Biological Evolution Quiz With Different Theories

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Biological Evolution Quiz With Different Theories - Quiz

Over time, different scholars have come up with different theories to describe the origin of man. The quiz below specifically focuses on the Biological change in the heritable characteristics of man. All the best and enjoy.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    On average, how much of your genetic material do you share with a full sibling?

    • A.

      25%

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      75%

    • D.

      100%

    Correct Answer
    B. 50%
    Explanation
    When two individuals are full siblings, it means they share both biological parents. Each parent contributes half of their genetic material to their offspring. Therefore, a full sibling shares 50% of their genetic material with their sibling.

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  • 2. 

    More chromosomes results in more possible combinations of alleles in offspring.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Having more chromosomes in an organism's genetic makeup increases the number of possible combinations of alleles that can be passed down to offspring. This is because each chromosome contains multiple genes, and each gene can have different alleles. With more chromosomes, there are more opportunities for different combinations of alleles to occur during the process of genetic recombination and segregation, resulting in a greater diversity of traits in the offspring. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 3. 

    Mutations that cause evolution of sexually reproducing populations such as humans occur during which process?

    • A.

      Mistakes made during replication phase of mitosis of non-germ line cells

    • B.

      Mistakes made during transcription of DNA into mRNA

    • C.

      Mistakes made during translation of mRNA into proteins

    • D.

      Mistakes made during replication phase of meiosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Mistakes made during replication phase of meiosis
    Explanation
    During the replication phase of meiosis, mistakes can occur in the copying of genetic material, leading to mutations. Meiosis is the process by which germ cells, such as sperm and egg cells, are formed. These mutations can introduce new genetic variations into the population, which can then be passed on to future generations.

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  • 4. 

    Environments induce specific types of mutations that enable organisms to better survive in that environment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because environments do not induce specific types of mutations in organisms. Mutations occur randomly in an organism's DNA and are not influenced by the environment. Mutations can be beneficial, harmful, or have no effect on an organism's survival. However, organisms with beneficial mutations may have a higher chance of surviving and reproducing in a particular environment, leading to the appearance of adaptation to that environment over time.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is the most accurate statement about mutation rates?

    • A.

      All organisms have about the same mutation rate

    • B.

      Selection tends to favor organisms with very low mutations rates

    • C.

      Selection tends to favor organisms with very high mutation rates

    • D.

      Mutation is a hallmark of successful populations and different environments and life histories select for different mutation rates

    Correct Answer
    D. Mutation is a hallmark of successful populations and different environments and life histories select for different mutation rates
    Explanation
    Mutation is a hallmark of successful populations and different environments and life histories select for different mutation rates. This means that mutations are a natural occurrence in populations and are not necessarily detrimental. Instead, different environments and life histories may favor different mutation rates. This suggests that mutation rates are not the same for all organisms and that selection can act differently depending on the mutation rate.

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  • 6. 

    When comparing homologous genes of different species for a highly conserved proteins such as ATP synthase; where would we expect to see the most variation and why?

    • A.

      At the third position in codons because they have a higher mutation rate

    • B.

      At the third position in codons because these mutations are most often neutral and not subject to purifying selection

    • C.

      At the second position in codons because they have a higher mutation rate

    • D.

      At the second position in codons because these mutations are most often neutral and not subject to purifying selection

    Correct Answer
    B. At the third position in codons because these mutations are most often neutral and not subject to purifying selection
    Explanation
    At the third position in codons, we would expect to see the most variation because these mutations are most often neutral and not subject to purifying selection. The third position in a codon is known as the "wobble position" and is less important for determining the amino acid sequence of a protein. Mutations at this position are more likely to be silent or have minimal impact on the protein's function, making them less likely to be eliminated by natural selection. In contrast, mutations at the second position in codons are more likely to result in changes to the amino acid sequence and can have a greater impact on protein function, making them subject to purifying selection.

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  • 7. 

    A population has a genotype frequency of AA: 0.1  Aa: 0.8  aa: 0.1    This population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The population is not at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium because the genotype frequencies do not follow the expected proportions. In a population at equilibrium, the genotype frequencies should be in the proportions of p^2: 2pq: q^2, where p and q are the frequencies of the two alleles. In this case, the expected genotype frequencies would be AA: 0.01, Aa: 0.16, and aa: 0.09. Since the observed genotype frequencies do not match the expected frequencies, the population is not at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

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  • 8. 

    What is the most likely form of natural selection that could cause the genotype frequency in the question above?

    • A.

      Directional Selection

    • B.

      Underdominance

    • C.

      Diversifying Selection

    • D.

      Overdominance

    • E.

      There is no selection on this population

    Correct Answer
    D. Overdominance
    Explanation
    Overdominance is the most likely form of natural selection that could cause the genotype frequency in the given question. Overdominance, also known as heterozygote advantage, occurs when the heterozygous genotype has a higher fitness compared to either of the homozygous genotypes. This can result in the maintenance of genetic variation in a population, as both homozygotes are selected against while the heterozygote is favored.

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  • 9. 

    How many generations would it take for a population that was not at Hardy Weinberg equilibrium to reach equilibrium if we removed all evolutionary forces?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      1/2Ne

    • D.

      4Nµ

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    If all evolutionary forces are removed, it would take only one generation for a population that was not at Hardy Weinberg equilibrium to reach equilibrium. This is because the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes that there is no evolution occurring, so if there are no evolutionary forces acting on the population, it will reach equilibrium in just one generation.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following examples would be most subject to inbreeding depression?

    • A.

      A population of 14 humans isolated on a remote island with no contact with the rest of the human species

    • B.

      A nearly extinct species of seal with only 40 individuals remaining

    • C.

      A protozoan that can only reproduce asexually

    • D.

      A plant that is isolated from all other members of its species, but can still produce viable offspring via self-fertilization

    Correct Answer
    D. A plant that is isolated from all other members of its species, but can still produce viable offspring via self-fertilization
    Explanation
    A plant that is isolated from all other members of its species, but can still produce viable offspring via self-fertilization would be most subject to inbreeding depression. Inbreeding depression occurs when closely related individuals mate, leading to a decrease in fitness and genetic diversity in the population. Since the plant is isolated and can only reproduce through self-fertilization, it is more likely to experience inbreeding and the negative effects associated with it. The lack of genetic variation can lead to reduced adaptability, increased susceptibility to diseases, and decreased reproductive success in the long run.

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  • 11. 

    What mating tendency would help to reduce the amount of inbreeding depression in a population?

    • A.

      Dissasortative mating

    • B.

      Rapid reduction in population size

    • C.

      Self-fertilization

    • D.

      Selection of mates based on geographic proximity

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissasortative mating
    Explanation
    Disassortative mating refers to the tendency of individuals to choose mates that are genetically dissimilar to themselves. This can help to reduce inbreeding depression in a population because it promotes genetic diversity. By selecting mates that are genetically different, individuals can avoid mating with close relatives and decrease the likelihood of harmful recessive traits being expressed in offspring. This can lead to healthier and more robust individuals, ultimately reducing the negative effects of inbreeding depression in the population.

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  • 12. 

    What three things can affect the speed at which an advantageous allele becomes fixed in a population? (mark all three correct answers)

    • A.

      Genetics

    • B.

      Initial frequency of the allele

    • C.

      The strength of selection

    • D.

      Ratio of males to females

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Genetics
    B. Initial frequency of the allele
    C. The strength of selection
    Explanation
    The speed at which an advantageous allele becomes fixed in a population can be influenced by three factors: genetics, initial frequency of the allele, and the strength of selection. Genetics refers to the specific characteristics and traits of the allele itself. The initial frequency of the allele determines how common or rare it is in the population at the start. The strength of selection refers to how advantageous the allele is in terms of survival and reproduction. The ratio of males to females, however, does not directly affect the speed at which an advantageous allele becomes fixed in a population.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is an example of positive frequency dependent selection?

    • A.

      Aposematic coloration, such as the bright colors of poison dart frogs

    • B.

      A disadvantageous allele right next to an advantageous allele on a chromosome

    • C.

      Sneaker males, such as in some species of dung beetle

    • D.

      Sickle cell anemia in humans

    Correct Answer
    A. Aposematic coloration, such as the bright colors of poison dart frogs
    Explanation
    Aposematic coloration, such as the bright colors of poison dart frogs, is an example of positive frequency dependent selection because predators learn to associate the bright colors with toxicity or danger. As more individuals with this coloration are present, predators learn to avoid them, leading to a higher survival and reproductive success for the individuals with the aposematic coloration. This creates a positive feedback loop where the frequency of the coloration increases in the population over time.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following things would cause a population to not be in Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium? (mark all that apply)

    • A.

      Selection for advantageous alleles

    • B.

      Small population size

    • C.

      More than four chromosomes

    • D.

      Dissasortative mating

    • E.

      Immigration from outside populations

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Selection for advantageous alleles
    B. Small population size
    D. Dissasortative mating
    E. Immigration from outside populations
    Explanation
    Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a principle in population genetics that describes the conditions under which the frequency of alleles in a population will remain constant from generation to generation. Any factor that disrupts the equilibrium can cause a population to not be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. In this case, selection for advantageous alleles means that certain alleles have a higher fitness and are more likely to be passed on, leading to a change in allele frequencies. Small population size can result in genetic drift, which can also alter allele frequencies. Dissasortative mating refers to the preference for individuals with different traits to mate, which can lead to changes in genotype frequencies. Immigration from outside populations introduces new alleles into the population, disrupting the equilibrium.

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  • 15. 

    All populations we work with in evolutionary biology correspond to species boundaries

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because not all populations in evolutionary biology correspond to species boundaries. In fact, populations can exist within a single species and still have variations and differences due to factors like geographic isolation or genetic drift. Additionally, populations that are in the process of speciation may not yet have fully developed species boundaries. Therefore, it is incorrect to assume that all populations in evolutionary biology correspond to species boundaries.

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  • 16. 

    Due to large sections of non-coding DNA, the degeneracy of the genetic code and effective neutrality of nonsynonymous mutations most mutations in eukaryotes have no selective advantage or disadvantage.  The above statement is a description of _________.

    • A.

      Coalescent theory

    • B.

      Neutral theory

    • C.

      Compensatory mutations

    • D.

      The population genetics theorem.

    Correct Answer
    B. Neutral theory
    Explanation
    The given statement describes the neutral theory of evolution. This theory suggests that most mutations in eukaryotes have no selective advantage or disadvantage, meaning they do not significantly affect an organism's fitness. This is due to factors such as the presence of non-coding DNA, the degeneracy of the genetic code, and the effective neutrality of nonsynonymous mutations. According to the neutral theory, genetic variation primarily arises through random genetic drift rather than natural selection.

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  • 17. 

    What is the main evolutionary force acting on mutations that have no selective advantage or disadvantage?

    • A.

      Sexual selection

    • B.

      Purifying selection

    • C.

      Genetic drift

    • D.

      Frameshift disquilibrium

    Correct Answer
    C. Genetic drift
    Explanation
    Genetic drift is the main evolutionary force acting on mutations that have no selective advantage or disadvantage. Genetic drift refers to the random fluctuations in the frequency of gene variants in a population due to chance events. In small populations, genetic drift can have a significant impact on the genetic makeup of the population over time. Unlike natural selection, which favors traits that confer a survival or reproductive advantage, genetic drift is driven by random factors and does not depend on the fitness of the individuals carrying the mutations.

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  • 18. 

    In the black spruce example we discussed in class, why was there a difference between the diversity of nuclear genes and the diversity of mitochondrial genes in parts of the population that had undergone a leading edge expansion?

    • A.

      There had been much more variation in the wind blown pollen that fertilized this population than in the seeds which do not disperse as far.

    • B.

      Heavy grazing by herbivores had selectively reduced the different varieties of mitochondria

    • C.

      Black spruces mitochondria are a relatively recent addition to their cells and have not had time to diversify

    • D.

      The mitochondria have a very low rate of evolution when compared to the nuclear genes

    Correct Answer
    A. There had been much more variation in the wind blown pollen that fertilized this population than in the seeds which do not disperse as far.
    Explanation
    In the black spruce example, the difference between the diversity of nuclear genes and mitochondrial genes in parts of the population that had undergone a leading edge expansion can be explained by the fact that there was much more variation in the wind blown pollen that fertilized this population compared to the seeds, which do not disperse as far. This difference in dispersal mechanisms led to a higher diversity of genes in the wind blown pollen, resulting in a greater diversity of nuclear genes compared to mitochondrial genes.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following describes an effect of demography on the Heterozygosity of a population?

    • A.

      Coefficients of selection < 1/2Ne greatly reduce the Heterozygosity

    • B.

      High mutation rates greatly reduce the Heterozygosity

    • C.

      Recent bottleneck events greatly reduce the Heterozygosity

    • D.

      Random mating will greatly reduce the Heterozygosity

    Correct Answer
    C. Recent bottleneck events greatly reduce the Heterozygosity
  • 20. 

    What is the saturation point for two homologous sequences of DNA found in two separate species?

    • A.

      10% divergent

    • B.

      50% divergent

    • C.

      75% divergent

    • D.

      100% divergent

    Correct Answer
    C. 75% divergent
    Explanation
    The saturation point for two homologous sequences of DNA found in two separate species is 75% divergent. This means that the sequences have undergone enough changes to become significantly different from each other, but not to the point where they are completely unrelated. A divergence of 75% indicates a substantial level of genetic variation between the two species, suggesting a significant evolutionary distance between them.

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  • 21. 

    What two factors are needed to estimate the average coalescent time of a neutral allele? (Mark both answers.)

    • A.

      K, the breeding strategy

    • B.

      µ, the mutation rate

    • C.

      ε, the average genetic load

    • D.

      Ne, the effective population size

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. µ, the mutation rate
    D. Ne, the effective population size
    Explanation
    To estimate the average coalescent time of a neutral allele, two factors are needed: the mutation rate (µ) and the effective population size (Ne). The mutation rate represents the rate at which new mutations occur, while the effective population size reflects the size of the population that is actually contributing to the gene pool. These factors are important because they influence the rate at which alleles can potentially coalesce or merge back to a common ancestor. Other options, such as breeding strategy (K) and average genetic load (ε), are not directly related to the estimation of coalescent time.

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  • 22. 

    Because most mutation is effectively neutral we can use the accumulation of mutations between different species to estimate how long ago they shared a common ancestor.  This is known as a ____________________.

    • A.

      Molecular clock

    • B.

      Recombinatorial meiotic event

    • C.

      Stochastic estimation

    • D.

      Paleolithic genesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Molecular clock
    Explanation
    The explanation for the correct answer, "molecular clock," is that it is a method used to estimate the time when different species shared a common ancestor by analyzing the accumulation of mutations. Since most mutations are neutral, they can be used as a measure of evolutionary time. The concept of a molecular clock is based on the assumption that mutations occur at a relatively constant rate, allowing scientists to make estimates about the divergence of species.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following would not contribute to an effective population size (Ne) that was smaller than the census population size (N)?

    • A.

      Unequal sex ratio

    • B.

      Morality of some individuals prior to reproduction

    • C.

      Small geographic distribution

    • D.

      Sterility of individuals with genetic abnormalitites

    Correct Answer
    C. Small geographic distribution
    Explanation
    A small geographic distribution would not contribute to an effective population size (Ne) that is smaller than the census population size (N). In a small geographic area, individuals are more likely to interact and breed with each other, leading to a higher gene flow and genetic diversity within the population. This increased gene flow helps to maintain a larger effective population size, even if the census population size is small. Therefore, a small geographic distribution does not limit the breeding opportunities and genetic diversity, and thus would not contribute to a smaller Ne.

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  • 24. 

    The graph below shows the allele frequencies of two different neutral alleles in two different populations of eukaryotic diploid organisms.  Which line represents the population with the smaller effective populations size (Ne)?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The line A represents the population with the smaller effective population size (Ne) because the allele frequencies in population A are more variable compared to population B. This suggests that population A has undergone genetic drift, which occurs more frequently in populations with smaller Ne. Genetic drift is the random fluctuation of allele frequencies due to chance events, and it has a greater impact on smaller populations. Therefore, the greater variation in allele frequencies in population A indicates a smaller Ne compared to population B.

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  • 25. 

    Because they are single celled and relatively simple, all protozoa have smaller genomes than humans.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Protozoa are single-celled organisms, but their genome sizes can vary greatly. Some protozoa have larger genomes than humans, while others have smaller genomes. Therefore, it is incorrect to assume that all protozoa have smaller genomes than humans. Hence, the correct answer is False.

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  • 26. 

    What is the most common genetic mechanism for the generation of continuous traits such as height in humans?

    • A.

      Epistatic Interference

    • B.

      Polygeny

    • C.

      Diffuse Regulation

    • D.

      Linkage Disequilibrium

    • E.

      Genetic Drift

    Correct Answer
    B. Polygeny
    Explanation
    Polygeny is the most common genetic mechanism for the generation of continuous traits such as height in humans. This is because height is a complex trait that is influenced by multiple genes, each with a small effect. Polygeny refers to the inheritance of traits that are controlled by multiple genes, and in the case of height, it is influenced by the combined effects of many genes working together. This is why there is a wide range of heights observed in the human population, as different combinations of these genes can result in different levels of height.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the best definition of Heritability?

    • A.

      The percentage of a population that passes its genes onto the next generation

    • B.

      The complex interaction of alleles to produce unexpected phenotypes

    • C.

      The portion of a phenotypic trait that is due to genetics

    • D.

      The ability of a plant to influence the microclimates around them

    Correct Answer
    C. The portion of a phenotypic trait that is due to genetics
    Explanation
    Heritability refers to the portion of a phenotypic trait that is determined by genetics. It quantifies the extent to which genetic variation contributes to the variation in a particular trait within a population. It does not represent the percentage of a population that passes its genes onto the next generation, the complex interaction of alleles, or the ability of a plant to influence microclimates. Heritability specifically focuses on the genetic component of a trait, excluding other factors such as environmental influences.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following would tend to reduce the amount of linkage disequilibrium in a population?

    • A.

      Many recent mutations

    • B.

      Entire genome found on one chromosome

    • C.

      Frequent crossing over events

    • D.

      Inbreeding depression

    Correct Answer
    C. Frequent crossing over events
    Explanation
    Frequent crossing over events would tend to reduce the amount of linkage disequilibrium in a population. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis. It leads to the recombination of alleles and breaks down the associations between genes that were previously linked. As a result, the frequency of certain allele combinations decreases, reducing the overall linkage disequilibrium in the population.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following might allow a population that was all on one adaptive peak within a fitness landscape model to move to a second adaptive peak?

    • A.

      If it was at Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.

    • B.

      Alteration of generations within a subset of the population.

    • C.

      A bottleneck event, which would increase the influence of genetic drift.

    • D.

      A rapid breakup of any linkage disequilibrium through crossing over events.

    Correct Answer
    C. A bottleneck event, which would increase the influence of genetic drift.
    Explanation
    A bottleneck event refers to a sudden reduction in population size, which can result in a loss of genetic diversity. This reduction in genetic diversity increases the influence of genetic drift, which is the random change in allele frequencies. As a result, the population may undergo a shift in allele frequencies and potentially move to a second adaptive peak within the fitness landscape model.

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  • 30. 

    Epistasis is ______________________________.

    • A.

      The non-Mendelian and often unpredictable interactions of alleles at different loci

    • B.

      The movement of genetic material from the nucleus to the organelles.

    • C.

      The change a population undergoes during a bottleneck event

    • D.

      The uneven distribution of alleles across a population

    Correct Answer
    A. The non-Mendelian and often unpredictable interactions of alleles at different loci
    Explanation
    Epistasis refers to the non-Mendelian and often unpredictable interactions of alleles at different loci. This means that the expression of one gene can be influenced by the presence of another gene, leading to a modification or masking of the expected phenotypic ratios. In other words, the interaction between alleles at different loci can affect the expression of traits in ways that are not easily predictable based on Mendelian principles.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the major reason for the c-value paradox?

    • A.

      Most bacteria cells are much smaller than eukaryotic cells

    • B.

      Eukaryotic organisms have large majorities of their genome that are non-protein coding

    • C.

      More complex organisms need more genes to handle many different functions when compared to simpler organisms

    • D.

      Translational bias due to non-random distribution of tRNA isoforms

    Correct Answer
    B. Eukaryotic organisms have large majorities of their genome that are non-protein coding
  • 32. 

    Breaking target DNA into smaller pieces, inserting those pieces into bacterial plasmids, randomly sequencing those pieces, and then assembling them to recover the entire genome.  The preceding is a description of . . .

    • A.

      Polymerase Chain Reaction

    • B.

      QTL Mapping of Genetic Traits

    • C.

      Shotgun Sequencing

    • D.

      Microarray Analysis

    Correct Answer
    C. Shotgun Sequencing
    Explanation
    Shotgun sequencing is the correct answer. This method involves breaking the target DNA into smaller pieces, inserting them into bacterial plasmids, randomly sequencing those pieces, and then assembling them to recover the entire genome. This approach allows for the rapid sequencing of large genomes without the need for prior knowledge of the DNA sequence.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following phenomena makes QTL mapping possible?

    • A.

      Physical linkage of haplotypes

    • B.

      Clonal interference

    • C.

      Adaptive landscape modeling

    • D.

      Transposable elements

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical linkage of haplotypes
    Explanation
    QTL mapping is a method used to identify the genetic loci responsible for quantitative traits. It relies on the fact that physical linkage of haplotypes, which are combinations of alleles, can lead to co-inheritance of certain genetic markers and the trait of interest. By analyzing the patterns of inheritance and association between markers and traits, QTL mapping allows researchers to identify regions of the genome that are likely to contain genes influencing the trait. Therefore, physical linkage of haplotypes is the phenomenon that makes QTL mapping possible.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 05, 2014
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