P20(B)

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Blood Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?

    • A.

      A. increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin

    • B.

      B. severe anemia and increased serum bilirubin

    • C.

      C. hypokalemia and increased serum ammonia

    • D.

      D. hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. A. increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
    Explanation
    Ascites in patients with cirrhosis is primarily caused by portal hypertension, which leads to increased pressure in the portal vein and subsequent fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity. Increased aldosterone levels contribute to ascites by causing sodium and water retention, further exacerbating fluid accumulation. Additionally, cirrhosis often leads to a deficit of albumin, a protein responsible for maintaining oncotic pressure in the blood vessels. This deficit reduces the ability of the blood vessels to retain fluid, leading to its leakage into the peritoneal cavity and the development of ascites.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?

    • A.

      A. metastatic tumors

    • B.

      B. acute hepatitis

    • C.

      C. long-term exposure to certain chemicals

    • D.

      D. chronic cholelithiasis

    Correct Answer
    C. C. long-term exposure to certain chemicals
    Explanation
    Long-term exposure to certain chemicals is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer. This type of cancer originates in the liver cells and is often associated with exposure to carcinogens such as aflatoxins, vinyl chloride, and arsenic. These chemicals can damage the DNA within the liver cells, leading to the development of cancerous cells. Other risk factors for hepatocellular cancer include chronic viral hepatitis B or C infection and alcohol abuse. Metastatic tumors, acute hepatitis, and chronic cholelithiasis are not primary causes of hepatocellular cancer.

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  • 3. 

    What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?

    • A.

      A. formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia

    • B.

      B. infection by intestinal microbes

    • C.

      C. immune complex reaction

    • D.

      D. activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes

    Correct Answer
    D. D. activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes
    Explanation
    In acute pancreatitis, the activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes is the main cause of massive inflammation and necrosis. These enzymes, such as trypsin, are normally produced in the pancreas but become activated prematurely, leading to the digestion of pancreatic tissue. This activation can be triggered by various factors, such as alcohol abuse, gallstones, or certain medications. The spread of these enzymes can cause widespread inflammation and tissue damage, leading to the characteristic symptoms of acute pancreatitis.

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  • 4. 

    How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?

    • A.

      A. Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance.

    • B.

      B. Erosions in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria.

    • C.

      C. Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop.

    • D.

      D. Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance.
    Explanation
    In acute pancreatitis, inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum can lead to chemical peritonitis and shock. This occurs because the inflammation and increased permeability affect fluid balance in the peritoneum, causing fluid to leak into the peritoneal cavity. This fluid accumulation can lead to peritonitis, which is inflammation of the peritoneum. Additionally, the fluid imbalance can result in decreased blood volume and hypovolemic shock.

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  • 5. 

    Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:

    • A.

      A. damage to the intestinal villi

    • B.

      B. obstruction in the pancreatic ducts

    • C.

      C. acidosis preventing activation of digestive enzymes

    • D.

      D. insufficient bile for absorption

    Correct Answer
    A. A. damage to the intestinal villi
    Explanation
    Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder where the consumption of gluten leads to damage to the intestinal villi. These villi play a crucial role in absorbing nutrients from food. When they are damaged, the absorption of nutrients, including essential vitamins and minerals, is impaired. This can result in malnutrition, as the body is unable to properly absorb and utilize the necessary nutrients for growth and development.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?

    • A.

      A. a light gray-colored stool

    • B.

      B. a tarry black stool

    • C.

      C. bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools

    • D.

      D. watery stools with mucus and blood

    Correct Answer
    C. C. bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools
    Explanation
    Steatorrhea is a condition characterized by bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools. This occurs when there is an excessive amount of fat in the stool, indicating malabsorption or poor digestion of fats. The stool may appear greasy or oily and can be difficult to flush. This condition is often associated with disorders affecting the pancreas, such as pancreatitis or cystic fibrosis, or conditions that affect the absorption of fats in the intestines, such as celiac disease or Crohn's disease.

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  • 7. 

    What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?

    • A.

      A. low sodium, high fat

    • B.

      B. high carbohydrate, low protein

    • C.

      C. high calorie with vitamin supplements

    • D.

      D. gluten-free

    Correct Answer
    D. D. gluten-free
    Explanation
    Children with celiac disease have an autoimmune reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Consuming gluten can damage their small intestine and lead to various symptoms and complications. Therefore, the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease is to follow a gluten-free diet, which means avoiding all foods and products that contain gluten. This includes foods made with wheat, barley, and rye, as well as many processed foods that may contain hidden sources of gluten. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, children with celiac disease can manage their condition and prevent further damage to their intestines.

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  • 8. 

    What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn’s disease?

    • A.

      A. degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine

    • B.

      B. multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis

    • C.

      C. a continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon

    • D.

      D. inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas

    Correct Answer
    D. D. inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
    Explanation
    Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract. The characteristic changes seen in Crohn's disease involve inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum, which is the last part of the small intestine. These inflamed areas can alternate with thick fibrotic or normal areas, leading to a patchy appearance. This pattern of inflammation and fibrosis can cause various symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. The other options mentioned in the question, such as degeneration and flattening of the villi, herniations of the mucosa, or continuous mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon, are not specific to Crohn's disease.

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  • 9. 

    Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus, frank blood, and pus are typical of:

    • A.

      A. diverticulitis

    • B.

      B. ulcerative colitis

    • C.

      C. Crohn’s disease

    • D.

      D. celiac disease

    Correct Answer
    B. B. ulcerative colitis
    Explanation
    Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus, frank blood, and pus are typical of ulcerative colitis. Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the lining of the colon and rectum. The inflammation causes ulcers in the lining of the colon, leading to symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and bloody stools. The presence of mucus, frank blood, and pus in the stools is characteristic of the inflammation and ulceration in ulcerative colitis.

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  • 10. 

    How may a fistula form with Crohn’s disease?

    • A.

      A. lack of peristalsis leading to dilated areas of intestine

    • B.

      B. fibrosis and thickening of the wall causing obstruction

    • C.

      C. erosion of the mucosa causing bleeding

    • D.

      D. recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis forming a connection between intestinal loops

    Correct Answer
    D. D. recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis forming a connection between intestinal loops
    Explanation
    Fistulas can form with Crohn's disease due to the recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis that occurs in the intestinal wall. This can lead to the formation of abnormal connections between different loops of the intestine, resulting in the development of a fistula. Fistulas are abnormal passageways that can connect different organs or loops of the intestine, allowing the passage of fluid or stool between them.

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  • 11. 

    How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?

    • A.

      A. loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum

    • B.

      B. bone marrow depression by toxic wastes

    • C.

      C. chronic blood loss in stools

    • D.

      D. insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption

    Correct Answer
    C. C. chronic blood loss in stools
    Explanation
    Iron-deficiency anemia frequently develops with ulcerative colitis due to chronic blood loss in stools. Ulcerative colitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and ulcers in the colon and rectum. The inflammation can cause bleeding, leading to the loss of blood in the stools. Over time, this chronic blood loss can result in a decrease in the body's iron stores, leading to iron-deficiency anemia. Iron is an essential component of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen to the body's tissues. Therefore, the chronic blood loss in ulcerative colitis can lead to a deficiency of iron, resulting in anemia.

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  • 12. 

    What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?

    • A.

      A. physical and emotional stress

    • B.

      B. an autoimmune reaction

    • C.

      C. a combination of recessive genes

    • D.

      D. idiopathic

    Correct Answer
    D. D. idiopathic
    Explanation
    Inflammatory bowel disease refers to a group of disorders characterized by chronic inflammation of the digestive tract. The term "idiopathic" means that the cause of the disease is unknown. In the case of inflammatory bowel disease, the exact cause is still not fully understood. While physical and emotional stress, autoimmune reactions, and genetic factors may play a role in the development of the disease, none of these factors can be definitively identified as the sole cause. Therefore, the correct answer is idiopathic, indicating that the cause of inflammatory bowel disease is unknown.

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  • 13. 

    What pain is typical of diverticulitis?

    • A.

      A. lower left quadrant

    • B.

      B. lower right quadrant

    • C.

      C. sharp, colicky, periumbilical

    • D.

      D. lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin

    Correct Answer
    A. A. lower left quadrant
    Explanation
    Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by the inflammation or infection of small pouches called diverticula in the colon. The typical pain associated with diverticulitis is located in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen. This pain is often described as a constant, dull ache or cramping sensation. It may also be accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, nausea, changes in bowel habits, and tenderness in the affected area. The pain in the lower left quadrant is a result of the inflammation and infection in the diverticula, which can cause localized discomfort.

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  • 14. 

    What usually initiates acute appendicitis?

    • A.

      A. infection in the appendix

    • B.

      B. an episode of severe diarrhea

    • C.

      C. obstruction of the lumen of the appendix

    • D.

      D. eating a low-fiber diet

    Correct Answer
    C. C. obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
    Explanation
    Acute appendicitis is usually initiated by the obstruction of the lumen of the appendix. When the lumen becomes blocked, it can lead to the accumulation of mucus, bacteria, and stool, causing inflammation and infection in the appendix. This obstruction can occur due to various reasons such as the presence of fecal matter, enlarged lymphoid tissue, or even a tumor. If left untreated, the blocked appendix can lead to increased pressure, compromised blood flow, and eventually, tissue death. Therefore, the obstruction of the lumen is a common trigger for acute appendicitis.

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  • 15. 

    With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:

    • A.

      A. increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon

    • B.

      B. inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal wall

    • C.

      C. increased gas and fluid inside the appendix

    • D.

      D. local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum

    Correct Answer
    D. D. local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum. Acute appendicitis is characterized by inflammation and infection of the appendix. As the inflammation progresses, it can lead to irritation of the parietal peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity. This irritation causes localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant, which is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The other options (a, b, and c) do not accurately explain the cause of the pain and tenderness associated with acute appendicitis.

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  • 16. 

    How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?

    • A.

      The omentum walls off the inflamed area.

    • B.

      Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall.

    • C.

      The obstructing object inside the appendix perforates the wall

    • D.

      Bacteria escape into the circulating blood

    Correct Answer
    B. Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall.
    Explanation
    During acute appendicitis, the appendix becomes inflamed. If left untreated, the inflammation can lead to necrosis, causing the appendiceal wall to become necrotic and weak. As a result, intestinal bacteria can escape through this weakened wall and enter the surrounding tissues, leading to localized peritonitis. This occurs before rupture because once the appendix ruptures, the bacteria can spread more widely throughout the abdomen, causing generalized peritonitis.

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  • 17. 

    What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?

    • A.

      A. change in shape of the stool

    • B.

      B. bleeding with defecation

    • C.

      C. mild but persistent pain in the lower left quadrant

    • D.

      D. occult blood in the stool

    Correct Answer
    D. D. occult blood in the stool
    Explanation
    A typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon is the presence of occult blood in the stool. Occult blood refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye and can only be detected through a laboratory test. This can indicate the presence of a tumor or other abnormality in the colon. It is important to note that occult blood in the stool can also be caused by other conditions, so further diagnostic tests would be needed to confirm the presence of cancer.

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  • 18. 

    To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?

    • A.

      A. lungs

    • B.

      B. stomach

    • C.

      C. liver

    • D.

      D. spleen

    Correct Answer
    C. C. liver
    Explanation
    Colon cancer usually first metastasizes to the liver. This is because the liver receives blood directly from the colon through the portal vein, which allows cancer cells to easily travel and form secondary tumors in the liver. Additionally, the liver provides a favorable environment for the growth and proliferation of colon cancer cells, making it a common site for metastasis in colon cancer patients.

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  • 19. 

    How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?

    • A.

      A. Hypotension and shock causes ischemia.

    • B.

      B. The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine.

    • C.

      C. A section of intestine herniates between the muscles of the abdominal wall.

    • D.

      D. The distention of the intestinal wall causes increased permeability of the tissue.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine.
    Explanation
    When a volvulus occurs, a section of the intestine twists abnormally, causing compression of the mesenteric arteries. The mesenteric arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the intestine. When they are compressed, blood flow to the affected section of the intestine is restricted, leading to ischemia (lack of oxygen and nutrients). This lack of blood flow can eventually result in gangrene, which is the death of tissue due to a lack of blood supply. Therefore, option b is the correct answer as it explains how a volvulus can cause localized gangrene in the intestine.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?

    • A.

      A. excessive audible bowel sounds

    • B.

      B. intermittent colicky pain

    • C.

      C. severe steady abdominal pain

    • D.

      D. visible peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    C. C. severe steady abdominal pain
    Explanation
    Severe steady abdominal pain is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus. Paralytic ileus is a condition where there is a loss of normal bowel function, leading to a buildup of gas and fluids in the intestines. This can cause severe pain in the abdomen as the intestines become distended. The pain is usually constant and does not come and go like colicky pain. Excessive audible bowel sounds and visible peristalsis are more commonly associated with mechanical bowel obstructions, while intermittent colicky pain is seen in conditions like kidney stones or gallbladder issues.

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  • 21. 

    Partial obstruction of the sigmoid colon resulting from diverticular disease would likely:

    • A.

      A. cause severe colicky pain

    • B.

      B. cause frequent diarrhea

    • C.

      C. develop very rapidly

    • D.

      D. result in a small, hard stool

    Correct Answer
    D. D. result in a small, hard stool
    Explanation
    Partial obstruction of the sigmoid colon resulting from diverticular disease would likely result in a small, hard stool. Diverticular disease is characterized by the formation of small pouches or sacs in the colon, known as diverticula. When these diverticula become inflamed or infected, it can lead to partial blockage of the colon. This obstruction can make it difficult for stool to pass through, resulting in a smaller and harder stool. Other symptoms of diverticular disease may include abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but severe colicky pain and frequent diarrhea are less likely to be associated with a partial obstruction.

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  • 22. 

    What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?

    • A.

      A. continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine

    • B.

      B. hemorrhage into the intestine

    • C.

      C. rupture of the intestinal wall

    • D.

      D. repeated bouts of severe diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. A. continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
    Explanation
    Hypovolemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood or fluid volume in the body. In the case of intestinal obstruction, continued vomiting can lead to a loss of fluids from the body. Additionally, when there is an obstruction in the intestines, fluid can shift into the intestine causing further depletion of fluid volume in the body. Therefore, continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine can cause hypovolemic shock to develop in cases of intestinal obstruction.

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  • 23. 

    What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?

    • A.

      A. increased fluid and gas causing abdominal distention

    • B.

      B. inflammation of the peritoneum and organs causing a firm mass in the abdomen

    • C.

      C. inflamed peritoneum resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm

    • D.

      D. the patient voluntarily contracts the abdominal muscles as a protective mechanism

    Correct Answer
    C. C. inflamed peritoneum resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm
    Explanation
    The characteristic rigid abdomen found in a patient with peritonitis is caused by inflamed peritoneum resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm. When the peritoneum becomes inflamed, it irritates the abdominal muscles, causing them to contract involuntarily in an attempt to protect the area. This reflex spasm leads to the rigidity and firmness of the abdomen. Increased fluid and gas can cause abdominal distention, but they do not specifically cause the characteristic rigidity seen in peritonitis. Inflammation of the peritoneum and organs may cause a firm mass, but it does not explain the rigid abdomen. Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles is not a mechanism involved in peritonitis.

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  • 24. 

    What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gall bladder?

    • A.

      A. leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal cavity

    • B.

      B. massive hemorrhage and shock

    • C.

      C. breakdown of the gallstones

    • D.

      D. increasing peristalsis with intermittent painful spasms

    Correct Answer
    A. A. leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal cavity
    Explanation
    Chemical peritonitis refers to inflammation of the peritoneum, which is the lining of the abdominal cavity. A perforated gall bladder can lead to chemical peritonitis because the bile and bacteria from the gall bladder can leak into the peritoneal cavity. This can result in the leakage of intestinal bacteria into the blood and the peritoneal cavity. This can lead to infection and inflammation in the abdominal cavity, causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count.

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  • 25. 

    How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?

    • A.

      A. Chemical irritation by excessive ovarian and uterine secretions causes inflammation.

    • B.

      B. Ulceration and perforation of the uterus allows the bacteria to spread.

    • C.

      C. Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.

    • D.

      D. Gangrene in the uterine wall spreads through into the pelvic cavity.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.
    Explanation
    Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhea. If left untreated, the infection can spread from the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity, which is the space surrounding the abdominal organs. This can lead to bacterial peritonitis, which is inflammation and infection of the peritoneum. Therefore, option c is the correct answer as it explains how PID frequently leads to bacterial peritonitis.

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  • 26. 

    Choose the significant change in arterial blood gases expected with prolonged severe vomiting:

    • A.

      A. increased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.4

    • B.

      B. decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35

    • C.

      C. increased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35

    • D.

      D. decreased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.45

    Correct Answer
    B. B. decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35
    Explanation
    Prolonged severe vomiting leads to a loss of stomach acid, resulting in metabolic alkalosis. This causes a decrease in bicarbonate ion levels. Additionally, the loss of stomach acid leads to a decrease in the production of carbon dioxide, resulting in a decrease in PCO2 levels. The decrease in bicarbonate ion and PCO2 levels causes a decrease in serum pH, resulting in acidemia. Therefore, the expected changes in arterial blood gases with prolonged severe vomiting are decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, and serum pH 7.35.

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  • 27. 

    When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?

    • A.

      Serum pH would rise above 7.45

    • B.

      B. serum bicarbonate levels would increase, serum pH would remain in normal range

    • C.

      C. serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, serum pH would drop below 7.35

    • D.

      D. serum PCO2 would rise, serum pH would be around 7.4

    Correct Answer
    C. C. serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, serum pH would drop below 7.35
    Explanation
    Dehydration reduces the compensation for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea. In this scenario, the significant change in arterial blood gases that indicates this is a decrease in serum bicarbonate levels. As dehydration limits the body's ability to buffer acid, bicarbonate levels decrease, leading to a drop in serum pH below the normal range of 7.35. This indicates that the body is unable to effectively compensate for the acidosis caused by prolonged diarrhea.

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  • 28. 

    How do body defenses respond immediately after the gall bladder ruptures?

    • A.

      A. A localized inflammatory response occurs.

    • B.

      B. The omentum and peritoneum seal off the area.

    • C.

      C. Blood clots seal the perforation.

    • D.

      D. a and b

    • E.

      E. a and c

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Blood clots seal the perforation.
    Explanation
    After the gall bladder ruptures, blood clots are formed to seal the perforation. This is an immediate response by the body's defenses to prevent further leakage of bile and other substances into the surrounding area. The formation of blood clots helps to stop the bleeding and seal off the perforation, reducing the risk of infection and further complications.

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  • 29. 

    Dehydration limits compensation available for an acid-base imbalance resulting from prolonged vomiting and diarrhea because:

    • A.

      A. hypovolemia limits renal function

    • B.

      B. increased respirations cannot remove more H+

    • C.

      C. increased ADH blocks secretion of H+

    • D.

      D. more sodium and potassium ions are retained

    Correct Answer
    A. A. hypovolemia limits renal function
    Explanation
    Dehydration limits compensation available for an acid-base imbalance resulting from prolonged vomiting and diarrhea because hypovolemia limits renal function. When the body is dehydrated, there is a decrease in blood volume, which leads to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. This reduction in renal function impairs the kidneys' ability to regulate acid-base balance by excreting excess acid or retaining bicarbonate ions. As a result, the acid-base imbalance caused by vomiting and diarrhea cannot be effectively corrected due to the limited renal function caused by hypovolemia.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?

    • A.

      A. lower esophagus

    • B.

      B. antrum of the stomach

    • C.

      C. proximal duodenum

    • D.

      D. distal duodenum

    Correct Answer
    C. C. proximal duodenum
    Explanation
    Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the proximal duodenum, which is the beginning of the small intestine. The acidic digestive juices in the stomach can damage the lining of the duodenum, leading to the formation of ulcers. The proximity of the duodenum to the stomach makes it more susceptible to the effects of these digestive juices. Additionally, the presence of certain bacteria, such as Helicobacter pylori, can also contribute to the development of peptic ulcers in the duodenum.

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  • 31. 

    In peptic ulcer disease, which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?

    • A.

      A. prolonged vasoconstriction

    • B.

      B. excessive glucocorticoid intake

    • C.

      C. proteases and cytotoxins from H. pylori

    • D.

      D. decreased vagal stimulation

    Correct Answer
    D. D. decreased vagal stimulation
    Explanation
    Decreased vagal stimulation does not decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier in peptic ulcer disease. Vagal stimulation actually increases the production of gastric acid and can contribute to the development of peptic ulcers. Prolonged vasoconstriction, excessive glucocorticoid intake, and proteases and cytotoxins from H. pylori are all factors that can decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier and contribute to the development of peptic ulcers.

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  • 32. 

    An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?

    • A.

      A. perforation

    • B.

      B. obstruction

    • C.

      C. erosion of a large blood vessel

    • D.

      D. development of malignancy

    Correct Answer
    C. C. erosion of a large blood vessel
    Explanation
    The presence of hematemesis, or vomiting of blood, in an individual with peptic ulcer disease suggests that there has been erosion of a large blood vessel. This is because the ulcer has caused damage to the blood vessel, leading to bleeding and subsequent vomiting of blood. Perforation, obstruction, and development of malignancy may also be complications of peptic ulcer disease, but they would not directly cause hematemesis.

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  • 33. 

    What does the term melena mean?

    • A.

      A. blood in a dark-colored stool

    • B.

      B. occult blood in the stool

    • C.

      C. blood in the sputum

    • D.

      D. blood in vomitus

    Correct Answer
    A. A. blood in a dark-colored stool
    Explanation
    Melena refers to the presence of blood in a dark-colored stool. This can indicate bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as the stomach or small intestine. The dark color of the stool occurs because the blood has been partially digested by stomach acid. Melena is an important symptom to recognize as it can be a sign of a serious underlying condition, such as a bleeding ulcer or gastrointestinal bleeding. Prompt medical attention should be sought if melena is present.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?

    • A.

      A. ingestion of smoked foods

    • B.

      B. genetic factors

    • C.

      C. ingestion of foods preserved with nitrates

    • D.

      D. anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA

    Correct Answer
    D. D. anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA
    Explanation
    Anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA are not a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma. Gastric carcinoma is often associated with factors such as ingestion of smoked foods, genetic factors, and ingestion of foods preserved with nitrates. However, the use of anti-inflammatory medications like ASA is not typically considered a risk factor for developing gastric carcinoma.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following frequently occurs 2-3 hours after meals in post-gastrectomy patients?

    • A.

      A. hypoglycemia

    • B.

      B. hypovolemia

    • C.

      C. abdominal cramps and distention

    • D.

      D. increased peristalsis and diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. A. hypoglycemia
    Explanation
    Post-gastrectomy patients frequently experience hypoglycemia 2-3 hours after meals. This is because the removal of the stomach reduces the production of the hormone gastrin, which is responsible for stimulating the release of insulin. Without sufficient insulin, blood sugar levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include weakness, dizziness, sweating, and confusion. Prompt treatment with glucose or a sugary snack is necessary to raise blood sugar levels and prevent further complications.

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  • 36. 

    Which term refers to obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones?

    • A.

      A. cholelithiasis

    • B.

      B. cholecystitis

    • C.

      C. cholangitis

    • D.

      D. choledocholithiasis

    Correct Answer
    D. D. choledocholithiasis
    Explanation
    Choledocholithiasis refers to the obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones. The term specifically refers to the presence of gallstones in the common bile duct, which is the tube that carries bile from the liver to the small intestine. This condition can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and digestive issues. Treatment usually involves the removal of the gallstones, either through medication or surgery, to relieve the obstruction and prevent further complications.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?

    • A.

      A. hepatomegaly

    • B.

      B. elevated serum liver enzymes

    • C.

      C. esophageal varices

    • D.

      D. lighter-colored stools

    Correct Answer
    C. C. esophageal varices
    Explanation
    During the icteric stage of viral hepatitis, hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), elevated serum liver enzymes, and lighter-colored stools are commonly present. However, esophageal varices are not typically associated with this stage of the disease. Esophageal varices are enlarged veins in the lower part of the esophagus that can occur in advanced liver disease, such as cirrhosis, but are not specific to viral hepatitis.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements about jaundice is/are true? 1. It is often the first manifestation of hepatitis. 2. Jaundice indicates permanent liver damage. 3. Individuals with hepatitis are always jaundiced. 4. Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • A.

      A. 1 only

    • B.

      B. 4 only

    • C.

      C. 1, 3

    • D.

      D. 2, 4

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 4 only
    Explanation
    Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma. This statement suggests that jaundice is often associated with liver cancer. It does not indicate permanent liver damage or that all individuals with hepatitis are jaundiced. It is not stated that jaundice is the first manifestation of hepatitis, so statement 1 is not necessarily true. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 4 only.

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  • 39. 

    Which type(s) of hepatitis increase(s) the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?

    • A.

      A. HBV

    • B.

      B. HCV

    • C.

      C. HBV and HCV

    • D.

      D. neither HBV nor HCV

    Correct Answer
    C. C. HBV and HCV
    Explanation
    Both HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) and HCV (Hepatitis C Virus) increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. This is because chronic infection with these viruses can lead to inflammation and damage to the liver, which can eventually progress to liver cancer. Hepatocellular carcinoma is one of the most common types of liver cancer, and individuals with chronic HBV or HCV infection are at a higher risk of developing this cancer compared to those without these infections.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following are related to post-hepatic jaundice?

    • A.

      A. pruritic skin and light-colored stools

    • B.

      B. dark-colored stools and urine

    • C.

      C. increased serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin

    • D.

      D. loss of all metabolic functions

    Correct Answer
    A. A. pruritic skin and light-colored stools
    Explanation
    Post-hepatic jaundice is a condition that occurs when there is a blockage in the bile ducts, preventing the flow of bile from the liver to the intestines. This can result in the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Pruritic skin, or itchy skin, is a common symptom of post-hepatic jaundice due to the buildup of bilirubin in the body. Additionally, light-colored stools can occur because the bile, which gives stools their normal brown color, is not able to reach the intestines. Dark-colored stools and urine are more commonly associated with pre-hepatic or hepatic jaundice. Increased serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin are seen in pre-hepatic and hepatic jaundice, not specifically post-hepatic jaundice. Loss of all metabolic functions is not directly related to post-hepatic jaundice.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?

    • A.

      A. The liver is inflamed and enlarged.

    • B.

      B. Blood clotting delays are apparent at onset.

    • C.

      C. Hepatocytes can not regenerate when virus is present.

    • D.

      D. Infection is self-limiting.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The liver is inflamed and enlarged.
    Explanation
    Hepatitis B is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver. One of the main symptoms of hepatitis B is inflammation and enlargement of the liver. This occurs due to the immune response triggered by the virus, which causes damage to the liver cells. The inflammation and enlargement of the liver can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and fatigue. It is important to note that while the liver can regenerate, in some cases, chronic hepatitis B infection can lead to liver damage and scarring, which may impair the liver's ability to regenerate.

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  • 42. 

    Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.

    • A.

      A. A vaccine is not available.

    • B.

      B. The incubation period is too short to track contacts.

    • C.

      C. Infection is often asymptomatic.

    • D.

      D. Antibodies are not produced.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Infection is often asymptomatic.
    Explanation
    Infection with hepatitis B often does not show any symptoms, which makes it difficult to identify and prevent its spread. Asymptomatic individuals may not be aware that they are infected and can unknowingly transmit the virus to others. This lack of symptoms also makes it challenging to diagnose and treat hepatitis B at an early stage, leading to a higher risk of complications and further spread of the disease.

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  • 43. 

    What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?

    • A.

      A. formation of nodules with shrinkage of the liver

    • B.

      B. inflammation with necrosis

    • C.

      C. development of fibrous bands of tissue

    • D.

      D. accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly

    Correct Answer
    D. D. accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly
    Explanation
    The initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease is the accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly. This refers to the build-up of fat within liver cells, which can lead to enlargement of the liver. This is a common early sign of alcoholic liver disease and can progress to more severe forms of liver damage if not addressed.

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  • 44. 

    How does serum bilirubin change with cirrhosis?

    • A.

      A. increased unconjugated bilirubin

    • B.

      B. increased conjugated bilirubin

    • C.

      C. increased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin

    • D.

      D. decreased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin

    Correct Answer
    C. C. increased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
    Explanation
    In cirrhosis, there is damage to the liver which impairs its ability to process bilirubin. As a result, both unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin levels increase in the bloodstream. Unconjugated bilirubin is the indirect form of bilirubin that is not yet processed by the liver, while conjugated bilirubin is the direct form that has been processed by the liver. Therefore, in cirrhosis, both forms of bilirubin accumulate in the blood, leading to increased levels of both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin.

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  • 45. 

    Which type of hepatitis virus requires the presence of hepatitis B virus so as to replicate?

    • A.

      A. HAV

    • B.

      B. HCV

    • C.

      C. HDV

    • D.

      D. HEV

    Correct Answer
    C. C. HDV
    Explanation
    HDV, also known as hepatitis D virus, requires the presence of hepatitis B virus (HBV) in order to replicate. HDV is a defective virus that cannot replicate on its own, but it can co-infect individuals already infected with HBV. HDV is considered the most severe form of viral hepatitis, as it can lead to more severe liver disease and a higher risk of liver failure.

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  • 46. 

    Deficiencies of vitamins A, D, and K occur in patients with cirrhosis primarily because of decreased?

    • A.

      A. liver metabolism

    • B.

      B. production of bile for absorption

    • C.

      C. pancreatic secretions in the intestine

    • D.

      D. storage of all vitamins

    Correct Answer
    B. B. production of bile for absorption
    Explanation
    Deficiencies of vitamins A, D, and K occur in patients with cirrhosis primarily because of decreased production of bile for absorption. The liver plays a crucial role in the production of bile, which is necessary for the absorption of these vitamins. In cirrhosis, the liver becomes damaged and its ability to produce bile is impaired. As a result, the absorption of vitamins A, D, and K is compromised, leading to deficiencies in these vitamins.

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  • 47. 

    Tetany may develop in patients with acute pancreatitis because:

    • A.

      A. digestion and absorption of calcium is impaired

    • B.

      B. hemorrhage and fluid shift displace calcium from the blood

    • C.

      C. calcium ions are used up in blood coagulation process

    • D.

      D. calcium ions bind with fatty acids in necrotic tissue

    Correct Answer
    D. D. calcium ions bind with fatty acids in necrotic tissue
    Explanation
    In acute pancreatitis, there is necrotic tissue present in the pancreas. This necrotic tissue contains fatty acids. Calcium ions have a tendency to bind with these fatty acids, leading to a decrease in the amount of free calcium ions available in the blood. This decrease in free calcium ions can result in the development of tetany in patients with acute pancreatitis.

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  • 48. 

    Which factors appear to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?

    • A.

      A. dietary factors

    • B.

      B. environmental toxins

    • C.

      C. genetic and immunologic factors

    • D.

      D. chronic alcoholism

    • E.

      D. chronic alcoholism

    Correct Answer
    C. C. genetic and immunologic factors
    Explanation
    Genetic and immunologic factors appear to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases. This suggests that certain genes and immune system abnormalities may contribute to the development of these diseases. It is important to note that while dietary factors and environmental toxins may also play a role, the question specifically asks for the factors that "appear" to have a role, indicating that genetic and immunologic factors are the most significant in this context. Chronic alcoholism, on the other hand, is not mentioned as a factor in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases.

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  • 49. 

    In which condition is a deficit of protein and vitamins most likely to occur?

    • A.

      A. regional ileitis

    • B.

      B. ulcerative colitis

    • C.

      C. diverticulitis

    • D.

      D. appendicitis

    Correct Answer
    A. A. regional ileitis
    Explanation
    Regional ileitis, also known as Crohn's disease, is a chronic inflammatory condition that primarily affects the intestines. This condition can lead to malabsorption of nutrients, including protein and vitamins, due to inflammation and damage to the intestinal lining. As a result, a deficit of protein and vitamins is most likely to occur in individuals with regional ileitis. Ulcerative colitis, diverticulitis, and appendicitis do not typically cause malabsorption or deficits of protein and vitamins.

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  • 50. 

    When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:

    • A.

      A. dysphagia

    • B.

      B. rolling hernia

    • C.

      C. sliding hernia

    • D.

      D. pyloric stenosis

    Correct Answer
    C. C. sliding hernia
    Explanation
    When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, it is called a sliding hernia. This occurs when the upper part of the stomach and the junction between the esophagus and stomach slide up into the chest through the diaphragm opening. This can cause symptoms such as heartburn, regurgitation, and difficulty swallowing. It is different from a rolling hernia, which involves a part of the stomach rolling up next to the esophagus. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, and pyloric stenosis is a condition where the opening between the stomach and small intestine becomes narrow.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 28, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    1student1
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