Certified Surgical Technologist Test: Quiz

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Certified Surgical Technologist Test: Quiz - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      V

    • C.

      VI

    • D.

      VII

    Correct Answer
    B. V
    Explanation
    Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe facial pain. The cranial nerve that is affected by this condition is the trigeminal nerve, which is the fifth cranial nerve (V). This nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain, and any disruption or damage to it can result in the intense pain experienced in trigeminal neuralgia.

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  • 2. 

    What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using the insufflator during the laparoscopic procedure

    • A.

      8-11 mm Hg

    • B.

      12-15 mm Hg

    • C.

      16-19 mm Hg

    • D.

      20-23 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    B. 12-15 mm Hg
    Explanation
    During a laparoscopic procedure, the insufflator is used to create and maintain a pneumoperitoneum by inflating the abdominal cavity with carbon dioxide gas. This creates a working space for the surgeon to perform the procedure. The recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using the insufflator is 12-15 mm Hg. This range is considered safe and effective for maintaining adequate visualization and minimizing potential complications such as gas embolism or organ injury.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft

    • A.

      Donor site first

    • B.

      Recipient site first

    • C.

      Donor site only

    • D.

      Recipient site only

    Correct Answer
    A. Donor site first
    Explanation
    Performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft involves preparing both the donor and recipient sites. Starting with the donor site first is an example of proper sterile technique because it ensures that the area where the skin will be harvested from is clean and free from contaminants before the graft is taken. This helps to minimize the risk of infection and improve the success of the graft. Preparing the recipient site only or starting with the recipient site first would not follow proper sterile technique as it would not address the cleanliness of the donor site.

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  • 4. 

    What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the Dermatome

    • A.

      Bacitracin ointment

    • B.

      Iodophor solution

    • C.

      Petrolatum gel

    • D.

      Mineral oil

    Correct Answer
    D. Mineral oil
    Explanation
    Mineral oil is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the Dermatome. It helps in creating a smooth surface and reducing any discomfort or irritation during the procedure. Bacitracin ointment is an antibiotic ointment used to prevent infection, but it does not specifically provide lubrication. Iodophor solution is an antiseptic solution used for disinfection, not lubrication. Petrolatum gel is a petroleum-based gel that can provide lubrication, but mineral oil is a more commonly used lubricant in this context.

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  • 5. 

    Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object?

    • A.

      Strabismus

    • B.

      Chalazion

    • C.

      Glaucoma

    • D.

      Cataract

    Correct Answer
    A. Strabismus
    Explanation
    Strabismus refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object. This condition is commonly known as crossed eyes or squint. It occurs when the muscles that control eye movement are imbalanced, causing one eye to turn inward, outward, upward, or downward while the other eye remains focused on the object. Strabismus can lead to double vision and can affect depth perception. Treatment options include glasses, eye exercises, patching, and in some cases, surgery.

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  • 6. 

    What procedure is performed to correct a chronic celebral ischemia?

    • A.

      Rhizotomy

    • B.

      Cranioplasty

    • C.

      Arteriography

    • D.

      Endarterectomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Endarterectomy
    Explanation
    Endarterectomy is the correct answer because it is a surgical procedure used to remove plaque buildup from the inside of an artery, specifically in this case, to correct chronic cerebral ischemia. This procedure helps to restore blood flow to the brain by removing the blockage and reducing the risk of stroke or other complications associated with reduced blood flow. Rhizotomy is a procedure to sever nerve roots in the spinal cord, Cranioplasty is a surgical repair of a defect or deformity of the skull, and Arteriography is a diagnostic procedure to visualize the arteries using contrast dye.

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  • 7. 

    According to the rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk

    • A.

      27%

    • B.

      18%

    • C.

      41/2 %

    • D.

      1%

    Correct Answer
    B. 18%
    Explanation
    According to the rule of Nines, the front and back of the trunk are assigned 18% of the total body surface area. This rule is commonly used in medical settings to estimate the extent of burns or injuries on the body. The body is divided into different regions, and each region is assigned a specific percentage based on its size. In this case, the front and back of the trunk are considered to be 18% of the total body surface area.

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  • 8. 

    A second intention wound heals by :

    • A.

      Granulation

    • B.

      Evisceration

    • C.

      Primary union

    • D.

      Delayed suturing

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulation
    Explanation
    Granulation is the correct answer because a second intention wound refers to a wound that is left open to heal from the bottom up, without the use of sutures or closure techniques. Granulation is the process by which new tissue forms in the wound bed, filling in the gap and promoting healing. It involves the formation of small blood vessels and connective tissue, which eventually leads to the closure of the wound. This process is different from primary union, which refers to the healing of a wound through direct closure with sutures, and evisceration, which is the protrusion of organs through a wound. Delayed suturing is not applicable to second intention wound healing.

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  • 9. 

    Which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells

    • A.

      Atrophy

    • B.

      Dysplasia

    • C.

      Hyperplasia

    • D.

      Hypertrophy

    Correct Answer
    C. Hyperplasia
    Explanation
    Hyperplasia refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells. It occurs when there is an excessive proliferation of cells, leading to an enlargement of the affected tissue or organ. This can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, chronic inflammation, or as a response to certain stimuli. Unlike hypertrophy, which refers to an increase in cell size, hyperplasia involves an actual increase in the number of cells. Atrophy, on the other hand, refers to a decrease in cell size or number, while dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth and organization.

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  • 10. 

    Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with

    • A.

      Lidocaine

    • B.

      Digitoxin

    • C.

      Prostigmin

    • D.

      Furosemide

    Correct Answer
    A. Lidocaine
    Explanation
    Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are a type of abnormal heart rhythm that can occur during surgery. Lidocaine is a commonly used medication for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias. It works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which helps to stabilize the electrical activity and restore a normal heart rhythm. Lidocaine is considered an effective and well-tolerated drug for the management of ventricular arrhythmias during surgery. Digitoxin, Prostigmin, and Furosemide are not typically used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and are not the appropriate choices in this scenario.

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  • 11. 

    Covering a sterile backtable for later use

    • A.

      Permissible for up to one our before the procedure

    • B.

      Permissible in instances of an emergency

    • C.

      Not permissible for up to 2 hours before the procedure

    • D.

      Not permissible under any circumstances

    Correct Answer
    D. Not permissible under any circumstances
    Explanation
    Covering a sterile backtable for later use is not permissible under any circumstances. The backtable must remain uncovered and sterile until the procedure begins to maintain a sterile environment. This is to prevent any contamination or introduction of microorganisms that could potentially cause infection or complications during the procedure.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following types of suture createthe least tissue trauma and drag

    • A.

      Swaged multifilament

    • B.

      Swaged monofilament

    • C.

      Threaded multifilament

    • D.

      Threaded monofilament

    Correct Answer
    B. Swaged monofilament
    Explanation
    Swaged monofilament sutures create the least tissue trauma and drag compared to the other options. Monofilament sutures consist of a single strand of material, which reduces the friction and tissue damage during insertion and removal. Swaged sutures have the needle attached to the suture, eliminating the need for tying knots, further reducing tissue trauma. Therefore, swaged monofilament sutures provide the least amount of tissue trauma and drag, making them a preferred choice in surgical procedures.

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  • 13. 

    In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia?

    • A.

      Left lateral

    • B.

      Right lateral

    • C.

      Trendelenburg

    • D.

      Reverse trendelenburg

    Correct Answer
    C. Trendelenburg
    Explanation
    Trendelenburg position is used to counteract hypovolemia. In this position, the patient is placed with the head lower than the feet, which helps to increase blood flow to the brain and vital organs. By elevating the legs and lower body, the blood is redirected towards the upper body, improving circulation and increasing preload. This position can be helpful in cases of hypovolemia, where there is a decrease in blood volume, as it helps to improve blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs.

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  • 14. 

    Which organisation has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place

    • A.

      EPA

    • B.

      CDC

    • C.

      OSHA

    • D.

      NIOSH

    Correct Answer
    C. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the workplace. OSHA is a federal agency that sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees across all industries, including healthcare. They provide guidelines and regulations to protect workers from hazards, such as exposure to infectious diseases, chemical substances, and physical risks. OSHA also conducts inspections, investigates complaints, and imposes penalties for non-compliance, with the aim of promoting the well-being and safety of healthcare providers in their work environment.

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  • 15. 

    Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is most applicable to the surgical patient?

    • A.

      Esteem and Prestige

    • B.

      Love and belonging

    • C.

      Safety and security

    • D.

      Physiological and survival

    Correct Answer
    D. Physiological and survival
    Explanation
    The level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that is most applicable to the surgical patient is physiological and survival. This level includes the basic needs of the patient, such as food, water, shelter, and medical care, which are essential for their survival. In the context of a surgical patient, ensuring that their physiological needs are met is crucial for their well-being and recovery.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves

    • A.

      Circulator unties gown

    • B.

      Gown removed inside-out

    • C.

      Gloves removed inside-out

    • D.

      Gloves removed first

    Correct Answer
    D. Gloves removed first
    Explanation
    Removing the gloves first would be an incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves. The gloves should be the last item to be removed to prevent contamination of the hands and wrists, as they are the most likely to be contaminated during the procedure. Removing the gloves first would expose the hands and wrists to potential contamination from the gown, increasing the risk of infection. It is important to follow proper protocols and remove the gown first, followed by the gloves, to maintain a sterile environment.

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  • 17. 

    Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by

    • A.

      Cellular membrane damage

    • B.

      Interrupt cellular division

    • C.

      Altering cellular DNA

    • D.

      Coagulation of protein

    Correct Answer
    D. Coagulation of protein
    Explanation
    Steam sterilization involves subjecting the cells to high temperatures and pressure, which causes the proteins within the cells to coagulate. This coagulation process leads to the denaturation and aggregation of proteins, ultimately resulting in the destruction of the cells. Therefore, the correct answer is "Coagulation of protein".

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  • 18. 

    What type of procedure might require a laparoscopic combination drape?

    • A.

      Pilonidal cystectomy

    • B.

      Subacromial decompression

    • C.

      Abdominoperineal resection

    • D.

      Femorofemoral bypass

    Correct Answer
    C. Abdominoperineal resection
    Explanation
    An abdominoperineal resection is a surgical procedure used to remove the rectum and anus. This procedure requires a laparoscopic combination drape because it involves accessing and operating on both the abdomen and perineum. The laparoscopic drape is used to create a sterile barrier and maintain a clean surgical field during the procedure.

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  • 19. 

    Which technique is not acceptable when draping?

    • A.

      Hold the drapes 12 inches above patient until over the draping site

    • B.

      Protect gloved by cuffing end of drape over it

    • C.

      Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table

    • D.

      Place drapes on dry area when setting up the backtable

    Correct Answer
    C. Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table
    Explanation
    Unfolding the drape before bringing it up to the OR table is not an acceptable technique when draping. Drapes should be brought up to the OR table in a folded manner to maintain sterility. Unfolding the drape before bringing it to the table can increase the risk of contamination.

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  • 20. 

    How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the foley indwelling catheter?

    • A.

      5 mL

    • B.

      10 mL

    • C.

      15 mL

    • D.

      20 mL

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 mL
    Explanation
    The foley indwelling catheter requires 10 mL of water to inflate a 5-mL balloon. This is because the balloon needs to be filled with more water than its own capacity in order to expand fully and create the necessary pressure for the catheter to function effectively. Therefore, 10 mL of water is necessary to inflate the balloon properly.

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  • 21. 

    A patient's fingernail polish is removed to:

    • A.

      Prevent surgical wound infection

    • B.

      Allow temperature to be recorded

    • C.

      Prevent ESU exit pathway

    • D.

      Allow for use of pulse oximeter

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow for use of pulse oximeter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Allow for use of pulse oximeter". Fingernail polish can interfere with the accuracy of a pulse oximeter, which measures oxygen levels in the blood. By removing the fingernail polish, the healthcare provider can ensure that the pulse oximeter provides accurate readings.

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  • 22. 

    What is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the OR?

    • A.

      Reduce microbial count

    • B.

      Increase humidity

    • C.

      Provide comfortable environment

    • D.

      Decrease static electricity

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce microbial count
    Explanation
    Maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the operating room (OR) is done to reduce microbial count. This high rate of air exchange helps to constantly remove and replace the air in the OR, minimizing the concentration of airborne microorganisms that could potentially cause infections or contaminate the surgical site. By reducing the microbial count in the air, the risk of post-operative complications and infections is significantly decreased, ensuring a safer environment for both patients and healthcare professionals.

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  • 23. 

    What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep?

    • A.

      Incision site to periphery using circular motion

    • B.

      Periphery to incision site using circular motion

    • C.

      Incision site to periphery using back-and-forth motion

    • D.

      Periphery to incision site using back-and-forth motion

    Correct Answer
    A. Incision site to periphery using circular motion
    Explanation
    The correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep is to start at the incision site and move outward towards the periphery using circular motion. This helps to ensure that the area around the incision is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected, reducing the risk of infection during the surgery. Moving in a circular motion also helps to remove any dirt or debris from the skin surface effectively. Starting at the incision site and moving outward prevents contamination of the incision site with any potential pathogens present in the surrounding areas.

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  • 24. 

    If an ophtalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely performed?

    • A.

      Electric trimmer used on dry lashes

    • B.

      Electric trimmer used on wet lashes

    • C.

      Fine scissors without water-soluble gel

    • D.

      Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel

    Correct Answer
    D. Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel
    Explanation
    When an ophthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, it is safely performed using fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel. Coating the scissors with water-soluble gel helps to prevent any injury to the patient's eyes or eyelids during the trimming process. The gel acts as a lubricant, making it easier to trim the lashes without causing any discomfort or harm. Using fine scissors ensures precise and controlled trimming, allowing the ophthalmologist to achieve the desired result while minimizing the risk of accidental injury.

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  • 25. 

    The laboratory test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to whole blood is

    • A.

      Reticulocyte count

    • B.

      Differential count

    • C.

      Hematocrit

    • D.

      Hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    C. Hematocrit
    Explanation
    Hematocrit is a laboratory test that measures the ratio of erythrocytes (red blood cells) to whole blood. It is used to evaluate the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total volume of blood. This test is important in diagnosing conditions such as anemia or polycythemia, as it provides information about the blood's ability to deliver oxygen to the body's tissues. A low hematocrit value may indicate anemia, while a high value may suggest polycythemia or dehydration. Therefore, hematocrit is the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 26. 

    What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR?

    • A.

      Record actual number and use

    • B.

      Hand off the sterile field and isolate

    • C.

      Place on sterile backtable and do not use

    • D.

      Remove from the OR

    Correct Answer
    B. Hand off the sterile field and isolate
    Explanation
    When a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR, the proper procedure is to hand off the sterile field and isolate the pack. This means that the pack should be removed from the immediate area where the surgery is taking place, and it should be kept separate from other sterile items to prevent any contamination or confusion. This ensures that the correct number of sponges is used during the procedure and maintains the sterility of the surgical environment.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?

    • A.

      Colon

    • B.

      Calculi

    • C.

      Tonsils

    • D.

      Uterus

    Correct Answer
    B. Calculi
    Explanation
    Calculi are hardened mineral deposits that form in the urinary tract or gallbladder. They do not require preservation in a solution because they are already solid and do not degrade or deteriorate like other types of specimens. Therefore, they do not need to be placed in a preservative solution.

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  • 28. 

    Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts?

    • A.

      Backtable

    • B.

      Mayo stand

    • C.

      Off the field

    • D.

      Operative field

    Correct Answer
    D. Operative field
    Explanation
    The surgical technologist should begin closing counts in the operative field. This is the area where the surgery is being performed, and it is important to ensure that all surgical instruments, sponges, and other items used during the procedure are accounted for before closing the incision. By starting the closing counts in the operative field, the surgical technologist can ensure that nothing is left behind inside the patient's body, reducing the risk of complications or infections post-surgery.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following catheter tips is used in patient with a urethral stricture?

    • A.

      Olive

    • B.

      Coude

    • C.

      Whistle

    • D.

      Mushroom

    Correct Answer
    B. Coude
    Explanation
    A Coude catheter tip is used in patients with a urethral stricture. This type of catheter has a curved or bent tip that allows for easier insertion into a narrow or obstructed urethra. The curved tip helps navigate past the stricture and ensures proper placement of the catheter.

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  • 30. 

    Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing?

    • A.

      Neck

    • B.

      Inguinal

    • C.

      Extremity

    • D.

      Abdominal

    Correct Answer
    A. Neck
    Explanation
    A stent dressing would be required for a procedure performed on the neck. Stent dressings are used to cover and protect the area where a stent has been placed. Stents are often used in the neck to treat conditions such as carotid artery disease or to support blood vessels during surgery. The dressing helps to keep the stent in place, prevent infection, and promote healing. It is not necessary for procedures performed on the inguinal, extremity, or abdominal areas.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy?

    • A.

      Monopolar cautery

    • B.

      Nerve stimulator

    • C.

      Microscope

    • D.

      Doppler

    Correct Answer
    B. Nerve stimulator
    Explanation
    A nerve stimulator is used during a parotidectomy to ensure preservation of the facial nerve. This device helps to locate and identify the facial nerve by delivering small electrical impulses to stimulate the nerve. By monitoring the response of the facial muscles to these impulses, the surgeon can determine the location and integrity of the nerve, allowing for its preservation during the procedure. The other options listed (monopolar cautery, microscope, and Doppler) are not specifically used for this purpose.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?

    • A.

      Topical thrombin

    • B.

      Oxidized cellulose

    • C.

      Absorbable gelatin

    • D.

      Absorbable collagen

    Correct Answer
    D. Absorbable collagen
    Explanation
    Absorbable collagen is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection because it is derived from animal sources and can potentially introduce foreign pathogens into the wound site, leading to further infection. In contrast, topical thrombin, oxidized cellulose, and absorbable gelatin do not carry the same risk of introducing infection and can be safely used as hemostatic agents.

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  • 33. 

     During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR table is straightened to facilitate:

    • A.

      Proper circulation

    • B.

      Wound hemostasis

    • C.

      Adequate respirations

    • D.

      Tissue approximation

    Correct Answer
    D. Tissue approximation
    Explanation
    During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, straightening the OR table facilitates tissue approximation. This means that the edges of the incision are brought together and secured properly, ensuring that the wound is closed tightly and the tissues are aligned correctly. This is important for proper healing and to prevent complications such as infection or dehiscence. Straightening the OR table helps the surgeon to have better access and visibility to perform this step effectively.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope?

    • A.

      Light source

    • B.

      Laser fiber

    • C.

      Nitrogen level

    • D.

      Magnification lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Light source
    Explanation
    A fiberoptic bronchoscope is a medical instrument used to visualize the inside of the airways and lungs. In order for it to function properly, a light source is essential. The light source provides illumination to the bronchoscope, allowing the medical professional to clearly see the airways and any abnormalities. Without a functioning light source, the fiberoptic bronchoscope would be ineffective and potentially dangerous to use. Therefore, testing the light source prior to using the bronchoscope is necessary to ensure its proper functionality.

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  • 35. 

    Excision of a constricted  segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct:

    • A.

      Patient ductus arteriosus

    • B.

      Coarctation of the aorta

    • C.

      Aortic aneurysm

    • D.

      Transportation of the great vessels

    Correct Answer
    B. Coarctation of the aorta
    Explanation
    Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can lead to high blood pressure and poor blood flow to the lower part of the body. Excision of the constricted segment of the aorta and reanastomosis involves removing the narrowed portion and reconnecting the healthy ends of the aorta, allowing for improved blood flow and reducing the risk of complications.

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  • 36. 

    For which of the following diagnose would a patient undergo retrograde cholangiopancreatography?

    • A.

      Cholecystitis

    • B.

      Choledocholithiasis

    • C.

      Pancreatitis

    • D.

      Pancreatolithiasis

    Correct Answer
    B. Choledocholithiasis
    Explanation
    A patient would undergo retrograde cholangiopancreatography for the diagnose of Choledocholithiasis. Retrograde cholangiopancreatography is a medical procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions affecting the bile ducts and pancreas. Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of stones in the common bile duct, which can cause blockage and lead to symptoms such as jaundice, abdominal pain, and pancreatitis. Retrograde cholangiopancreatography involves inserting a catheter into the bile ducts and injecting contrast dye to visualize any stones or blockages, and it can also be used to remove the stones if necessary.

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  • 37. 

    The high ligation of the gonodal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an:

    • A.

      Spermatocelectomy

    • B.

      Varicocelectomy

    • C.

      Epididymectomy

    • D.

      Vasovasostomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Varicocelectomy
    Explanation
    Varicocelectomy is the correct answer because it involves the high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes to reduce venous plexus congestion. This procedure is commonly performed to treat varicoceles, which are enlarged veins in the scrotum that can cause discomfort and potentially affect fertility. By ligating the veins, blood flow is redirected and the congestion is reduced, improving symptoms and potentially improving fertility. Spermatocelectomy, epididymectomy, and vasovasostomy are all different procedures that do not involve the ligation of the gonadal veins and are not specifically performed to reduce venous plexus congestion.

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  • 38. 

    Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision?

    • A.

      I and II

    • B.

      I and III

    • C.

      II and III

    • D.

      II and IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I and II
    Explanation
    Trauma to cranial nerves I and II would result in the loss of smell and vision. Cranial nerve I, also known as the olfactory nerve, is responsible for the sense of smell. Cranial nerve II, also known as the optic nerve, is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eyes to the brain. Therefore, damage to both of these nerves would lead to the loss of both smell and vision.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy?

    • A.

      Culdocentesis

    • B.

      Colposcopy

    • C.

      Culdotomy

    • D.

      Colporrhaphy

    Correct Answer
    A. Culdocentesis
    Explanation
    Culdocentesis is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy. This procedure involves inserting a needle into the space behind the vagina to collect fluid for analysis. It is used to detect the presence of blood or other fluids that may indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Colposcopy is a procedure used to examine the cervix and vagina for abnormalities, while culdotomy and colporrhaphy are surgical procedures unrelated to ectopic pregnancy.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?

    • A.

      Virectomy

    • B.

      Iridectomy

    • C.

      Enucleation

    • D.

      Keratoplasty

    Correct Answer
    B. Iridectomy
    Explanation
    Iridectomy is a procedure for the treatment of glaucoma. It involves the surgical removal of a portion of the iris, which helps to improve the drainage of fluid from the eye. By creating a small hole in the iris, the surgeon allows the fluid to flow more easily, reducing the pressure inside the eye. This procedure is often performed when other treatments, such as medication or laser therapy, have not been successful in controlling the glaucoma.

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  • 41. 

    What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture?

    • A.

      Arch bar application

    • B.

      TMJ osteotomy

    • C.

      LeFort I

    • D.

      LeFort II

    Correct Answer
    A. Arch bar application
    Explanation
    Arch bar application is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture. This procedure involves the placement of metal arch bars along the upper and lower teeth, which are then wired together to stabilize the jaw. By immobilizing the jaw, the arch bars help in promoting proper healing of the fractured mandible and preventing further damage or displacement of the bone. This technique allows the patient to maintain proper alignment of the jaw during the healing process.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?

    • A.

      Hip

    • B.

      Knee

    • C.

      Ankle

    • D.

      Shoulder

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip
    Explanation
    After a hip arthroplasty procedure, the postoperative use of an abduction splint is necessary. This is because the hip joint needs to be kept in a specific position to prevent dislocation and promote proper healing. The abduction splint helps to maintain the correct alignment of the hip joint by keeping the legs separated and preventing adduction. It provides support and stability to the hip joint during the initial stages of recovery. Knee, ankle, and shoulder arthroplasty procedures do not typically require the use of an abduction splint postoperatively.

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  • 43. 

    Untreated acute otitis media may result in:

    • A.

      Tonsillitis

    • B.

      Mastoiditis

    • C.

      Adenoiditis

    • D.

      Ethmoiditis

    Correct Answer
    B. Mastoiditis
    Explanation
    Untreated acute otitis media, which is inflammation of the middle ear, can lead to mastoiditis. Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that occurs when the infection spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid bone located behind the ear. This can cause symptoms such as ear pain, swelling, redness, and fever. If left untreated, mastoiditis can lead to serious complications, including the spread of infection to nearby structures like the brain or the development of an abscess. Therefore, it is important to promptly treat acute otitis media to prevent the progression to mastoiditis.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is used in intraoperatively to assess vascular patency?

    • A.

      Positron emission tomography

    • B.

      Magnetic resonance imaging

    • C.

      Computed tomography

    • D.

      Doppler ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    D. Doppler ultrasound
    Explanation
    Doppler ultrasound is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency. This imaging technique uses sound waves to measure the movement of blood flow through blood vessels. By detecting changes in the frequency of sound waves reflected off moving blood cells, Doppler ultrasound can provide real-time information about the direction and velocity of blood flow. This allows surgeons to assess the patency or openness of blood vessels during surgery, ensuring that they are functioning properly and not blocked or narrowed. Positron emission tomography, magnetic resonance imaging, and computed tomography are imaging techniques used to visualize different body structures and functions, but they are not typically used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy?

    • A.

      Carbohydrates

    • B.

      Vitamins

    • C.

      Proteins

    • D.

      Fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Carbohydrates are the body's primary source of energy because they are easily broken down into glucose, which is used by cells to produce ATP, the energy currency of the body. Carbohydrates provide a quick and efficient source of energy, especially during high-intensity activities. They are also important for brain function and maintaining stable blood sugar levels. While proteins and fats can also be used for energy, carbohydrates are the preferred source as they are more readily available and easily metabolized. Vitamins, on the other hand, do not provide energy directly but are essential for various metabolic processes in the body.

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  • 46. 

    What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?

    • A.

      Hyoid

    • B.

      Manubrium

    • C.

      Thyroid gland

    • D.

      Cricoid cartilage

    Correct Answer
    D. Cricoid cartilage
    Explanation
    During rapid-sequence induction and intubation, the cricoid cartilage is compressed. This technique is used to secure the airway quickly and prevent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. The cricoid cartilage is located at the base of the larynx and is the only complete ring of cartilage in the trachea. By applying pressure on the cricoid cartilage, the esophagus is occluded, preventing the passage of gastric contents into the trachea during intubation. This helps to minimize the risk of aspiration and maintain a clear airway.

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  • 47. 

    The shared passageway for food and air is the:

    • A.

      Trachea

    • B.

      Larynx

    • C.

      Pharynx

    • D.

      Bronchus

    Correct Answer
    C. Pharynx
    Explanation
    The pharynx is the correct answer because it is the shared passageway for both food and air. It is located at the back of the throat and serves as a common pathway for both the digestive and respiratory systems.

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  • 48. 

    What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body?

    • A.

      In-situ

    • B.

      In-vivo

    • C.

      Metastasis

    • D.

      Encapsulation

    Correct Answer
    C. Metastasis
    Explanation
    Metastasis refers to the spread of cancerous cells from the original site to other parts of the body. It occurs when cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and invade nearby tissues or travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to form new tumors in different organs or tissues. This process is a critical stage in cancer progression and can significantly impact the prognosis and treatment options for patients.

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  • 49. 

    The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the:

    • A.

      Prostate

    • B.

      Epididymis

    • C.

      Tunica vaginalis

    • D.

      Ejaculatory duct

    Correct Answer
    B. Epididymis
    Explanation
    The epididymis is a structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis. It is responsible for storing and maturing sperm before they are ejaculated. It is connected to the testis by the efferent ductules and is involved in the transport and concentration of sperm. The prostate is a gland located below the bladder and is not directly associated with the testis. The tunica vaginalis is a serous membrane that covers the testis, while the ejaculatory duct is a part of the male reproductive system but is not located along the posterior border of the testis.

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  • 50. 

    The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the

    • A.

      Biscupid

    • B.

      Tricuspid

    • C.

      Aortic semilunar

    • D.

      Pulmonary semilunar

    Correct Answer
    A. Biscupid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Biscupid" because the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called the mitral valve, which is also known as the biscupid valve. It is named so because it consists of two cusps or flaps that open and close to regulate blood flow between the atrium and ventricle.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 31, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 23, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Ach2
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