Paramedic Quiz For Maes Students Chapter 9/10

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Questions: 50 | Attempts: 264

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Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

Based on chapter 9 and 10 of Nancy Carolines emergency care in the streets.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    By definition, infancy begins at

    • A.

      Birth

    • B.

      1 month of age

    • C.

      12 months of age

    • D.

      18 months of age

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 month of age
    Explanation
    Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth to the age of 1 year. Therefore, it begins at 1 month of age, as mentioned in the given options. This is because the first month after birth is considered part of the infancy stage.

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  • 2. 

    Just after birth, the ductus arteriosus constricts and closes, resulting in

    • A.

      Decreased systemic vascular resistance

    • B.

      Circulation through the pulmonary system

    • C.

      Increased blood flow through the placenta

    • D.

      Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

    Correct Answer
    B. Circulation through the pulmonary system
    Explanation
    After birth, the ductus arteriosus, which is a blood vessel connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta in a fetus, constricts and closes. This closure redirects blood flow from the pulmonary artery to the lungs, allowing circulation through the pulmonary system. This is necessary because in the womb, the fetus receives oxygen from the placenta, so most of the blood bypasses the lungs. However, after birth, the lungs take over the oxygenation of blood, and the closure of the ductus arteriosus ensures that blood is now properly circulated through the pulmonary system.

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  • 3. 

    Barotrauma secondary to bag-mask ventilations in an infant means that your ventilations

    • A.

      Were too forceful

    • B.

      Caused gastric distention

    • C.

      Were too slow for the infants age

    • D.

      Did not produce visible chest rise

    Correct Answer
    A. Were too forceful
    Explanation
    Barotrauma secondary to bag-mask ventilations in an infant means that the ventilations were too forceful. This suggests that the pressure used during the ventilations was excessive, causing damage to the delicate structures of the infant's lungs. It is important to provide gentle and controlled ventilations to avoid barotrauma and potential complications.

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  • 4. 

    An infants fontanelles are typically fused together by the age of

    • A.

      12 months

    • B.

      18 months

    • C.

      24 months

    • D.

      36 months

    Correct Answer
    B. 18 months
    Explanation
    Infant fontanelles are the soft spots on a baby's head where the skull bones have not yet fully fused together. These fontanelles allow for the baby's brain to grow and accommodate the rapid brain development that occurs in the early months of life. By the age of 18 months, the fontanelles have typically closed and the skull bones have fused together, providing protection and support to the growing brain.

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  • 5. 

    At 2 months of age, an infant should be able to

    • A.

      Track objects with his or her eyes

    • B.

      Differentiate family from strangers

    • C.

      Respond when his or her name is called

    • D.

      Sit upright in a chair unassisted

    Correct Answer
    A. Track objects with his or her eyes
    Explanation
    At 2 months of age, an infant's visual development is progressing, and they should be able to track objects with their eyes. This means that they can visually follow a moving object with their gaze. This ability is an important milestone in their visual and cognitive development. It indicates that their eye muscles and coordination are developing properly, allowing them to visually explore their surroundings and engage with their environment.

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  • 6. 

    Anxious avoidant attachment is observed in infants who are repeatedly

    • A.

      Hugged

    • B.

      Punished

    • C.

      Carried

    • D.

      Rejected

    Correct Answer
    D. Rejected
    Explanation
    Anxious avoidant attachment is observed in infants who are repeatedly rejected. This means that the infants have experienced consistent and frequent rejection from their caregivers, leading to a pattern of behavior where they avoid seeking comfort or closeness from others. They may become emotionally distant, have difficulty forming trusting relationships, and may exhibit a fear of intimacy. This attachment style is often a result of inconsistent or neglectful caregiving, where the infants' needs for love and attention have been consistently unmet.

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  • 7. 

    Upper respiratory tract infections are more common in toddlers than in infants because

    • A.

      They put things in their mouths

    • B.

      They do not produce antibodies

    • C.

      Of a loss of passive immunity

    • D.

      They are exposed to other children

    Correct Answer
    C. Of a loss of passive immunity
    Explanation
    Toddlers are more prone to upper respiratory tract infections compared to infants due to a loss of passive immunity. Infants receive passive immunity from their mothers through antibodies transferred during pregnancy. However, as they grow into toddlers, this passive immunity decreases, making them more susceptible to infections. Additionally, toddlers tend to put objects in their mouths and are often exposed to other children, increasing their chances of coming into contact with infectious agents.

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  • 8. 

    In conventional reasoning, school-age children

    • A.

      Act almost purely to avoid punishment

    • B.

      Make decisions guided by their conscience

    • C.

      Act out so that they can get what they want

    • D.

      Seek approval from their peers and society

    Correct Answer
    D. Seek approval from their peers and society
    Explanation
    School-age children often seek approval from their peers and society because they value social acceptance and want to fit in. They want to be liked and respected by their friends and classmates, so they may conform to social norms and make decisions based on what they believe will gain them approval from others. This desire for approval can influence their behavior and decision-making, as they may prioritize the opinions and expectations of their peers and society over their own personal desires or conscience.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following statements regarding growth spurts in adolescents is MOST correct

    • A.

      Girls typically experience a growth spurt later in life that boys do

    • B.

      Blood volume typically remains unchanged during a growth spurt

    • C.

      Boys generally experience this stage of growth later in life than girls do

    • D.

      When this period of growth has finished, girls are generally taller than boys

    Correct Answer
    C. Boys generally experience this stage of growth later in life than girls do
    Explanation
    During adolescence, both boys and girls go through growth spurts, but the timing differs. The correct answer states that boys generally experience this stage of growth later in life than girls do. This is supported by research indicating that girls usually begin their growth spurt around the age of 10 to 11, while boys start a bit later, around the age of 12 to 13. This difference in timing can lead to temporary differences in height between boys and girls during this period.

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  • 10. 

    In general, normal psychosocial factors that affect the life of a 35 y/o person include all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Work

    • B.

      Stress

    • C.

      Family

    • D.

      Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    D. Anxiety
    Explanation
    Normal psychosocial factors that affect the life of a 35 y/o person include work, stress, and family. Anxiety, on the other hand, is not considered a normal psychosocial factor. While it is true that anxiety can affect a person's life, it is not typically categorized as a normal factor because it is a mental health condition that may require intervention and treatment.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following factors typically does NOT affect the vital signs of a 65 y/o patient

    • A.

      Overall health

    • B.

      Living conditions

    • C.

      Medications taken

    • D.

      Past medical history

    Correct Answer
    B. Living conditions
    Explanation
    Living conditions typically do not directly affect the vital signs of a 65 y/o patient. Vital signs are measurements of basic body functions like heart rate, blood pressure, and temperature, which are primarily influenced by factors such as overall health, medications taken, and past medical history. While living conditions can indirectly impact a person's health, they do not directly affect vital signs.

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  • 12. 

    In older adults, the size of the airway____ and the surface area of the alveoli_____

    • A.

      Increased,decreases

    • B.

      Decreases,decreases

    • C.

      Decreases,increases

    • D.

      Increases, increases

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased,decreases
    Explanation
    As individuals age, the size of the airway tends to increase while the surface area of the alveoli decreases. This can be attributed to the natural process of aging, which leads to changes in the respiratory system. The increased size of the airway may be due to factors such as decreased elasticity and increased airway resistance. On the other hand, the decrease in the surface area of the alveoli is a result of structural changes in the lungs, including loss of alveolar walls and decreased alveolar density. These changes can contribute to decreased lung function and increased susceptibility to respiratory issues in older adults.

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  • 13. 

    Older adults are prone to subdural hematomas because

    • A.

      Age-related shrinkage of the brain stretches the bridging veins that return blood from the brain to the dura mater

    • B.

      Older adults experience an increase in intracranial blood flow as well as predisposition to falls

    • C.

      Excessive alcohol use. which is very common in older adults. causes the brain to atrophy prematurely

    • D.

      Age-related hypertension weakens the cerebral veins, which predisposes them to damage from even minor trauma

    Correct Answer
    A. Age-related shrinkage of the brain stretches the bridging veins that return blood from the brain to the dura mater
    Explanation
    As individuals age, their brain undergoes shrinkage, which can lead to stretching of the bridging veins that return blood from the brain to the dura mater. This stretching increases the risk of subdural hematomas in older adults. The other options mentioned in the question, such as increased intracranial blood flow, excessive alcohol use, and age-related hypertension, do not directly explain the relationship between aging and subdural hematomas.

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  • 14. 

    A paramedic who looks the part of the professional

    • A.

      Is more likely to provide competent care

    • B.

      Inspires confidence in his or her patients

    • C.

      Will be respected by his or her coworkers

    • D.

      Is less likely to be held liable for negligence

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspires confidence in his or her patients
    Explanation
    A paramedic who looks the part of the professional inspires confidence in his or her patients. When patients see a paramedic who appears competent and professional, they are more likely to trust in their abilities and feel reassured that they will receive competent care. This can help to alleviate anxiety and create a positive patient-provider relationship.

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  • 15. 

    Repeating the key parts of a patient's responses to your questions demonstrates

    • A.

      Sympathy

    • B.

      Active listening

    • C.

      Passive communication

    • D.

      An exchange of information

    Correct Answer
    B. Active listening
    Explanation
    Repeating the key parts of a patient's responses to your questions demonstrates active listening. Active listening involves fully engaging with the speaker and showing genuine interest in their words. By repeating the key parts of the patient's responses, the listener acknowledges and validates their concerns, showing that they are actively paying attention and understanding the information shared. This helps to establish rapport, build trust, and promote effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 16. 

    When functioning as a noisy scene, communication will be MOST effective if you

    • A.

      Move the patient to the ambulance as soon as you can

    • B.

      Tell noisy patrons or bystanders to be quiet or leave

    • C.

      Yell info the patient's ear so he or she can hear you

    • D.

      Find the source of the noise and remove it if possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Move the patient to the ambulance as soon as you can
    Explanation
    In a noisy scene, communication will be most effective if you move the patient to the ambulance as soon as you can. This is because the ambulance provides a controlled and quieter environment where communication can be clearer and more easily understood. By removing the patient from the noisy surroundings, you can ensure that important information and instructions are effectively conveyed, leading to better patient care and outcomes.

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  • 17. 

    The MOST effective way to reinforce your interest in and concern for your patients is to

    • A.

      Ask the patient if her or her spouse is okay

    • B.

      Use a calm and steady tone of reassurance

    • C.

      Tell him or her that everything will be okay

    • D.

      Repeat the patient's statement's word for word

    Correct Answer
    B. Use a calm and steady tone of reassurance
    Explanation
    Using a calm and steady tone of reassurance is the most effective way to reinforce your interest in and concern for your patients. This approach conveys empathy, confidence, and a sense of security to the patient, helping them feel heard and understood. It also helps to alleviate their anxiety and build trust in the healthcare provider. By maintaining a calm and steady tone, the healthcare provider can create a positive and supportive environment, promoting better communication and patient satisfaction.

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  • 18. 

    When a patient tells you his or her name, it is MOST appropriate for the paramedic to

    • A.

      Address the patient by his or her first and last name

    • B.

      Put the patient at easy by calling him or her dear

    • C.

      Use the patient's first name to allay his or her anxiety

    • D.

      Ask the patient how he or she wishes to be addressed

    Correct Answer
    D. Ask the patient how he or she wishes to be addressed
    Explanation
    It is most appropriate for the paramedic to ask the patient how he or she wishes to be addressed because it respects the patient's autonomy and personal preferences. By asking the patient directly, the paramedic can ensure that they address the patient in a way that makes them feel comfortable and respected. This approach acknowledges the importance of patient-centered care and promotes a positive therapeutic relationship between the paramedic and the patient.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is NOT an example of an open-ended question

    • A.

      How did you feel when you woke up today

    • B.

      Is there anything you would like to discuss

    • C.

      Can you described the pain you are feeling

    • D.

      Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw

    Correct Answer
    D. Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw
    Explanation
    The question "does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw" is not an example of an open-ended question because it can be answered with a simple yes or no response. Open-ended questions typically require more detailed and descriptive answers, allowing the respondent to provide their thoughts, feelings, or explanations.

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  • 20. 

    If the wife of a critically ill man asks you if her husband is going to die, the MOST appropriate response would be

    • A.

      The situation appears grim, but you should not lose all hope

    • B.

      It is possible, and you should prepare yourself for the worst

    • C.

      That question is best answered by the physician at the hospital

    • D.

      He is very sick, but we are doing everything we can to help him

    Correct Answer
    D. He is very sick, but we are doing everything we can to help him
    Explanation
    The given answer is the most appropriate response because it acknowledges the seriousness of the situation while also providing reassurance and hope to the wife. It shows empathy and compassion by acknowledging the husband's illness and the efforts being made to help him. It also avoids making any definitive statements about the outcome, as that is best left to the physician who has all the necessary information.

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  • 21. 

    You will distance yourself from your patient as a person if you

    • A.

      Maintain eye contact

    • B.

      Use complicated medical terminology

    • C.

      Answer the patient's questions truthfully

    • D.

      Treat him or her as one of your loved ones

    Correct Answer
    B. Use complicated medical terminology
    Explanation
    Using complicated medical terminology can distance the healthcare provider from the patient as a person. When healthcare professionals use complex medical jargon that the patient may not understand, it can create a barrier in communication and make the patient feel disconnected or confused. Effective communication is essential in building trust and rapport with patients, and using language that is clear and easy to understand helps to establish a more personal and empathetic connection.

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  • 22. 

    When touching a patient as a form of reassurance, the paramedic should

    • A.

      Touch the patient on a neutral part of his or her body

    • B.

      Touch the patient in the center of the chest or on the thigh

    • C.

      Remember that most patients take offence to being touched

    • D.

      Not touch the patient if he or she leans toward the paramedic

    Correct Answer
    A. Touch the patient on a neutral part of his or her body
    Explanation
    Touching a patient on a neutral part of their body is the appropriate approach when providing reassurance as a paramedic. This ensures that the touch is non-threatening and maintains a professional boundary. Touching the patient in the center of the chest or on the thigh may be invasive and inappropriate in most situations. Assuming that most patients take offense to being touched is a generalization and not accurate. Refraining from touching the patient if they lean towards the paramedic is not a valid reason to avoid touch, as the patient's behavior should not dictate the paramedic's actions in this context.

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  • 23. 

    If a patient sees you as someone with whom it is safe to be, who does not pose a threat, and who honestly cares, then he or she will MOST likely

    • A.

      Give consent for any and all treatment

    • B.

      Forsake his or her own personal beliefs

    • C.

      Take your advice instead of a loved ones

    • D.

      Be reassured that you will handle the crisis

    Correct Answer
    D. Be reassured that you will handle the crisis
    Explanation
    When a patient perceives a healthcare provider as safe, non-threatening, and genuinely caring, they are more likely to trust the provider's ability to handle a crisis. This trust and reassurance create a sense of confidence in the provider's skills and decision-making, leading the patient to believe that the provider will effectively manage the situation. Therefore, the patient will be reassured that the provider will handle the crisis appropriately.

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  • 24. 

    If a patient is unable to tell you who he or she is, where he or she is, and what day of the week it is

    • A.

      You should suspect deceased blood flow to the brain

    • B.

      He or she is most likely scared and unable to remember

    • C.

      He or she likely has an intracerebral hemorrhage or lesion

    • D.

      You should ask him or her questions that require more thought

    Correct Answer
    A. You should suspect deceased blood flow to the brain
    Explanation
    If a patient is unable to tell you who he or she is, where he or she is, and what day of the week it is, it suggests a severe impairment in cognitive function. This could be due to decreased blood flow to the brain, which can result from conditions such as stroke or cardiac arrest. The inability to answer these basic questions indicates a significant neurological deficit and warrants immediate medical attention.

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  • 25. 

    If a patient refuses to talk, and he or she is not exhibiting signs of decreased mental status, it is MOST appropriate for the paramedic to

    • A.

      Suspect that the patient has a psychiatric illness and be prepared for him or her to become violent

    • B.

      Respect the patient's silence and explain everything that you are doing to his or her family member

    • C.

      Maintain eye contact and let the patient know that it's all right if he or she does not wish to speak

    • D.

      Advise the parient that his or her silence will only hamper your ability to determine whats wrong

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintain eye contact and let the patient know that it's all right if he or she does not wish to speak
    Explanation
    If a patient refuses to talk but is not exhibiting signs of decreased mental status, it is important for the paramedic to respect the patient's silence and maintain eye contact. This approach allows the paramedic to establish trust and convey to the patient that their choice to remain silent is acceptable. By maintaining eye contact, the paramedic can also communicate non-verbally that they are attentive and supportive. This approach is crucial in building rapport with the patient and creating a safe environment for communication, if and when the patient is ready to speak.

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  • 26. 

    When communicating with older patients, it is MOST important to remember that

    • A.

      Many older patients lose the ability to understand simple terminology, thus requiring the paramedic to gear his or her questions accordingly

    • B.

      Their illnessess may be more complex because they may have more than one disease process and may be taking several medications concurrently

    • C.

      The ability to hear and see is naturally impaired due to the process of aging, and the paramedic must accommodate these disabilities appropriately

    • D.

      Older patients are generally poor historians regarding their medical history, and the paramedic should interview a family member or friend instead

    Correct Answer
    B. Their illnessess may be more complex because they may have more than one disease process and may be taking several medications concurrently
    Explanation
    When communicating with older patients, it is important to remember that their illnesses may be more complex because they may have more than one disease process and may be taking several medications concurrently. This is because as people age, they are more likely to develop multiple health conditions and require multiple medications to manage them. Therefore, understanding the complexity of their medical history and treatment is crucial for providing appropriate care and making informed decisions.

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  • 27. 

    When communicating with a patient whose cultural background differs from the paramedic's, it is MOST important for the paramedic to

    • A.

      Agree with the patient's cultural differences

    • B.

      Know the specifics about the patient's culture

    • C.

      Treat the patient with utmost respect at all times

    • D.

      Use his or her own culture as the sole reference

    Correct Answer
    C. Treat the patient with utmost respect at all times
    Explanation
    When communicating with a patient whose cultural background differs from the paramedic's, it is most important for the paramedic to treat the patient with utmost respect at all times. This is because respect is a fundamental aspect of effective communication and building trust with patients. By treating the patient with respect, the paramedic can create a safe and comfortable environment for the patient to express their needs and concerns. Additionally, it shows the paramedic's willingness to understand and accommodate the patient's cultural differences, fostering a positive and inclusive healthcare experience.

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  • 28. 

    After inserting the needle during an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, but before delivering the medication you should

    • A.

      Ensure you stretch the skin taunt

    • B.

      Inquire about any medication allergies

    • C.

      Look in the barrel of the syringe for blood

    • D.

      Pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood

    Correct Answer
    D. Pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood
    Explanation
    Before delivering the medication during an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, it is important to pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood. This is done to check if the needle has accidentally entered a blood vessel. If blood is aspirated into the syringe, it indicates that the needle is in a blood vessel, and the medication should not be injected at that site. This step helps to prevent the medication from entering the bloodstream directly and causing potential complications.

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  • 29. 

    Neither subcutaneous nor intramuscular injections should be given to patients

    • A.

      With inadequate peripheral perfusion

    • B.

      Who are morbidly obese or very thin

    • C.

      Who require less than 5 mL of a drug

    • D.

      With a systolic BP greater than 140 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. With inadequate peripheral perfusion
    Explanation
    Patients with inadequate peripheral perfusion should not be given subcutaneous or intramuscular injections. Inadequate peripheral perfusion refers to poor blood flow to the extremities, which can lead to reduced absorption of the injected medication. This can result in ineffective treatment or potential harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to avoid these types of injections in patients with inadequate peripheral perfusion.

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  • 30. 

    Failure to pinch the tubing proximal to the injection port when administering a drug via the IV bolus route will

    • A.

      Cause the medication to enter the patient's central circulation rapidly

    • B.

      Result in too much of the medication entering the patient's circulation

    • C.

      Cause the medication to flow up the tubing and away from the patient

    • D.

      Negate the need to follow the IV bolus with a 20 mL normal saline flush

    Correct Answer
    C. Cause the medication to flow up the tubing and away from the patient
    Explanation
    Failure to pinch the tubing proximal to the injection port when administering a drug via the IV bolus route will cause the medication to flow up the tubing and away from the patient. When the tubing is not pinched, the medication can flow freely through the tubing, bypassing the injection port and entering the tubing instead of the patient's circulation. This can result in the medication not being delivered to the patient as intended, reducing its effectiveness.

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  • 31. 

    Although medications that are used for maintenance infusions are commonly premixed and prepackaged, you must still

    • A.

      Add 100 mL of sterile saline to dilute the premixed medication

    • B.

      Draw 20 mL of fluid from the premixed solution to use as a flush

    • C.

      Be aware of the concentration of the drug in the premixed solution

    • D.

      Use the drug within 36 hours removing it from its foil covering

    Correct Answer
    C. Be aware of the concentration of the drug in the premixed solution
    Explanation
    The correct answer emphasizes the importance of being aware of the concentration of the drug in the premixed solution. This is crucial because different concentrations may require different dosages or administration techniques. It is necessary to understand the concentration in order to ensure the correct and safe administration of the medication.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following steps is usually necessary when administering a drug via the intraosseous(IO) route, but not necessary when administering a drug via the IV bolus route

    • A.

      Rapid administration of any drug you give

    • B.

      Placing a pressure infuser device around the IV bag

    • C.

      Flushing with 20 mL of saline after the drug is given

    • D.

      Clamping off the tubing proximal to the injection port

    Correct Answer
    B. Placing a pressure infuser device around the IV bag
    Explanation
    When administering a drug via the intraosseous (IO) route, it is necessary to place a pressure infuser device around the IV bag. This is because the IO route involves injecting the drug directly into the bone marrow, which requires a higher pressure to ensure proper distribution of the drug. In contrast, when administering a drug via the IV bolus route, the drug is injected directly into the vein, so there is no need for a pressure infuser device.

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  • 33. 

    Medication absorption through a nitroglycerin patch would be increased in the patient has

    • A.

      Scar tissue under the patch

    • B.

      Peripheral vascular disease

    • C.

      A low systolic blood pressure

    • D.

      Skin that is thin or nonintact

    Correct Answer
    D. Skin that is thin or nonintact
    Explanation
    Skin that is thin or nonintact would increase medication absorption through a nitroglycerin patch. This is because the medication is absorbed through the skin, and if the skin is thin or nonintact, it allows for easier and quicker absorption of the medication into the bloodstream.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following statements regarding the mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is MOST correct

    • A.

      Narcan is the only emergency medication that can be administered intranasally with the MAD

    • B.

      The MAD is used to inject a straight stream of select emergency drugs directly into the nasal canal

    • C.

      When administering a drug with the MAD , you should spray half the dose into each nostril

    • D.

      Drugs administered with the MAD have an onset of action that is slightly lower than the intramuscular route

    Correct Answer
    C. When administering a drug with the MAD , you should spray half the dose into each nostril
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that when administering a drug with the MAD, you should spray half the dose into each nostril. This means that the medication should be divided equally between both nostrils when using the mucosal atomizer device.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following inhaled medications is NOT a beta2 agonist bronchodilator

    • A.

      Proventil

    • B.

      Albuterol

    • C.

      Isoetharine

    • D.

      Ipratropium

    Correct Answer
    D. Ipratropium
    Explanation
    Ipratropium is not a beta2 agonist bronchodilator. It is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes constriction of the airways. In contrast, proventil, albuterol, and isoetharine are all beta2 agonist bronchodilators that work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, thereby opening them up and improving airflow.

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  • 36. 

    Medication routes, from slowest to fastest rates of absorption, are

    • A.

      Subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous

    • B.

      Intramuscular, sublingual, subcutaneous, intravenous, inhalation

    • C.

      Intravenous, inhalation, sublingual, subcutaneous, intramuscular

    • D.

      Subcutaneous, sublingual, inhalation, intramuscular, intravenous

    Correct Answer
    A. Subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous
    Explanation
    Medication routes can vary in terms of the rate of absorption into the bloodstream. Subcutaneous administration involves injecting the medication just beneath the skin, resulting in a slower rate of absorption compared to other routes. Intramuscular administration involves injecting the medication into a muscle, which allows for a faster absorption rate compared to subcutaneous administration. Sublingual administration involves placing the medication under the tongue, which allows for a faster absorption rate compared to both subcutaneous and intramuscular routes. Inhalation involves inhaling the medication into the lungs, which allows for a faster absorption rate compared to subcutaneous, intramuscular, and sublingual routes. Intravenous administration involves injecting the medication directly into a vein, resulting in the fastest rate of absorption among all the routes listed.

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  • 37. 

    While attempting to start an IV on a patient with large protruding veins, you note that the vein rolls from side to side during your cannulation attempt. The BEST way to remedy this situation is to

    • A.

      Apply downward manual traction below the venipuncture site to stabilize the vein in position

    • B.

      Apply the constricting band to a distal location

    • C.

      Use a through-the-needle IV catheter in order to gain better control over the rolling vein.

    • D.

      Place a chemical heat pack over the vein for 10 minutes in order to decrease movement of the vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply downward manual traction below the venipuncture site to stabilize the vein in position
    Explanation
    When a vein rolls from side to side during cannulation, it becomes difficult to successfully start an IV. Applying downward manual traction below the venipuncture site helps stabilize the vein in position, making it easier to insert the needle accurately. This technique ensures that the vein remains steady and minimizes the chances of it rolling during the cannulation attempt. By stabilizing the vein, healthcare professionals can improve their success rate and reduce patient discomfort.

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  • 38. 

    After starting an IV in an arm vein of a patient with chest pain and properly securing the catheter in place, you note that the IV is not flowing, you should

    • A.

      Gently manipulate the catheler and reassess the flow

    • B.

      Discontinue the IV and reestablish it in the other arm

    • C.

      Ensure that the constricting band has been removed

    • D.

      Use a pressure infuser device to improve the IV flow

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that the constricting band has been removed
    Explanation
    If the IV is not flowing, the first step should be to ensure that the constricting band has been removed. The constricting band is used to help locate veins and make them more prominent, but if it is left on after the catheter is inserted, it can restrict blood flow and prevent the IV from functioning properly. Therefore, removing the constricting band should be the initial action taken to address the issue of the IV not flowing.

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  • 39. 

    Approximately 20 minutes after starting an IV on a 40 y/o man, he begins complaining of a backache and chills. you should be MOST suspicious of

    • A.

      An air embolus

    • B.

      An allergic reaction

    • C.

      Circulatory overload

    • D.

      A pyrogenic reaction

    Correct Answer
    D. A pyrogenic reaction
    Explanation
    A pyrogenic reaction is the most likely explanation for the symptoms described. A pyrogenic reaction occurs when the body reacts to the presence of pyrogens, which are substances that can cause fever. The backache and chills experienced by the patient could be indicative of a fever, which is a common symptom of a pyrogenic reaction. This reaction can occur as a result of contamination of the IV solution or equipment with bacteria or endotoxins. It is important to investigate and address this reaction promptly to prevent further complications.

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  • 40. 

    While establishing inraosseous (IO) access in a critically ill patient, you locate the appropriate anatomic landmark, cleanse the side, and insert the IO catheter at a 45 degree angle. After attaching the IV line and turning the flow on, you note edema developing on the opposite side of the extremity. What has MOST likely happened.

    • A.

      Extravasation due to an inappropriate angle of IO catheter insertion

    • B.

      Inadvertent entry of a large vein, causing infiltration

    • C.

      Fracture of the bone with leakage of bone marrow into the soft tissue

    • D.

      Acute osteomyelitis secondary to inappropriate cleansing of the site

    Correct Answer
    A. Extravasation due to an inappropriate angle of IO catheter insertion
    Explanation
    When inserting an IO catheter, it is important to insert it at the correct angle to avoid complications. Inserting the IO catheter at a 45-degree angle can cause extravasation, which is the leakage of fluid from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues. In this case, the development of edema on the opposite side of the extremity suggests that the fluid has leaked into the soft tissue, causing the swelling. This is the most likely explanation for the observed symptoms.

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  • 41. 

    During the attempted resuscitation of a man in V-fib cardiac arrest, your protocols call for the administration of 1.5 mg/kg of lidocaine. You have prefilled syringes of lidocaine in a concentration of 100 mg/ 5 mL. The patient weighs 180 lbs. How many mL will you administer.

    • A.

      5.5

    • B.

      6.2

    • C.

      6.5

    • D.

      6.8

    Correct Answer
    B. 6.2
    Explanation
    To calculate the amount of lidocaine to be administered, we need to convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms. The patient weighs 180 lbs, which is approximately 81.8 kg. The protocol calls for a dosage of 1.5 mg/kg, so we multiply the weight by the dosage: 81.8 kg * 1.5 mg/kg = 122.7 mg.

    Next, we need to determine how many mL of the 100 mg/5 mL concentration of lidocaine will contain 122.7 mg. We can set up a proportion: 100 mg/5 mL = 122.7 mg/x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get 100 mg * x mL = 5 mL * 122.7 mg. Solving for x, we find that x = (5 mL * 122.7 mg) / 100 mg = 6.135 mL, which can be rounded to 6.2 mL.

    Therefore, the correct answer is 6.2 mL.

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  • 42. 

    While consulting with the attending physician at the receiving facility about a patient with symptomatic bradycardia, the physician orders you to administer 0.5 mg/kg of atropine to the patient.After recognizing that this is an inappropriate dose of atropine, you should

    • A.

      contact your medical director at once

    • B.

      Ask the physician to repeat the order

    • C.

      Refuse to administer the ordered dose

    • D.

      Confirm the correct dose in your field guide

    Correct Answer
    B. Ask the physician to repeat the order
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ask the physician to repeat the order. This is the appropriate action to take when you recognize that the ordered dose of atropine is inappropriate. By asking the physician to repeat the order, you are giving them the opportunity to correct any potential errors and ensure that the patient receives the correct dose of medication. It is important to communicate effectively with the physician to ensure patient safety.

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  • 43. 

    You reassess your patient after administering a medication via the IV bolus route and note that his clinical condition is unchanged. What is the LEAST likely cause of the patient's unchanged condition.

    • A.

      The patient may require another dose of the same drug

    • B.

      The dose was too low for the patient's clinical condition

    • C.

      The IV tubing was occluded proximal to the injection port.

    • D.

      You diluted the bolus by following it with a 20 mL saline flush

    Correct Answer
    C. The IV tubing was occluded proximal to the injection port.
    Explanation
    The least likely cause of the patient's unchanged condition is that the IV tubing was occluded proximal to the injection port. This is because an occlusion in the IV tubing would prevent the medication from reaching the patient, resulting in no effect or improvement in their clinical condition. Therefore, if the patient's condition remains unchanged, it is less likely to be due to an occlusion in the IV tubing.

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  • 44. 

    When injecting a medication via the rectal route, you should

    • A.

      Instruct the patient not to bear down

    • B.

      Use a large uncuffed endotracheal tube

    • C.

      Ensure that the patient is fully conscious

    • D.

      Recall that the rectal musoca are relatively avascular

    Correct Answer
    A. Instruct the patient not to bear down
    Explanation
    When injecting a medication via the rectal route, instructing the patient not to bear down is important because bearing down can increase intra-abdominal pressure and potentially force the medication out of the rectum. This instruction helps ensure that the medication is properly absorbed and its intended effects are achieved.

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  • 45. 

    In which of the following cases would the paramedic MOST likely instill medication down a gastric tube

    • A.

      Toxic ingestion in patients with a depressed swallowing mechanism

    • B.

      In the absence of vascular access in a patient who is clinically unstable

    • C.

      Acute overdose to lavage the stomach and prevent ingestion of the drug

    • D.

      To instill nutritional substances in patients who cannot swallow effectively

    Correct Answer
    A. Toxic ingestion in patients with a depressed swallowing mechanism
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Toxic ingestion in patients with a depressed swallowing mechanism." In this scenario, the paramedic would most likely instill medication down a gastric tube to treat the toxic ingestion. Patients with a depressed swallowing mechanism may have difficulty swallowing oral medications, so administering the medication directly into the stomach via a gastric tube would be the most appropriate method. This ensures that the medication reaches the intended target and can be absorbed by the body.

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  • 46. 

    The _____ route is the MOST commonly used medication route in the prehospital setting

    • A.

      Intraosseous

    • B.

      Intravenous

    • C.

      Percutaneous

    • D.

      Intramuscular

    Correct Answer
    B. Intravenous
    Explanation
    In the prehospital setting, the intravenous route is the most commonly used medication route. This is because it allows for rapid and direct access to the bloodstream, ensuring that medications are quickly delivered and can take effect more rapidly. Other routes such as intraosseous, percutaneous, and intramuscular may also be used in certain situations, but intravenous administration is preferred due to its efficiency and effectiveness.

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  • 47. 

    When using a vial of medication, you must FIRST determine

    • A.

      The needle gauge that you will need and the appropriate size syringe

    • B.

      How much of the drug is needed and how many doses are in the vial

    • C.

      If the medication has completely settled to the base of the container

    • D.

      The appropriate amount of air that you will need to inject into the vial

    Correct Answer
    B. How much of the drug is needed and how many doses are in the vial
    Explanation
    Before using a vial of medication, it is essential to determine how much of the drug is needed and how many doses are present in the vial. This information is crucial for ensuring the correct dosage is administered and to avoid any potential overdose or underdose. Knowing the quantity of the drug needed and the number of doses in the vial allows healthcare professionals to accurately measure and administer the medication to the patient. It also helps in managing the supply of medication and planning for future doses.

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  • 48. 

    The main benefit of using a prefilled medication syringe is that

    • A.

      It does not require you to draw up each individual medication dose

    • B.

      They are made of plastic and are less likely to break or get damaged

    • C.

      There is no need to expel air from the syringe prior to giving the drug

    • D.

      All of the contents of a prefilled syringe are administered at one time

    Correct Answer
    A. It does not require you to draw up each individual medication dose
    Explanation
    Using a prefilled medication syringe eliminates the need to draw up each individual medication dose. This saves time and reduces the risk of dosage errors. By already containing the correct amount of medication, prefilled syringes ensure accurate dosing and eliminate the need for additional steps in the administration process.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following statements regarding subcutaneous medication administration is MOST correct

    • A.

      A subcutaneous injection involved using a 20 or 21 gauge needle

    • B.

      The needle is inserted at a 90 degree angle during a subcutaneous injection

    • C.

      Volumes of a drug given subcutaneously are typically 1 mL or less

    • D.

      The rectus femoris muscle is a common site for subcutaneous injections

    Correct Answer
    C. Volumes of a drug given subcutaneously are typically 1 mL or less
    Explanation
    The statement "volumes of a drug given subcutaneously are typically 1 mL or less" is the most correct because subcutaneous injections are usually given in small doses, often less than 1 mL, to be absorbed into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Subcutaneous injections are commonly used for medications such as insulin and certain vaccines.

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  • 50. 

    In what age range can most children begin to use and understand full sentences

    • A.

      2-3 years

    • B.

      3-4 years

    • C.

      4-5 years

    • D.

      5-6 years

    Correct Answer
    B. 3-4 years
    Explanation
    Most children begin to use and understand full sentences around the age of 3-4 years. At this stage of development, children have typically acquired enough language skills and vocabulary to form complete sentences and comprehend more complex language structures. They are able to express their thoughts and ideas more coherently and engage in meaningful conversations with others.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 04, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jbouren
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