Certified Surgical Technologist Test: Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Ach2
A
Ach2
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 4,577
| Attempts: 4,624
Quiz Flashcard
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/175 Questions

    The principal male hormone produced in the testis is:

    • Inhibin
    • Prolactin
    • Aldosterone
    • Testosterone
Please wait...
About This Quiz

This Certified Surgical Technologist Test assesses key skills and knowledge essential for surgical technologists. Topics include trigeminal neuralgia, sterile techniques, laparoscopic procedures, and more, aligning with NBSTSA and AST standards.

Certified Surgical Technologist Test: Quiz - Quiz

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Which organisation has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place

    • EPA

    • CDC

    • OSHA

    • NIOSH

    Correct Answer
    A. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the workplace. OSHA is a federal agency that sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees across all industries, including healthcare. They provide guidelines and regulations to protect workers from hazards, such as exposure to infectious diseases, chemical substances, and physical risks. OSHA also conducts inspections, investigates complaints, and imposes penalties for non-compliance, with the aim of promoting the well-being and safety of healthcare providers in their work environment.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    What action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing home

    • Try locate family members to verifie patient identity

    • Transport to OR and inform surgeon of discrepancy

    • Inform unit clerk of discrepancy and retur to OR

    • Do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personel

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personel
    Explanation
    If a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing home, the transporter should not transport the patient. Instead, they should inform the unit supervisor and OR personnel about the discrepancy. This is the appropriate action to ensure patient safety and avoid any potential harm that may arise from transporting the wrong patient. It is crucial to communicate the issue to the relevant authorities so that they can take appropriate measures to resolve the discrepancy and ensure the correct patient is transported.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    What are the sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the sterile field?

    • Gown, glove, scrub

    • Glove, scrub, gown

    • Scrub, glove, gown

    • Scrub, gown, glove

    Correct Answer
    A. Scrub, gown, glove
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Scrub, gown, glove". This sequence is followed to ensure that the healthcare professional maintains a sterile environment. First, they scrub their hands and forearms thoroughly to remove any dirt or bacteria. Then, they put on a sterile gown to cover their body and prevent any contamination. Finally, they put on sterile gloves to protect their hands and maintain a sterile field. This sequential order helps minimize the risk of infection during medical procedures.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    A patient's fingernail polish is removed to:

    • Prevent surgical wound infection

    • Allow temperature to be recorded

    • Prevent ESU exit pathway

    • Allow for use of pulse oximeter

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow for use of pulse oximeter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Allow for use of pulse oximeter". Fingernail polish can interfere with the accuracy of a pulse oximeter, which measures oxygen levels in the blood. By removing the fingernail polish, the healthcare provider can ensure that the pulse oximeter provides accurate readings.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to :

    • Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect

    • Determine if the patient is allergicto the soap

    • Reduce the amount of time for the pre-op pre

    • Leave a visible form so the prep borders will swo

    Correct Answer
    A. Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect
    Explanation
    Showering at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery helps achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect. This means that the soap will continuously kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the patient's skin over a period of time. By doing so, the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or other pathogens into the surgical site is reduced, which can help prevent post-operative infections.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first conner:

    • Away fron self

    • Toward self

    • To the right

    • To the left

    Correct Answer
    A. Away fron self
    Explanation
    When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner away from themselves to ensure that they do not contaminate the sterile contents inside. By opening the corner away from themselves, they minimize the risk of any potential microorganisms or contaminants from their body coming into contact with the sterile items. This helps maintain the sterility and integrity of the contents, reducing the risk of infection or other complications when using the sterile items.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Which of the following psychosocial factors is important for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients?

    • Reliance on others

    • Postoperative schedule

    • Separation anxiety

    • Appearance of scar

    Correct Answer
    A. Separation anxiety
    Explanation
    Separation anxiety is an important psychosocial factor for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients because it refers to the distress experienced by children when they are separated from their primary caregivers. This can be particularly challenging for pediatric patients undergoing surgery as they may already be anxious about the procedure itself. Addressing separation anxiety can help alleviate the child's distress, improve their cooperation during the surgical process, and contribute to a more positive surgical experience overall.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during TURP?

    • Otis urethrotome

    • Van Buren sounds

    • Resectoscope

    • Ureteroscope

    Correct Answer
    A. Resectoscope
    Explanation
    A resectoscope is a surgical instrument used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) procedure. This instrument consists of a long, thin tube with a light source and a camera attached at the end. It also contains a cutting loop or electrode that is used to remove excess prostate tissue. The resectoscope allows the surgeon to visualize the prostate and perform the necessary tissue removal with precision and control.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts?

    • Backtable

    • Mayo stand

    • Off the field

    • Operative field

    Correct Answer
    A. Operative field
    Explanation
    The surgical technologist should begin closing counts in the operative field. This is the area where the surgery is being performed, and it is important to ensure that all surgical instruments, sponges, and other items used during the procedure are accounted for before closing the incision. By starting the closing counts in the operative field, the surgical technologist can ensure that nothing is left behind inside the patient's body, reducing the risk of complications or infections post-surgery.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery?

    • Transport patient to OR; inform surgeon

    • Do not transport patient; Inform surgeon

    • Do not transport patient; inform anesthesia provider

    • Transport patient to OR; inform OR supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not transport patient; Inform surgeon
    Explanation
    If the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery, the appropriate action would be to not transport the patient and inform the surgeon. This is because the patient has the right to withdraw their consent at any time, and it is important to respect their decision. The surgeon should be informed so that they can discuss alternative options or reschedule the surgery if necessary.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and release chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose?

    • Liver

    • Stomach

    • Pancreas

    • Gallbladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreas
    Explanation
    The pancreas is the organ that detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate the amount of glucose in the bloodstream. When the blood glucose levels are high, the pancreas releases insulin to signal cells to take in glucose and lower the blood sugar levels. Conversely, when blood glucose levels are low, the pancreas releases glucagon, another hormone, to stimulate the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, raising blood sugar levels.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object?

    • Strabismus

    • Chalazion

    • Glaucoma

    • Cataract

    Correct Answer
    A. Strabismus
    Explanation
    Strabismus refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object. This condition is commonly known as crossed eyes or squint. It occurs when the muscles that control eye movement are imbalanced, causing one eye to turn inward, outward, upward, or downward while the other eye remains focused on the object. Strabismus can lead to double vision and can affect depth perception. Treatment options include glasses, eye exercises, patching, and in some cases, surgery.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Covering a sterile backtable for later use

    • Permissible for up to one our before the procedure

    • Permissible in instances of an emergency

    • Not permissible for up to 2 hours before the procedure

    • Not permissible under any circumstances

    Correct Answer
    A. Not permissible under any circumstances
    Explanation
    Covering a sterile backtable for later use is not permissible under any circumstances. The backtable must remain uncovered and sterile until the procedure begins to maintain a sterile environment. This is to prevent any contamination or introduction of microorganisms that could potentially cause infection or complications during the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    What type of procedure might require a laparoscopic combination drape?

    • Pilonidal cystectomy

    • Subacromial decompression

    • Abdominoperineal resection

    • Femorofemoral bypass

    Correct Answer
    A. Abdominoperineal resection
    Explanation
    An abdominoperineal resection is a surgical procedure used to remove the rectum and anus. This procedure requires a laparoscopic combination drape because it involves accessing and operating on both the abdomen and perineum. The laparoscopic drape is used to create a sterile barrier and maintain a clean surgical field during the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body?

    • In-situ

    • In-vivo

    • Metastasis

    • Encapsulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Metastasis
    Explanation
    Metastasis refers to the spread of cancerous cells from the original site to other parts of the body. It occurs when cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and invade nearby tissues or travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to form new tumors in different organs or tissues. This process is a critical stage in cancer progression and can significantly impact the prognosis and treatment options for patients.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    The basic unit of the nervous system is the

    • Neuron

    • Glial cell

    • Neurilemma

    • Schwann cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Neuron
    Explanation
    The basic unit of the nervous system is the neuron. Neurons are specialized cells that transmit information throughout the body. They receive signals from other neurons or sensory organs, process the information, and then send out signals to other neurons or muscles. Neurons have a unique structure with dendrites that receive signals, a cell body that processes the signals, and an axon that transmits the signals to other neurons. This allows for the rapid and efficient communication within the nervous system. Glial cells, neurilemma, and Schwann cells are all important components of the nervous system, but they are not the basic unit like neurons.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Which of the following sterilization processs is most economical?

    • Gas

    • Steam

    • Liquid chemical

    • Ionizing radiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Steam
    Explanation
    Steam sterilization is the most economical process among the given options. Steam sterilization, also known as autoclaving, is a widely used method in various industries due to its cost-effectiveness. It uses high-pressure steam to kill microorganisms, making it highly efficient and reliable. Additionally, steam sterilization can be applied to a wide range of materials and equipment, reducing the need for specialized chemicals or equipment. This makes it a preferred choice for many industries, including healthcare, laboratories, and food processing, where cost-effectiveness is crucial.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    The roof of the mouth is formed by the:

    • Filiform papillae

    • Palatoglossal arch

    • Hard and soft palates

    • Circumvallate papillae

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard and soft palates
    Explanation
    The roof of the mouth is formed by the hard and soft palates. The hard palate is the bony anterior part, while the soft palate is the muscular posterior part. Together, they create a barrier between the oral and nasal cavities, allowing for proper breathing and swallowing. The hard palate also helps in the production of speech sounds by providing a firm surface for the tongue to press against. The soft palate plays a role in closing off the nasal cavity during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the nose.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using the insufflator during the laparoscopic procedure

    • 8-11 mm Hg

    • 12-15 mm Hg

    • 16-19 mm Hg

    • 20-23 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. 12-15 mm Hg
    Explanation
    During a laparoscopic procedure, the insufflator is used to create and maintain a pneumoperitoneum by inflating the abdominal cavity with carbon dioxide gas. This creates a working space for the surgeon to perform the procedure. The recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using the insufflator is 12-15 mm Hg. This range is considered safe and effective for maintaining adequate visualization and minimizing potential complications such as gas embolism or organ injury.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the Dermatome

    • Bacitracin ointment

    • Iodophor solution

    • Petrolatum gel

    • Mineral oil

    Correct Answer
    A. Mineral oil
    Explanation
    Mineral oil is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the Dermatome. It helps in creating a smooth surface and reducing any discomfort or irritation during the procedure. Bacitracin ointment is an antibiotic ointment used to prevent infection, but it does not specifically provide lubrication. Iodophor solution is an antiseptic solution used for disinfection, not lubrication. Petrolatum gel is a petroleum-based gel that can provide lubrication, but mineral oil is a more commonly used lubricant in this context.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    What is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the OR?

    • Reduce microbial count

    • Increase humidity

    • Provide comfortable environment

    • Decrease static electricity

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce microbial count
    Explanation
    Maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the operating room (OR) is done to reduce microbial count. This high rate of air exchange helps to constantly remove and replace the air in the OR, minimizing the concentration of airborne microorganisms that could potentially cause infections or contaminate the surgical site. By reducing the microbial count in the air, the risk of post-operative complications and infections is significantly decreased, ensuring a safer environment for both patients and healthcare professionals.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy?

    • Monopolar cautery

    • Nerve stimulator

    • Microscope

    • Doppler

    Correct Answer
    A. Nerve stimulator
    Explanation
    A nerve stimulator is used during a parotidectomy to ensure preservation of the facial nerve. This device helps to locate and identify the facial nerve by delivering small electrical impulses to stimulate the nerve. By monitoring the response of the facial muscles to these impulses, the surgeon can determine the location and integrity of the nerve, allowing for its preservation during the procedure. The other options listed (monopolar cautery, microscope, and Doppler) are not specifically used for this purpose.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    What is done to the umbilicus during the abdominal skin prep?

    • Dabbed with first foam sponge only

    • Not prepped to prevent contamination

    • Prepped separetly with cotton applicators

    • Filled with prep solution and left pooled

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepped separetly with cotton applicators
    Explanation
    During the abdominal skin prep, the umbilicus is prepped separately with cotton applicators. This means that it is cleaned and disinfected using cotton applicators that are soaked in a sterilizing solution. Prepping the umbilicus separately helps to ensure that this area is properly cleaned and disinfected, reducing the risk of contamination during any surgical procedure or medical intervention involving the abdomen.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which of the following types of suture createthe least tissue trauma and drag

    • Swaged multifilament

    • Swaged monofilament

    • Threaded multifilament

    • Threaded monofilament

    Correct Answer
    A. Swaged monofilament
    Explanation
    Swaged monofilament sutures create the least tissue trauma and drag compared to the other options. Monofilament sutures consist of a single strand of material, which reduces the friction and tissue damage during insertion and removal. Swaged sutures have the needle attached to the suture, eliminating the need for tying knots, further reducing tissue trauma. Therefore, swaged monofilament sutures provide the least amount of tissue trauma and drag, making them a preferred choice in surgical procedures.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    Which chemical substance causes the immune system to form antibodies?

    • Antigens

    • Interferons

    • Complements

    • Immunoglobins

    Correct Answer
    A. Antigens
    Explanation
    Antigens are substances that can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies. When antigens enter the body, they are recognized as foreign and the immune system responds by producing specific antibodies to neutralize or eliminate them. These antibodies then bind to the antigens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. Therefore, antigens play a crucial role in the immune response by stimulating the production of antibodies.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Following a TURP, a patient may have which of the following placed for bladder irrigation and compression?

    • T-tube

    • 3-way Foley

    • Robinson

    • Jackson-Pratt

    Correct Answer
    A. 3-way Foley
    Explanation
    After a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a patient may have a 3-way Foley catheter placed for bladder irrigation and compression. This type of catheter has three lumens: one for urine drainage, one for balloon inflation to keep the catheter in place, and one for irrigation. The irrigation lumen allows for continuous flushing of the bladder to prevent blood clot formation and maintain clear urine output. This helps in postoperative management and promotes healing.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what other factor determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?

    • Weight

    • Aeration

    • Pressure

    • Concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure
    Explanation
    Pressure is the other factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process. Steam sterilization involves using high-pressure steam to kill microorganisms and sterilize equipment or materials. The pressure helps to ensure that the steam reaches and penetrates all areas, effectively killing any bacteria or spores present. Without adequate pressure, the steam may not be able to reach certain areas, leading to ineffective sterilization. Therefore, pressure is a crucial factor in determining the success of the steam sterilization process.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Low level desinfectants kill most microbes, but typically do not destroy:

    • Viruses

    • Bacteria

    • Fungi

    • Spores

    Correct Answer
    A. Spores
    Explanation
    Low level disinfectants are effective in killing most microbes, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, they are not typically able to destroy spores. Spores are highly resistant structures produced by certain microorganisms, such as bacteria and fungi, that enable them to survive in harsh conditions. Due to their resilience, spores require more potent disinfectants or specialized sterilization techniques to be effectively eliminated.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?

    • Diathermy

    • Cryotherapy

    • Irrigation/aspiration

    • Phacoemulsification

    Correct Answer
    A. Phacoemulsification
    Explanation
    Phacoemulsification is a method that uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens. It involves the use of an ultrasonic probe that emits high-frequency sound waves to break up the lens into small pieces, which are then aspirated out of the eye. This technique is commonly used in cataract surgery as it allows for a smaller incision and faster recovery compared to other methods. Diathermy, cryotherapy, and irrigation/aspiration are not specifically associated with the use of ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves

    • Circulator unties gown

    • Gown removed inside-out

    • Gloves removed inside-out

    • Gloves removed first

    Correct Answer
    A. Gloves removed first
    Explanation
    Removing the gloves first would be an incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves. The gloves should be the last item to be removed to prevent contamination of the hands and wrists, as they are the most likely to be contaminated during the procedure. Removing the gloves first would expose the hands and wrists to potential contamination from the gown, increasing the risk of infection. It is important to follow proper protocols and remove the gown first, followed by the gloves, to maintain a sterile environment.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Which technique is not acceptable when draping?

    • Hold the drapes 12 inches above patient until over the draping site

    • Protect gloved by cuffing end of drape over it

    • Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table

    • Place drapes on dry area when setting up the backtable

    Correct Answer
    A. Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table
    Explanation
    Unfolding the drape before bringing it up to the OR table is not an acceptable technique when draping. Drapes should be brought up to the OR table in a folded manner to maintain sterility. Unfolding the drape before bringing it to the table can increase the risk of contamination.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope?

    • Light source

    • Laser fiber

    • Nitrogen level

    • Magnification lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Light source
    Explanation
    A fiberoptic bronchoscope is a medical instrument used to visualize the inside of the airways and lungs. In order for it to function properly, a light source is essential. The light source provides illumination to the bronchoscope, allowing the medical professional to clearly see the airways and any abnormalities. Without a functioning light source, the fiberoptic bronchoscope would be ineffective and potentially dangerous to use. Therefore, testing the light source prior to using the bronchoscope is necessary to ensure its proper functionality.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of the following?

    • Fomite formation

    • Personnel injury

    • Instrument loss

    • Cross-contamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Cross-contamination
    Explanation
    Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents cross-contamination. Bioburden refers to the presence of microorganisms on the instruments. By confining and containing these instruments, the risk of these microorganisms spreading to other surfaces or individuals is minimized. Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms are transferred from one object or person to another, leading to the potential spread of infections or diseases. Therefore, by effectively managing bioburden through confinement and containment, the risk of cross-contamination is reduced.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    The inner lining of the uterus is the

    • Perineum

    • Peritoneum

    • Myometrium

    • Endometrium

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometrium
    Explanation
    The inner lining of the uterus is called the endometrium. This is the layer of tissue that thickens and sheds during the menstrual cycle. It provides a suitable environment for the implantation of a fertilized egg and plays a crucial role in supporting pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the endometrium is shed during menstruation.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    The basic, living structural and functional unit of the body is known as the:

    • Organism

    • Tissue

    • Organ

    • Cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cell. A cell is the basic unit of life and is responsible for carrying out all the functions necessary for an organism to survive. Cells can vary in size and shape, but they all have a similar structure, including a cell membrane, cytoplasm, and genetic material. Cells can exist as single-celled organisms or as part of a larger organism, where they work together to form tissues, organs, and ultimately, the entire organism.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    What agent is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG?

    • Thrombin

    • Bacitracin

    • Heparinized saline

    • Potassium chloride

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparinized saline
    Explanation
    Heparinized saline is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents blood clotting, and saline is a sterile solution used to flush and clean the vein. This combination helps to maintain the patency of the vein and prevent clot formation during the surgery. Thrombin is a clotting agent and would be counterproductive in this context. Bacitracin is an antibiotic and potassium chloride is a medication used to treat certain heart conditions, neither of which would be used for flushing the saphenous vein.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?

    • Colon

    • Calculi

    • Tonsils

    • Uterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Calculi
    Explanation
    Calculi are hardened mineral deposits that form in the urinary tract or gallbladder. They do not require preservation in a solution because they are already solid and do not degrade or deteriorate like other types of specimens. Therefore, they do not need to be placed in a preservative solution.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    Which of the following catheter tips is used in patient with a urethral stricture?

    • Olive

    • Coude

    • Whistle

    • Mushroom

    Correct Answer
    A. Coude
    Explanation
    A Coude catheter tip is used in patients with a urethral stricture. This type of catheter has a curved or bent tip that allows for easier insertion into a narrow or obstructed urethra. The curved tip helps navigate past the stricture and ensures proper placement of the catheter.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy?

    • Carbohydrates

    • Vitamins

    • Proteins

    • Fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Carbohydrates are the body's primary source of energy because they are easily broken down into glucose, which is used by cells to produce ATP, the energy currency of the body. Carbohydrates provide a quick and efficient source of energy, especially during high-intensity activities. They are also important for brain function and maintaining stable blood sugar levels. While proteins and fats can also be used for energy, carbohydrates are the preferred source as they are more readily available and easily metabolized. Vitamins, on the other hand, do not provide energy directly but are essential for various metabolic processes in the body.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    How is the patient positioned on the OR table for a knee arthroscopy?

    • Trendelenburg, knee over center break

    • Lateral, hip over lower break

    • Supine, knee at lower break

    • Low lithotomy, body centered

    Correct Answer
    A. Supine, knee at lower break
    Explanation
    The patient is positioned supine on the operating room table for a knee arthroscopy with the knee at the lower break. This means that the patient is lying on their back with their knee bent and positioned at the lower break of the table. This position allows the surgeon to easily access and operate on the knee joint during the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Frozen sections are sent to pathology:

    • Immediately without preservative

    • Immediately with preservative

    • End of case with preservative

    • End of case without preservative

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately without preservative
    Explanation
    Frozen sections are sent to pathology immediately without preservative because freezing the tissue helps to preserve its structure and cellular details. Adding a preservative could alter the tissue's morphology and make it difficult for the pathologist to accurately assess the sample. By sending frozen sections without preservative, the pathologist can quickly examine the tissue under a microscope and make a preliminary diagnosis during the surgery, allowing for immediate decision-making regarding further treatment or surgical procedures.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    Kantrex, bacitracin or Ancef mixed with saline for irrigation would do which of the following?

    • Minimize vasospasm

    • Prevent clot formation

    • Reduce adhesions formation

    • Inhibit surgical site infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibit surgical site infection
    Explanation
    Mixing Kantrex, bacitracin, or Ancef with saline for irrigation would inhibit surgical site infection. These medications are commonly used as antibiotics and have antimicrobial properties. By irrigating the surgical site with this mixture, it helps to kill or prevent the growth of bacteria, reducing the risk of infection at the site.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    What is a verres needle used for during a laparoscopy?

    • Instill CO2

    • Aspirate fluid

    • Collect a specimen

    • Assist in trocar site closure

    Correct Answer
    A. Instill CO2
    Explanation
    A verres needle is used during a laparoscopy to instill CO2. CO2 is used to create a pneumoperitoneum, which is the inflation of the abdominal cavity with gas. This creates a working space for the laparoscopic instruments and allows for better visualization of the surgical site. Instilling CO2 using a verres needle helps to establish the appropriate pressure and volume of gas required for the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep?

    • Incision site to periphery using circular motion

    • Periphery to incision site using circular motion

    • Incision site to periphery using back-and-forth motion

    • Periphery to incision site using back-and-forth motion

    Correct Answer
    A. Incision site to periphery using circular motion
    Explanation
    The correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep is to start at the incision site and move outward towards the periphery using circular motion. This helps to ensure that the area around the incision is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected, reducing the risk of infection during the surgery. Moving in a circular motion also helps to remove any dirt or debris from the skin surface effectively. Starting at the incision site and moving outward prevents contamination of the incision site with any potential pathogens present in the surrounding areas.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Which of the following is used in intraoperatively to assess vascular patency?

    • Positron emission tomography

    • Magnetic resonance imaging

    • Computed tomography

    • Doppler ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    A. Doppler ultrasound
    Explanation
    Doppler ultrasound is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency. This imaging technique uses sound waves to measure the movement of blood flow through blood vessels. By detecting changes in the frequency of sound waves reflected off moving blood cells, Doppler ultrasound can provide real-time information about the direction and velocity of blood flow. This allows surgeons to assess the patency or openness of blood vessels during surgery, ensuring that they are functioning properly and not blocked or narrowed. Positron emission tomography, magnetic resonance imaging, and computed tomography are imaging techniques used to visualize different body structures and functions, but they are not typically used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    What is the risk if a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time?

    • Tissue necrosis

    • Hermatoma formation

    • Hypotension

    • Tetany

    Correct Answer
    A. Tissue necrosis
    Explanation
    If a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time, it can restrict blood flow to the tissues beyond the tourniquet. This lack of blood flow can lead to tissue necrosis, which is the death of cells and tissues due to a lack of oxygen and nutrients. Tissue necrosis can cause severe damage to the affected area and may require surgical intervention to remove the dead tissue.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    What type of specialty equipment uses liquid nitrogen and often utilized to repair retinal detachments?

    • Nezhat

    • CUSA

    • Nerve stimulator

    • Cryotherapy unit

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryotherapy unit
    Explanation
    A cryotherapy unit is a type of specialty equipment that uses liquid nitrogen and is often utilized to repair retinal detachments. Liquid nitrogen is extremely cold and can be used to freeze and destroy abnormal tissues, such as in the case of retinal detachments. The cryotherapy unit delivers controlled and precise freezing temperatures to the affected area, helping to reattach the retina and restore vision.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    All of the following statements are true for paper-plastic peel packs, except:

    • Felt-tip markers should only be used on the plastic side of pack

    • Latex tubing should not be used to protect tip of instruments

    • Staples are an acceptable method of closing peel packs

    • Inner pack of a double peel-packed item should not be sealed

    Correct Answer
    A. Staples are an acceptable method of closing peel packs
    Explanation
    Staples are not an acceptable method of closing peel packs because they can puncture or tear the packaging, compromising the sterility of the contents. It is recommended to use heat-sealing or self-sealing methods to close peel packs securely.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Aug 30, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 30, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 23, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Ach2

Recent Quizzes

Pharmacology Quiz: Surgical Technologist Exam Pharmacology Quiz: Surgical Technologist Exam
Want to pass the BCBA Exam? Take this Mock Test Want to pass the BCBA Exam? Take this Mock Test
Certified Information Privacy Manager (C.I.P.M.) Exam Prep Test Certified Information Privacy Manager (C.I.P.M.) Exam Prep Test
CIPP/US Certification Exam Prep Test CIPP/US Certification Exam Prep Test
PPSC Post Certification Exam PPSC Post Certification Exam
Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt Certification Exam Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt Certification Exam
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.