ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 1

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ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 1 - Quiz

Quiz based on:
http://istqbquestionbank. Blogspot. Ca/2012/01/istqb-foundation-sample-qu estion-paper. Html


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :   i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk ii. Project constraints such as time and budget iii. Size of Testing Team iv. Size of the Development Team

    • A.

      I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • B.

      I,iv are true and ii is false

    • C.

      I,ii are true and iii,iv are false

    • D.

      Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

    Correct Answer
    C. I,ii are true and iii,iv are false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i,ii are true and iii,iv are false. This is because when deciding how much testing is enough, it is important to consider the level of risk, including technical and business product and project risk. Additionally, project constraints such as time and budget should also be taken into account. However, the size of the testing team and the size of the development team do not necessarily play a role in determining how much testing is enough.

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  • 2. 

    Test planning has which of the following major tasks?   i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria.

    • A.

      I,ii,iv are true and iii is false

    • B.

      I,iv are true and ii is false

    • C.

      I,ii are true and iii,iv are false

    • D.

      Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

    Correct Answer
    A. I,ii,iv are true and iii is false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i,ii,iv are true and iii is false. Test planning involves determining the scope and risks, identifying the objectives of testing, determining the test approach, reviewing the Test Basis, and determining the exit criteria. Option iii is false because reviewing the Test Basis is a major task in test planning.

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  • 3. 

    Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:

    • A.

      Test Analysis and Design

    • B.

      Test Planning and control

    • C.

      Test Implementation and execution

    • D.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Test Analysis and Design
    Explanation
    Test Analysis and Design is the phase where the testability of the requirements and system is evaluated. This phase involves analyzing the requirements, identifying test conditions and designing test cases. By evaluating the testability, the testers can determine if the requirements are clear and measurable, and if the system can be tested effectively. This helps in identifying any gaps or ambiguities in the requirements and ensures that the system is testable before moving on to the next phases of testing.

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  • 4. 

    One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalence class value.

    • A.

      CLASS

    • B.

      CLASS

    • C.

      CLass

    • D.

      CLa01ss

    Correct Answer
    D. CLa01ss
    Explanation
    The given question asks to identify the invalid equivalence class value for a text box that accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. The options provided are "CLASS," "cLASS," "CLass," and "CLa01ss." All of these options contain a combination of upper and lower case alphabets, which is valid according to the given criteria. However, "CLa01ss" also includes numeric characters, which is not allowed according to the given criteria. Therefore, "CLa01ss" is the invalid equivalence class value.

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  • 5. 

    In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:   An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

    • A.

      £4800; £14000; £28000

    • B.

      £5200; £5500; £28000

    • C.

      £28001; £32000; £35000

    • D.

      £5800; £28000; £32000

    Correct Answer
    D. £5800; £28000; £32000
    Explanation
    The given groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class because they all have the same tax rates applied to them based on the given tax system. The first group has a salary of £5800, which falls within the range of the first tax rate (10%). The second and third groups have salaries of £28000 and £32000, respectively, which fall within the range of the second tax rate (22%). Therefore, all three groups would be subject to the same tax calculations and can be considered equivalent in terms of tax payment.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are:

    • A.

      Designed by persons who write the software under test

    • B.

      Designed by a person from a different section

    • C.

      Designed by a person from a different organization

    • D.

      Designed by another person

    Correct Answer
    C. Designed by a person from a different organization
    Explanation
    Test cases that are designed by a person from a different organization have the highest level of independence. This is because individuals from different organizations may have different perspectives, experiences, and biases, leading to a more diverse and unbiased set of test cases. They are not influenced by the internal workings, knowledge, or assumptions of the organization that developed the software under test, making their test cases more objective and potentially uncovering issues that may have been overlooked by the internal team.

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  • 7. 

    We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing:

    • A.

      User Acceptance Test Cases

    • B.

      Integration Level Test Cases

    • C.

      Unit Level Test Cases

    • D.

      Program specifications

    Correct Answer
    A. User Acceptance Test Cases
    Explanation
    The output of the requirement analysis and specification is used as input for writing User Acceptance Test Cases. User Acceptance Test Cases are designed to ensure that the system meets the user's requirements and expectations. By using the output of the requirement analysis, the User Acceptance Test Cases can be tailored to the specific needs and goals of the user. This helps in validating that the system functions as intended and meets the user's needs before it is deployed.

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  • 8. 

    Validation involves which of the following   i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

    • A.

      I,ii,iii,iv are true

    • B.

      Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

    • C.

      I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • D.

      Iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

    Correct Answer
    B. Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
    Explanation
    Validation involves checking that we have built the right product, which is stated in option ii. Option i, iii, and iv are false because validation does not directly involve checking the quality of the built product, developing the product, or monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

    • A.

      Component testing

    • B.

      Non-functional system testing

    • C.

      User acceptance testing

    • D.

      Maintenance testing

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance testing
    Explanation
    Maintenance testing uses Impact Analysis most because it involves making changes to an existing system or software to fix defects, enhance functionalities, or adapt to new requirements. Impact Analysis is the process of identifying the potential effects and consequences of these changes on the system as a whole. It helps in understanding the areas of the system that may be affected, determining the scope of testing required, and prioritizing the test cases. Therefore, maintenance testing relies heavily on Impact Analysis to ensure that the changes made do not introduce new defects or disrupt the existing functionality.

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  • 10. 

    What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?     A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

    • A.

      A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

    • B.

      A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.

    • C.

      A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.

    • D.

      A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

    Correct Answer
    D. A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
    Explanation
    The expected result for test case A is to offer an upgrade to Gold because the person is a Citibank card member and is holding a Silver room. The expected result for test case B is to not offer any upgrade because the person is not a Citibank member, regardless of the room type.

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  • 11. 

    Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

    • A.

      Re-Testing

    • B.

      Confirmation Testing

    • C.

      Regression Testing

    • D.

      Negative Testing

    Correct Answer
    C. Regression Testing
    Explanation
    Regression testing is the process of testing a modified program to ensure that the changes made have not introduced any new defects or caused any existing functionality to fail. It involves retesting the program after modifications to verify that the previously tested features still work correctly. This type of testing is important to ensure that the software remains stable and reliable throughout its development and maintenance cycle.

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  • 12. 

    Impact Analysis helps to decide:

    • A.

      How much regression testing should be done.

    • B.

      Exit Criteria

    • C.

      How many more test cases need to written.

    • D.

      Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. How much regression testing should be done.
    Explanation
    Impact Analysis helps to decide how much regression testing should be done. This is because Impact Analysis involves analyzing the changes made to a system and determining the potential impact of those changes on the existing functionality. By understanding the impact, it becomes easier to identify which areas of the system are most likely to be affected and therefore require thorough regression testing. This helps in prioritizing the testing efforts and focusing on the most critical areas to ensure that the system remains stable and unaffected by the changes.

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  • 13. 

    Functional system testing is:

    • A.

      Testing that the system functions with other systems

    • B.

      Testing that the components that comprise the system function together

    • C.

      Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

    • D.

      Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

    Correct Answer
    C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
    Explanation
    Functional system testing refers to the process of testing the end-to-end functionality of the system as a whole. This type of testing ensures that all components and subsystems of the system are working together correctly and that the system performs its intended functions as expected. It involves testing the system's behavior and functionality from the user's perspective, simulating real-world scenarios and verifying that the system meets the specified requirements. This testing approach helps identify any issues or defects in the system's functionality and ensures that it is working correctly as a cohesive unit.

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  • 14. 

    Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.   Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?

    • A.

      OFF to ON

    • B.

      ON to OFF

    • C.

      FAULT to ON

    • D.

      They are all valid transitions.

    Correct Answer
    C. FAULT to ON
    Explanation
    The state transition diagram shows the possible transitions between different states of a switch. The transition from FAULT to ON represents an invalid state transition because it is not possible for the switch to go directly from a faulty state to the ON state without going through the OFF state first.

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  • 15. 

    Peer Reviews are also called:

    • A.

      Inspection

    • B.

      Walkthrough

    • C.

      Technical Review

    • D.

      Formal Review

    Correct Answer
    C. Technical Review
    Explanation
    Peer reviews are a form of evaluation or examination of work done by one's peers. It is a process where colleagues or experts in the same field assess and provide feedback on a piece of work. Technical review is an appropriate term to describe this process as it emphasizes the evaluation of technical aspects and quality of the work being reviewed. The other options, such as inspection, walkthrough, and formal review, may also refer to similar evaluation processes but do not specifically capture the essence of peer involvement in the review.

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  • 16. 

    Consider the following statements:   i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

    • A.

      Ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

    • B.

      I & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False

    • C.

      Ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False

    • D.

      Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

    Correct Answer
    D. Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
    Explanation
    Statement ii is true because 100% branch coverage guarantees that every branch in the code has been executed at least once, which implies that every statement in the code has also been executed.

    Statement iii is true because 100% branch coverage also guarantees that every possible decision point in the code has been evaluated, ensuring that all possible outcomes of the decision have been tested.

    Statement iv is true because 100% decision coverage ensures that every possible outcome of a decision has been tested, which implies that every branch in the code has been executed.

    Statement i is false because 100% statement coverage does not guarantee that every branch in the code has been executed. It only ensures that every statement in the code has been executed at least once.

    Statement v is false because 100% statement coverage does not guarantee that every decision point in the code has been evaluated. It only ensures that every statement in the code has been executed at least once.

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  • 17. 

    The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes which of the following :

    • A.

      Explaining the objective

    • B.

      Fixing defects found typically done by author

    • C.

      Follow up

    • D.

      Individual Meeting preparations

    Correct Answer
    A. Explaining the objective
    Explanation
    In the Kick Off phase of a formal review, one of the activities includes explaining the objective. This is important because it helps everyone involved in the review process to understand the purpose and goals of the review. By explaining the objective, the team members can align their efforts and focus on the specific areas that need to be reviewed. It also helps to set expectations and ensure that everyone is on the same page before the actual review process begins.

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  • 18. 

    Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design  ii. Code  iii. Low-level design  iv. Business requirements  a Unit tests b Acceptance tests c System tests d Integration tests

    • A.

      I-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b

    • B.

      I-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b

    • C.

      I-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c

    • D.

      I-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

    Correct Answer
    D. I-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b. In the software development life cycle, the high-level design stage involves creating an overall architecture and system design, which corresponds to system tests in the testing life cycle. The code stage involves writing the actual code, which corresponds to unit tests in the testing life cycle. The low-level design stage involves creating detailed designs for individual components, which corresponds to integration tests in the testing life cycle. Finally, the business requirements stage involves defining the desired functionality of the software, which corresponds to acceptance tests in the testing life cycle.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?

    • A.

      Test Planning and Control

    • B.

      Test implementation and Execution

    • C.

      Requirement Analysis

    • D.

      Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    C. Requirement Analysis
    Explanation
    Requirement Analysis is not a phase of the Fundamental Test Process. The Fundamental Test Process consists of four phases: Test Planning and Control, Test Analysis and Design, Test Implementation and Execution, and Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting. Requirement Analysis is a separate process that occurs before the test process begins, where the requirements of the system are analyzed and documented.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

    • A.

      State transition testing

    • B.

      LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)

    • C.

      Syntax testing

    • D.

      Boundary value analysis (BVA)

    Correct Answer
    B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
    Explanation
    LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) is not a black box technique because it involves analyzing the internal structure and logic of the code. Black box techniques focus on testing the functionality of a system without considering its internal implementation. State transition testing, syntax testing, and boundary value analysis are all examples of black box techniques as they only consider the input-output behavior of the system.

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  • 21. 

    Success Factors for a review include:   i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

    • A.

      Ii, iii, iv are correct and i is incorrect

    • B.

      Iii , i , iv are correct and ii is incorrect

    • C.

      I , iii , iv , ii are incorrect

    • D.

      Ii is incorrect

    Correct Answer
    A. Ii, iii, iv are correct and i is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ii, iii, iv are correct and i is incorrect. This is because the success factors for a review include welcoming and expressing defects objectively (ii), having management support for a good review process (iii), and emphasizing learning and process improvement (iv). However, having each review not have a predefined objective (i) is not a success factor.

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  • 22. 

    Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:   i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

    • A.

      I , ii, iii, iv are correct

    • B.

      Iii is correct I, ii, iv are incorrect

    • C.

      I ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect

    • D.

      Iv, ii is correct

    Correct Answer
    A. I , ii, iii, iv are correct
    Explanation
    Static analysis tools are designed to analyze code without actually executing it. They can identify defects such as variables that are never used, security vulnerabilities, programming standard violations, and uncalled functions and procedures. Therefore, all the options i, ii, iii, and iv are correct.

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  • 23. 

    Test Conditions are derived from:

    • A.

      Specifications

    • B.

      Test Cases

    • C.

      Test Data

    • D.

      Test Design

    Correct Answer
    A. Specifications
    Explanation
    The test conditions are derived from specifications. Specifications provide detailed information about the requirements, functionality, and behavior of the system or software being tested. Based on these specifications, test conditions are identified to ensure that all aspects of the system are tested thoroughly. Test cases, test data, and test design are all derived from the specifications to create a comprehensive testing approach.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique?

    • A.

      Equivalence partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.

    • B.

      Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.

    • C.

      Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.

    • D.

      Equivalence Partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

    Correct Answer
    C. Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
    Explanation
    Equivalence partitioning, State Transition, and Use Case Testing are examples of black box testing techniques. Black box testing focuses on testing the functionality of a system without considering its internal structure. These techniques involve analyzing inputs and outputs, system behavior, and user scenarios to ensure that the system functions correctly from an end-user perspective.

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  • 25. 

    Regression testing should be performed:   i. every week ii. after the software has changed iii. as often as possible iv. when the environment has changed v. when the project manager says

    • A.

      I & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false

    • B.

      Ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false

    • C.

      Ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false

    • D.

      Ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

    Correct Answer
    C. Ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
    Explanation
    Regression testing should be performed after the software has changed and when the environment has changed. This is because regression testing is done to ensure that the changes made to the software or the environment have not introduced any new defects or caused any previously fixed defects to reappear. Performing regression testing every week or as often as possible is not necessary unless there have been changes. The decision to perform regression testing should not be solely based on the project manager's say.

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  • 26. 

    Benefits of Independent Testing are:

    • A.

      Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers

    • B.

      Independent testers see different defects and are unbiased.

    • C.

      Independent Testers cannot identify defects.

    • D.

      Independent Testers can test better than developers

    Correct Answer
    B. Independent testers see different defects and are unbiased.
    Explanation
    Independent testers are able to see different defects because they approach the testing process from a different perspective than developers. They have a fresh set of eyes and are not involved in the development process, which allows them to identify issues that developers may overlook. Additionally, independent testers are unbiased as they are not influenced by their involvement in the development of the software. This helps in providing an objective evaluation of the software's quality and ensures that all potential defects are identified and addressed.

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  • 27. 

    Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage : Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 then Print “Large” End if If p > 50 then Print “pLarge” End if

    • A.

      Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2

    • B.

      Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2

    • C.

      Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2

    • D.

      Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

    Correct Answer
    C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2" because there are 4 statements in the code, but only 1 statement is covered by the given test cases. On the other hand, there are 2 branches in the code, which are the two if conditions. Both branches are covered by the given test cases.

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  • 28. 

    Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage : Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if

    • A.

      Statement coverage is 4

    • B.

      Statement coverage is 1

    • C.

      Statement coverage is 3

    • D.

      Statement Coverage is 2

    Correct Answer
    B. Statement coverage is 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Statement coverage is 1" because there are four statements in the code, but only the first statement "Disc = 0" is executed regardless of the value of Order-qty. The other statements within the if conditions are not executed because the code does not enter those conditions. Therefore, only the first statement is covered.

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  • 29. 

    The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:

    • A.

      Anomaly Report

    • B.

      Defect Report

    • C.

      Test Defect Report

    • D.

      Test Incident Report

    Correct Answer
    A. Anomaly Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Test Incident Report. The Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 covers the structure of an incident report, which is also known as a Test Incident Report. An incident report is used to document any unexpected or abnormal behavior observed during the testing process. It includes information about the incident, its impact, steps to reproduce it, and recommendations for resolution. Anomaly Report, Defect Report, and Test Defect Report are not the correct names for the structure of an incident report according to IEEE 829.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader?   i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how. iv. Create the Test Specifications

    • A.

      I, ii, iii is true and iv is false

    • B.

      Ii,iii,iv is true and i is false

    • C.

      I is true and ii,iii,iv are false

    • D.

      Iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    A. I, ii, iii is true and iv is false
    Explanation
    A Test Lead/Leader is responsible for multiple tasks in a testing project. They interact with the Test Tool Vendor to identify the best ways to utilize the test tool effectively. They also write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing. Additionally, they decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how. However, creating the Test Specifications is not a task of a Test Lead/Leader.

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  • 31. 

    Features of White Box Testing Technique : i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data. ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. iii. Checking for the performance of the application iv. Also checks for functionality.

    • A.

      I, ii are true and iii and iv are false

    • B.

      Iii is true and i,ii, iv are false

    • C.

      Ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false

    • D.

      Iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

    Correct Answer
    A. I, ii are true and iii and iv are false
    Explanation
    The features of White Box Testing Technique include using explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data and using specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assume that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. These features focus on the internal structure and implementation details of the system being tested. On the other hand, checking for the performance of the application and checking for functionality are not specific features of White Box Testing Technique. Therefore, the correct answer is that i and ii are true, while iii and iv are false.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons.

    • A.

      I , ii , iv are true and iii is false

    • B.

      I , ii , iii are true and iv is false

    • C.

      I , iii , iv are true and ii is false

    • D.

      All are true

    Correct Answer
    C. I , iii , iv are true and ii is false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i, iii, iv are true and ii is false. Test Closure Activities include checking which planned deliverables have been delivered, finalizing and archiving testware, and analyzing lessons. Defect report analysis is not a part of Test Closure Activities.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:

    • A.

      The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.

    • B.

      The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.

    • C.

      The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.

    • D.

      Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

    Correct Answer
    D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects." This definition accurately describes the main objective of testing, which is to identify and uncover any defects or errors in the software. Testing involves executing the software and observing its behavior to ensure that it functions correctly and meets the intended requirements. By actively searching for defects, testers can help improve the overall quality and reliability of the software.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

    • A.

      Top down

    • B.

      Big-bang

    • C.

      Bottom up

    • D.

      Functional incrementation

    Correct Answer
    B. Big-bang
    Explanation
    The big-bang approach is not a type of incremental testing approach because it does not involve testing individual components or modules in isolation. Instead, it involves integrating all the components together and testing them as a whole. In contrast, the top-down, bottom-up, and functional incrementation approaches all involve testing individual components or modules separately before integrating them.

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  • 35. 

    Drivers are also known as:   i. Spade ii. Test harness iii. Scaffolding

    • A.

      I , ii are true and iii is false

    • B.

      I , iii are true and ii is false

    • C.

      Ii , iii are true and i is false

    • D.

      All of the above are true

    Correct Answer
    C. Ii , iii are true and i is false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ii, iii are true and i is false. This means that drivers are not known as "Spade", but they are known as "Test harness" and "Scaffolding".

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  • 36. 

    Exit Criteria may consist of : i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment.

    • A.

      Iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

    • B.

      I,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect

    • C.

      Ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

    • D.

      Iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    B. I,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i, ii, iii is correct and iv is incorrect. This is because the exit criteria for a testing phase typically include thoroughness measures such as coverage of code, functionality or risk, estimates of defect density or reliability measures, and residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas. Verifying the test environment, as mentioned in option iv, is not typically included in the exit criteria.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress: i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

    • A.

      Iv is correct and i, ii, iii are incorrect

    • B.

      I, ii, iii are correct and iv is incorrect

    • C.

      I, ii are correct and iii, iv are incorrect

    • D.

      I, iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    B. I, ii, iii are correct and iv is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i, ii, iii are correct and iv is incorrect. Monitoring the test progress involves tracking various factors such as the percentage of test case execution, the percentage of work done in test environment preparation, and defect information such as defect density, defects found and fixed. However, the size of the testing team and skills of the engineers are not directly related to monitoring the test progress.

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  • 38. 

    The selection of a test approach should consider the context : i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team. iv. The size of the testing Team

    • A.

      I,ii,iii,iv are true

    • B.

      I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • C.

      Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

    • D.

      I,iv are true and ii, iii are false

    Correct Answer
    B. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. This is because the selection of a test approach should consider the risk of failure of the project, hazards to the product, and risks of product failure to humans (i). It should also consider the skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools, and methods (ii). Additionally, it should take into account the objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team (iii). However, the size of the testing team (iv) is not a factor that should be considered when selecting a test approach.

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  • 39. 

    In case of Large Systems:

    • A.

      Only few tests should be run

    • B.

      Testing should be on the basis of Risk

    • C.

      Only Good Test Cases should be executed

    • D.

      Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed

    Correct Answer
    B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk
    Explanation
    In large systems, it is not feasible to run all possible tests due to time and resource constraints. Therefore, testing should be prioritized based on the level of risk associated with different components or functionalities of the system. By focusing on high-risk areas, the testing effort can be optimized to identify and address potential issues that could have a significant impact on the system's performance, reliability, or security. This approach ensures that the most critical aspects of the system are thoroughly tested, while minimizing the time and effort spent on less critical areas.

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  • 40. 

    The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called:

    • A.

      Configuration Control

    • B.

      Status Accounting

    • C.

      Configuration Identification

    • D.

      Test Identification

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration Control
    Explanation
    Configuration Control refers to the provision and management of a controlled library containing all the configuration items. This involves the establishment and maintenance of baselines, as well as the evaluation and approval of changes to the configuration items. It ensures that all changes are properly documented, reviewed, and implemented in a controlled manner, minimizing the risks associated with unauthorized or uncontrolled changes. Configuration Control is an essential part of configuration management, which aims to maintain the integrity and consistency of the configuration items throughout their lifecycle.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 05, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Devilbrand
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