstriction

Explanation

Collagen is exposed after tissue injury, which activates platelets. von Willebrand factor is then released, attracting platelets to the site of injury. Platelets secrete serotonin and thromboxane A2, causing vasoconstriction. Finally, platelets secrete ADP, which attracts more platelets to the site of injury. Therefore, the correct order is C, A, D, B.

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26. Why can't Heparin be administered orally?

Explanation

It is large and negatively charged and cannot cross the membrane to be absorbed.

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27. What is the treatment for Warfarin toxicity?

Explanation

Phytonadione (K1) can be given orally, IV, or SC and it competes with warfarin. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma provides a lot of fresh clotting factors.

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28. Is bound plasmin or circulating plasmin better?

Explanation

We want plasmin associated with the clot (bound) - systemic lysis can occur when plasmin is present in circulating plasma - it will destroy clotting factors in addition to clots!

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29. How much time is required for peak anticoagulant effect of Warfarin?

Explanation

Warfarin takes out the synthesis of inactivated factors but you need to wait for the body to get rid of the activated factors before seeing the effects of warfarin. Activated IIa has the longest half life, at 60 hours.

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30. What does heparin inhibit?

Explanation

Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by way of antithrombin (a protease inhibitor) - antithrombin inhibits factors Xa, thrombin (IIa), and IXa, XIa, and XIIa. Heparin therefore inhibits conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (via inhibition of Xa) and fibrinogen to fibrin (via inhibition of IIa).

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31. Which drug is a direct reversible thrombin inhibitor used to treat thrombosis in HIT?

Explanation

Synthetic drivative of arginine - direct reversible thrombin inhibitor by blocking the catalytic site - treats thrombosis in HIT - IV administration - metabolized by the LIVER so don't have to worry about renally compromised patients.

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32. Which (2) drug'(s) mechanism of action is proposed interference with platelet function by increasing the cellular concentration of cyclic AMP, by decreasing phosphodiesterase activity, or raising adenosine levels?

Explanation

Inhibits platelet activation by increasing cellular cyclic AMP by inhibiting a phosphodiesterase that degrades cAMP.

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33. Which of the following are Warfarin antagonists?

Explanation

Barbiturates increase metabolism by inducing degradation enzymes. Rifampin increases metabolism by inducing CYP450 enzymes. Vitamin K competes for binding (role of foods). Estrogens increase factors VII and X which increases the synthesis of coagulation factors. Estrogens also decrease the synthesis of antithrombin. Cholestyramine - binds fat soluble vitamins and so eliminates warfarin if given concurrently

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34. Which drug has the highest fibrin selectivity and only a 5 second IV bolus injection?

Explanation

Only 3 AAs different from alteplase - 20-24 minute half-life - more resistant to t-PA circulating inhibitors - highest fibrin selectivity - wont have as many issues with extraneous plasminogen formation.

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35. Which drug is a direct thrombin reversible inhibitor given in combination with aspirin to prevent clot formation with unstable angina undergoing coronary angioplasty?

Explanation

Synthetic derivative - IV administration - renal elimination so must use caution in renally compromised patients.

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36. Which drug is a direct thrombin almost irreversible inhibitor used for DVT prevention in hip replacements?

Explanation

Newest of the group - direct thrombin almost irreversible inhibitor - can be used in HIT patients - SQ so more useful - renal elimination, use caution.

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37. What might cause a deficiency in Prothrombin (factor II) or in Stuart-Prower factor (factor X)?

Explanation

A deficiency in Prothrombin (factor II) or in Stuart-Prower factor (factor X) can be caused by liver disease and vitamin K deficiency. Liver disease can impair the liver's ability to produce these clotting factors, leading to a deficiency. Vitamin K is essential for the production of these factors, so a deficiency in vitamin K can also result in a deficiency of Prothrombin and Stuart-Prower factor. Therefore, both liver disease and vitamin K deficiency can contribute to a deficiency in these clotting factors.

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38. What are the steps in fibrin formation?

Explanation

"Tissue factor" or thromboplastin is released from endothelial wall - starts the extrinsic pathway ("tissue factor pathway" - a factor from outside the vascular system is required.
Contact of blood with collagen starts the intrinsic pathway of blood ("contact activation pathway") - all clotting factors required to start the pathway are present within the vascular system.

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39. What disorder is cilostazol strongly contraindicated in?

Explanation

(I'm not sure why, but according to my notes, emphasis was placed on the importance of this point...)

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40. Which drug is antigenic?

Explanation

If patient has had a previous strep infection or has been given streptokinase before, the patient will have antibodies to streptokinase that will cause an allergic reaction or neutralization of streptokinase).

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41. Which drugs act as synergists for Warfarin?

Explanation

Acetylsalicylic acid - platelets - reduce platelet aggregation - displacement of warfarin from albumin (get more unbound, active aspirin and more free warfarin too). Acetaminophen - high dose and long term - inhibits warfarin degradation - competition for CYP1A2 and 3A4. Antibiotics - (broad spectrum) gut flora - bacteria in the stomach synthesize vitamin K - reducing the amount of vitamin K produced means there is less for warfarin to compete with so it is able to work better. Antibiotics - sulfonamides - compete in plasma albumin binding.

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42. What adverse effect can be seen in the fetus when the mother takes Warfarin, especially in the first trimest?

Explanation

Fetal bone defects are due to lack of gamma carboxylation of osteocalcein.

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43. What is the major difference between cilostazol (Pletal) and dipyridamole?

Explanation

Dipyridamole and aspirin formulation (Aggrenox) is recommended for use with prosthetic heart valves in combination with aspirin. Technically A would be true too but is not the most important difference between the two. More platelet inhibition is seen with cilostazol than with aspirin or dipyridamole.

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44. Which drugs act as synergists for Warfarin?

Explanation

Thyroid - increased metabolism of clotting factors so there are less clotting factors around. Miconazole - is able to cross the membrane and affect warfarin enzymes - inhibits CYP450 - increased warfarin levels. Gemfibrozil - competes for plasma proteins.

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45. What drug would likely be prescribed for a patient with atherosclerosis in the legs (intermittent claudication) causing pain, cramping, and weakness in calf muscles when walking?

Explanation

Cilostazol would likely be prescribed for a patient with atherosclerosis in the legs causing intermittent claudication. Cilostazol is a medication that helps improve blood flow by dilating the blood vessels and reducing platelet aggregation. It is specifically indicated for the treatment of intermittent claudication, which is characterized by pain, cramping, and weakness in the calf muscles during physical activity such as walking. Aspirin, Dipyridamole, and Niacin may have other uses, but Cilostazol is the most appropriate choice for this particular condition.

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46. Heparin also has a:

Explanation

Heparin releases a clearing factor (a lipoprotein lipase) - this lipase hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons.

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47. Which drug is an irreversible direct thrombin inhibitor that is used in place of heparin when HIT is an issue?

Explanation

Dosing by IV and is expensive - renal elimination so use caustion in renally compromised patients.

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48. In what order are the following drugs clot specific? (From most clot specific to least.)
1. Tenectaplase
2. Reteplase
3. Alteplase

Explanation

This is also the order for activating thrombin - tenectaplase the least and reteplase the most.

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49. Which of the following is a derivative of tPA that is only approved for acute MI?

Explanation

Reteplase is clot specific but less so than alteplase - not very antigenic - 13-16 min. half-life - 2 separate 2 minute IV bolus separated by 30 min. - bleeding risk.

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50. What are the indications for platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists (Super Aspirins)?

Explanation

Drugs are infused - rapid acting - and rapidly reversed after stopping infusion - major side effect: bleeding.

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Proteins C and S are dependent on which vitamin for synthesis?
Does Warfarin or Heparin have a longer half-life?
Which drugs is used in the treatment of heparin toxicity?
Which drug acts by competitive inhibition of vitamin K reductase?
Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet aggregation?
What are the advantages of the new derivatives of alteplase (reteplase...
Heparin is metabolized in the:
What are the benefits of LMWHs?
What causes clot formation?
Which of the following are Super Aspirins?
What disorder(s) can be caused by aspirin?
Heparin metabolites are excreted in the:
Which drug is a protein from group C, beta hemolytic streptococci that...
Low molecular weight heparins include which of the following:
Heparin's adverse effects include:
What factor is inhibited by Fondaparinux (Arixtra) in conjunction with...
Which adenosine diphosphate receptor antagonist is similar to...
Is heparin ok in pregnancy?
Which adenosine diphosphate receptor antagonist does not work any...
How can heparin be administered?
What is the mechanism of action of LMWH and why is it different than...
Which of the following is a synthetic pentasaccharide identical to the...
Which of these drugs is a tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA) and...
What type of anticoagulant acts as a platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa...
After tissue injury, place the following events in the correct order....
Why can't Heparin be administered orally?
What is the treatment for Warfarin toxicity?
Is bound plasmin or circulating plasmin better?
How much time is required for peak anticoagulant effect of Warfarin?
What does heparin inhibit?
Which drug is a direct reversible thrombin inhibitor used to treat...
Which (2) drug'(s) mechanism of action is proposed interference...
Which of the following are Warfarin antagonists?
Which drug has the highest fibrin selectivity and only a 5 second IV...
Which drug is a direct thrombin reversible inhibitor given in...
Which drug is a direct thrombin almost irreversible inhibitor used for...
What might cause a deficiency in Prothrombin (factor II) or in...
What are the steps in fibrin formation?
What disorder is cilostazol strongly contraindicated in?
Which drug is antigenic?
Which drugs act as synergists for Warfarin?
What adverse effect can be seen in the fetus when the mother takes...
What is the major difference between cilostazol (Pletal) and...
Which drugs act as synergists for Warfarin?
What drug would likely be prescribed for a patient with...
Heparin also has a:
Which drug is an irreversible direct thrombin inhibitor that is used...
In what order are the following drugs clot specific? (From most clot...
Which of the following is a derivative of tPA that is only approved...
What are the indications for platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor...
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