Company Part 40 A-e Pre-quiz

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Company Part 40 A-e Pre-quiz - Quiz



Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An employer who receives a DOT alcohol test of .02-.039 you must (under part 40 regulations):

    • A.

      Speak with the employee to find out when they last had a drink

    • B.

      Remove the employee from ssf for the required DOT agency regulations

    • C.

      Send the employee to see a counselor, even though it is not a positive

    • D.

      Follow the guidelines in their company DFW policy

    Correct Answer
    B. Remove the employee from ssf for the required DOT agency regulations
    Explanation
    According to the given information, if an employer receives a DOT alcohol test result between .02 and .039, they must remove the employee from safety-sensitive functions (ssf) as per the regulations set by the DOT agency. This means that the employee should be temporarily taken off duty until further actions are taken based on the agency's regulations.

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  • 2. 

    What does STT stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Screening Test Technician
  • 3. 

     A verified adulterated or substituted test is considered a refusal.   true or false?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A verified adulterated or substituted test is considered a refusal because it indicates that the individual has tampered with the test sample in some way, which is a violation of testing protocols. Adulteration or substitution of a test sample can undermine the accuracy and reliability of the results, and therefore, it is treated as a refusal to comply with the testing process.

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  • 4. 

    How often does a collector need to complete Refresher Training?

    • A.

      Every 2 years

    • B.

      Any time they have a cancelled test

    • C.

      Every 5 years

    • D.

      Both B and C

    Correct Answer
    C. Every 5 years
    Explanation
    A collector needs to complete Refresher Training every 5 years. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest information and skills required for their job. Completing Refresher Training regularly helps collectors maintain their competence and professionalism in their field. It is important for collectors to refresh their knowledge and skills to ensure accurate and reliable results in their testing procedures.

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  • 5. 

    When is a directly observed collection required? Check all that apply.

    • A.

      Temp out of range (DOT and DFW)

    • B.

      For a return to duty test (DOT)

    • C.

      For a follow up test (DOT)

    • D.

      For a stipulated test (DFW)

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. For a return to duty test (DOT)
    C. For a follow up test (DOT)
    Explanation
    A directly observed collection is required for a return to duty test (DOT) and for a follow-up test (DOT) because these tests are conducted to ensure that an individual who has previously tested positive for drugs or alcohol is now free of these substances and can safely return to their duties. Direct observation is necessary in these cases to prevent tampering or substitution of the specimen and to ensure the accuracy and integrity of the test results.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is NOT a situation that requires a collection under direct observation?

    • A.

      There was a specimen that was reported by the lab to the MRO as Negative-Dilute with a specific gravity level of 1.0020 and a creatinine level of 18mg/dL

    • B.

      The split specimen was tested by request of the donor after the primary specimen had come back adulterated and the result was still adulterated, but not matching the criteria of the primary specimen

    • C.

      C. The donor requested his “B” sample to be tested after the “A” sample was verified as substituted, but it was not available because the laboratory had inadvertently disposed of the specimen

    • D.

      The collector found a known adulterant in the pockets of the donor

    Correct Answer
    A. There was a specimen that was reported by the lab to the MRO as Negative-Dilute with a specific gravity level of 1.0020 and a creatinine level of 18mg/dL
    Explanation
    This situation does not require a collection under direct observation because it does not involve any indication of tampering or adulteration of the specimen. The reported negative-dilute result with specific gravity and creatinine levels falls within the normal range and does not raise any suspicion of tampering.

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  • 7. 

    An invalid specimen is one in which:

    • A.

      A urine specimen with creatinine and specific gravity values that are so diminished or so divergent that they are not consistent with normal human urine.

    • B.

      The employee has not been able to provide a sufficient amount

    • C.

      Contains an unidentified adulterant or an unidentified interfering substance, has abnormal physical characteristics, or has an endogenous substance at an abnormal concentration that prevents the laboratory from completing or obtaining a valid drug test result

    Correct Answer
    C. Contains an unidentified adulterant or an unidentified interfering substance, has abnormal physical characteristics, or has an endogenous substance at an abnormal concentration that prevents the laboratory from completing or obtaining a valid drug test result
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that an invalid specimen contains an unidentified adulterant or an unidentified interfering substance, has abnormal physical characteristics, or has an endogenous substance at an abnormal concentration that prevents the laboratory from completing or obtaining a valid drug test result. This means that the urine sample has been tampered with or contains substances that interfere with the accurate testing of drugs. It could also have physical characteristics that make it unusable for testing, such as being too diluted or contaminated. Additionally, if the sample contains an abnormal concentration of a substance that naturally occurs in the body, it may affect the accuracy of the drug test.

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  • 8. 

    A collector has 60 days to complete Error Correction Training from the date they are notified of the error. true or false?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    False. The statement is incorrect because it states that a collector has 60 days to complete Error Correction Training from the date they are notified of the error. However, the given statement does not specify the actual time frame for completing the training, so it cannot be determined whether it is true or false.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following are items that the collector must do to deter tampering with a specimen? Which answer best applies.

    • A.

      Blue toilet, have supervisor check bathroom, secure water

    • B.

      Secure water, blue toilet, remove soap and cleaning products

    • C.

      Remove soap and cleaning products, inspect site for unauthorized substances, ask donor if they have adulterants

    • D.

      Contact DER to ensure donor has been searched, ensure undetected access is not possible, blue toilet

    Correct Answer
    B. Secure water, blue toilet, remove soap and cleaning products
    Explanation
    To deter tampering with a specimen, the collector must secure water to prevent dilution or substitution, use a blue toilet to detect any tampering attempts, and remove soap and cleaning products that could be used to adulterate the specimen.

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  • 10. 

    What are the 5 error free mock collections that a collector must complete to be certified for DOT collections?

    • A.

      2 uneventful, 2 shy bladder, 1 temperature out of range,

    • B.

      2 uneventful, 2 temperature out of range, 1 shy bladder

    • C.

      4 uneventful, 1 shy bladder,

    • D.

      2 uneventful, 1 shy bladder, 1 temperature out of range, 1 donor refuses to sign copy 2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2 uneventful, 1 shy bladder, 1 temperature out of range, 1 donor refuses to sign copy 2
  • 11. 

    What does EBT stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Evidential Breath Testing Device
    Explanation
    EBT stands for Evidential Breath Testing Device. This device is used to measure the alcohol content in a person's breath, providing evidence for breath alcohol testing. It is commonly used by law enforcement agencies to determine if a person is driving under the influence of alcohol. The EBT is designed to provide accurate and reliable results, making it a crucial tool in enforcing drunk driving laws and ensuring public safety on the roads.

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  • 12. 

    What does HHS stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Department of Health and Human Services
    The Department of Health and Human Services
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Department of Health and Human Services" or "The Department of Health and Human Services." HHS is an acronym for the government agency responsible for protecting the health of all Americans and providing essential human services. It oversees various programs and initiatives related to healthcare, public health, social services, and welfare.

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  • 13. 

    Best practice - As the immediate supervisor of an employee being tested, you may not act as the collector when the employee is tested.  true or false?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    It is best practice for the immediate supervisor of an employee being tested to not act as the collector during the employee's drug test. This is to ensure impartiality and prevent any potential conflicts of interest. By having someone else act as the collector, the integrity of the testing process is maintained and the results can be trusted. Therefore, the statement "As the immediate supervisor of an employee being tested, you may not act as the collector when the employee is tested" is true.

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  • 14. 

    What does SAP stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Substance Abuse Professional
  • 15. 

    Someone who conducts a collectors mocks must be a collector themselves for at least 6 months and have regularly conducted collections.   true or false?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The correct answer is False. This is because the statement states that someone who conducts collector's mocks must be a collector themselves for at least 6 months and have regularly conducted collections. However, there is no requirement for someone conducting collector's mocks to be a collector themselves or to have regularly conducted collections. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 16. 

    What does CCF stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Custody and Control Form
    Explanation
    CCF stands for Custody and Control Form. This form is used to document the collection and handling of a specimen for drug testing purposes. It includes important information such as the donor's identification, the type of specimen collected, and the chain of custody details. The CCF ensures the integrity and accountability of the specimen throughout the testing process, from collection to analysis.

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  • 17. 

    What does C/TPA stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Consortium/Third Party Administrator
    Explanation
    C/TPA stands for Consortium/Third Party Administrator. A Consortium/Third Party Administrator refers to an organization that manages and administers certain services on behalf of multiple entities or parties. In this context, the C/TPA would be responsible for overseeing and coordinating activities related to a consortium or group, as well as acting as a third party administrator for various administrative tasks and services.

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  • 18. 

    What does ODAPC stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance
    The Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance" or "The Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance". Both options are correct because they refer to the same entity, which is responsible for establishing and enforcing drug and alcohol testing policies and regulations in various industries.

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  • 19. 

    When hiring a driver, per part 40, how far back do you need to check in regards to their employment history?

    • A.

      4 years

    • B.

      2 years

    • C.

      3 years

    • D.

      Depends on the timeframe the company requests

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 years
    Explanation
    Per part 40, when hiring a driver, it is required to check their employment history for a period of 2 years. This means that the company needs to verify the driver's previous employment details for the past 2 years to ensure their suitability for the position.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 10, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 21, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    RJSSL
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