QSquare Contest - I - 10/30 | Attempts: 80

2.

Who is responsible to document all the issues, problems and open points, that were identified during the review meeting

Scribe
Moderator
Reviewers
Author

Correct Answer

A. Scribe

Explanation

The scribe is responsible for documenting all the issues, problems, and open points that were identified during the review meeting. This role involves taking detailed notes and accurately recording the discussions and decisions made during the meeting. The scribe plays a crucial role in ensuring that all important information is captured and documented for future reference and action.

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1

3.

Technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

Boundary value analysis
Equivalence partitioning
Decision table testing
State transition testing

Correct Answer

A. Equivalence partitioning

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning is a technique that can be used to achieve input and output coverage. It involves dividing the input data into groups or partitions that are expected to have similar behavior or produce similar output. By selecting representative values from each partition, we can ensure that the test cases cover all possible scenarios within that partition. This technique helps to reduce the number of test cases needed while still providing adequate coverage.

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4.

Which is not the project risks

Supplier issues
Organization factors
Technical issues
Error-prone software delivered

Correct Answer

A. Error-prone software delivered

Explanation

Error-prone software delivered is not a project risk because it is an outcome or consequence of project risks such as technical issues or supplier issues. Project risks refer to potential events or circumstances that may have a negative impact on the project's objectives, timeline, or budget. Error-prone software delivered is a result of these risks, rather than being a risk itself.

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5.

Which is not a testing principle

Early testing
Defect clustering
Exhaustive testing
Pesticide paradox

Correct Answer

A. Exhaustive testing

Explanation

Exhaustive testing is not a testing principle because it is practically impossible to test every possible combination and permutation of inputs and conditions. It would require an enormous amount of time, resources, and effort, making it impractical and inefficient. Instead, testing is focused on identifying and prioritizing the most critical and high-risk areas to achieve maximum test coverage within the available constraints. Therefore, exhaustive testing is not a feasible approach in software testing.

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6.

Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

Test Implementation and execution
Test Analysis and Design
Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
Test Closure Activities

Correct Answer

A. Test Analysis and Design

Explanation

Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of the Test Analysis and Design phase. This phase involves analyzing the test basis, such as requirements and design documents, to identify what needs to be tested and designing the test cases and test data. It also includes designing the test environment, which includes setting up the necessary infrastructure and tools needed for testing. This phase is crucial for ensuring that the testing process is well-planned and can be executed effectively.

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7.

Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.iv. Determining the exit criteria.

I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
i,,iv are true and ii is false
I,ii are true and iii,iv are false
Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Correct Answer

A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

Explanation

The correct answer is i, ii, iii are true and iv is false. This is because the major tasks of test implementation and execution include developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures, and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts (i). It also involves creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution (ii) and verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly (iii). However, determining the exit criteria is not a major task of test implementation and execution (iv).

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8.

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-i. Test Itemsii. Test Scriptsiii. Test Deliverablesiv. Responsibilities

I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
I,iii,iv are true and ii is false
Ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
I,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Correct Answer

A. I,iii,iv are true and ii is false

Explanation

A Test Plan Outline typically includes the following components: Test Items, Test Deliverables, and Responsibilities. Test Items refer to the specific components or features of the system that will be tested. Test Deliverables are the expected outcomes or documents that will be produced during the testing process. Responsibilities outline the roles and responsibilities of the individuals involved in the testing activities. On the other hand, Test Scripts are not typically included in a Test Plan Outline as they are separate documents that contain the specific steps and instructions for executing a test case. Therefore, the correct answer is "i,iii,iv are true and ii is false".

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9.

One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class

17
19
24
21

Correct Answer

A. 17

Explanation

The given question states that the text box on the form accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Therefore, any value outside this range would be considered invalid. In this case, 17 is outside the specified range of 18 to 25, making it the invalid equivalence class.

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10.

In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

22,23,26
21,39,40
29,30,31
0,15,22

Correct Answer

A. 29,30,31

Explanation

The valid equivalence values if the student clears the exam are 29, 30, and 31. This is because the candidate needs to score a minimum of 24 marks to clear the exam, and the maximum score possible is 40 marks. Therefore, any score between 24 and 40 (inclusive) would be considered passing. Among the given options, only 29, 30, and 31 fall within this range, making them the valid equivalence values.

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Qsquare Contest - I - 10/30

Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations

Quiz Preview

Who is responsible to document all the issues, problems and open points, that were identified during the review meeting

Technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

Which is not the project risks

Which is not a testing principle

Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-i. Test Itemsii. Test Scriptsiii. Test Deliverablesiv. Responsibilities

One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class

In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.