Certified Surgical Technologist Test: Quiz

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1. The principal male hormone produced in the testis is:

Explanation

Testosterone is the principal male hormone produced in the testis. It plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics. It is responsible for the growth and maturation of the male reproductive organs, such as the testes and prostate gland, as well as the development of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle growth. Testosterone also plays a role in sperm production and sexual function. In addition, it has an impact on mood, energy levels, and overall well-being in males.

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About This Quiz
Certified Surgical Technologist Test: Quiz - Quiz

This Certified Surgical Technologist Test assesses key skills and knowledge essential for surgical technologists. Topics include trigeminal neuralgia, sterile techniques, laparoscopic procedures, and more, aligning with NBSTSA and... see moreAST standards. see less

2. Which organisation has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place

Explanation

OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the workplace. OSHA is a federal agency that sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees across all industries, including healthcare. They provide guidelines and regulations to protect workers from hazards, such as exposure to infectious diseases, chemical substances, and physical risks. OSHA also conducts inspections, investigates complaints, and imposes penalties for non-compliance, with the aim of promoting the well-being and safety of healthcare providers in their work environment.

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3. What are the sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the sterile field?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Scrub, gown, glove". This sequence is followed to ensure that the healthcare professional maintains a sterile environment. First, they scrub their hands and forearms thoroughly to remove any dirt or bacteria. Then, they put on a sterile gown to cover their body and prevent any contamination. Finally, they put on sterile gloves to protect their hands and maintain a sterile field. This sequential order helps minimize the risk of infection during medical procedures.

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4. When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first conner:

Explanation

When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner away from themselves to ensure that they do not contaminate the sterile contents inside. By opening the corner away from themselves, they minimize the risk of any potential microorganisms or contaminants from their body coming into contact with the sterile items. This helps maintain the sterility and integrity of the contents, reducing the risk of infection or other complications when using the sterile items.

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5. What action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing home

Explanation

If a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing home, the transporter should not transport the patient. Instead, they should inform the unit supervisor and OR personnel about the discrepancy. This is the appropriate action to ensure patient safety and avoid any potential harm that may arise from transporting the wrong patient. It is crucial to communicate the issue to the relevant authorities so that they can take appropriate measures to resolve the discrepancy and ensure the correct patient is transported.

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6. What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during TURP?

Explanation

A resectoscope is a surgical instrument used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) procedure. This instrument consists of a long, thin tube with a light source and a camera attached at the end. It also contains a cutting loop or electrode that is used to remove excess prostate tissue. The resectoscope allows the surgeon to visualize the prostate and perform the necessary tissue removal with precision and control.

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7. A patient's fingernail polish is removed to:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Allow for use of pulse oximeter". Fingernail polish can interfere with the accuracy of a pulse oximeter, which measures oxygen levels in the blood. By removing the fingernail polish, the healthcare provider can ensure that the pulse oximeter provides accurate readings.

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8. A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to :

Explanation

Showering at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery helps achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect. This means that the soap will continuously kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the patient's skin over a period of time. By doing so, the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or other pathogens into the surgical site is reduced, which can help prevent post-operative infections.

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9. What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery?

Explanation

If the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery, the appropriate action would be to not transport the patient and inform the surgeon. This is because the patient has the right to withdraw their consent at any time, and it is important to respect their decision. The surgeon should be informed so that they can discuss alternative options or reschedule the surgery if necessary.

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10. What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and release chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose?

Explanation

The pancreas is the organ that detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate the amount of glucose in the bloodstream. When the blood glucose levels are high, the pancreas releases insulin to signal cells to take in glucose and lower the blood sugar levels. Conversely, when blood glucose levels are low, the pancreas releases glucagon, another hormone, to stimulate the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, raising blood sugar levels.

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11. Which of the following psychosocial factors is important for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients?

Explanation

Separation anxiety is an important psychosocial factor for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients because it refers to the distress experienced by children when they are separated from their primary caregivers. This can be particularly challenging for pediatric patients undergoing surgery as they may already be anxious about the procedure itself. Addressing separation anxiety can help alleviate the child's distress, improve their cooperation during the surgical process, and contribute to a more positive surgical experience overall.

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12. The basic unit of the nervous system is the

Explanation

The basic unit of the nervous system is the neuron. Neurons are specialized cells that transmit information throughout the body. They receive signals from other neurons or sensory organs, process the information, and then send out signals to other neurons or muscles. Neurons have a unique structure with dendrites that receive signals, a cell body that processes the signals, and an axon that transmits the signals to other neurons. This allows for the rapid and efficient communication within the nervous system. Glial cells, neurilemma, and Schwann cells are all important components of the nervous system, but they are not the basic unit like neurons.

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13. What type of procedure might require a laparoscopic combination drape?

Explanation

An abdominoperineal resection is a surgical procedure used to remove the rectum and anus. This procedure requires a laparoscopic combination drape because it involves accessing and operating on both the abdomen and perineum. The laparoscopic drape is used to create a sterile barrier and maintain a clean surgical field during the procedure.

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14. The roof of the mouth is formed by the:

Explanation

The roof of the mouth is formed by the hard and soft palates. The hard palate is the bony anterior part, while the soft palate is the muscular posterior part. Together, they create a barrier between the oral and nasal cavities, allowing for proper breathing and swallowing. The hard palate also helps in the production of speech sounds by providing a firm surface for the tongue to press against. The soft palate plays a role in closing off the nasal cavity during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the nose.

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15. What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using the insufflator during the laparoscopic procedure

Explanation

During a laparoscopic procedure, the insufflator is used to create and maintain a pneumoperitoneum by inflating the abdominal cavity with carbon dioxide gas. This creates a working space for the surgeon to perform the procedure. The recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using the insufflator is 12-15 mm Hg. This range is considered safe and effective for maintaining adequate visualization and minimizing potential complications such as gas embolism or organ injury.

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16. What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body?

Explanation

Metastasis refers to the spread of cancerous cells from the original site to other parts of the body. It occurs when cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and invade nearby tissues or travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to form new tumors in different organs or tissues. This process is a critical stage in cancer progression and can significantly impact the prognosis and treatment options for patients.

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17. Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts?

Explanation

The surgical technologist should begin closing counts in the operative field. This is the area where the surgery is being performed, and it is important to ensure that all surgical instruments, sponges, and other items used during the procedure are accounted for before closing the incision. By starting the closing counts in the operative field, the surgical technologist can ensure that nothing is left behind inside the patient's body, reducing the risk of complications or infections post-surgery.

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18. Covering a sterile backtable for later use

Explanation

Covering a sterile backtable for later use is not permissible under any circumstances. The backtable must remain uncovered and sterile until the procedure begins to maintain a sterile environment. This is to prevent any contamination or introduction of microorganisms that could potentially cause infection or complications during the procedure.

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19. What is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the OR?

Explanation

Maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the operating room (OR) is done to reduce microbial count. This high rate of air exchange helps to constantly remove and replace the air in the OR, minimizing the concentration of airborne microorganisms that could potentially cause infections or contaminate the surgical site. By reducing the microbial count in the air, the risk of post-operative complications and infections is significantly decreased, ensuring a safer environment for both patients and healthcare professionals.

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20. Which of the following sterilization processs is most economical?

Explanation

Steam sterilization is the most economical process among the given options. Steam sterilization, also known as autoclaving, is a widely used method in various industries due to its cost-effectiveness. It uses high-pressure steam to kill microorganisms, making it highly efficient and reliable. Additionally, steam sterilization can be applied to a wide range of materials and equipment, reducing the need for specialized chemicals or equipment. This makes it a preferred choice for many industries, including healthcare, laboratories, and food processing, where cost-effectiveness is crucial.

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21. What is done to the umbilicus during the abdominal skin prep?

Explanation

During the abdominal skin prep, the umbilicus is prepped separately with cotton applicators. This means that it is cleaned and disinfected using cotton applicators that are soaked in a sterilizing solution. Prepping the umbilicus separately helps to ensure that this area is properly cleaned and disinfected, reducing the risk of contamination during any surgical procedure or medical intervention involving the abdomen.

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22. What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the Dermatome

Explanation

Mineral oil is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the Dermatome. It helps in creating a smooth surface and reducing any discomfort or irritation during the procedure. Bacitracin ointment is an antibiotic ointment used to prevent infection, but it does not specifically provide lubrication. Iodophor solution is an antiseptic solution used for disinfection, not lubrication. Petrolatum gel is a petroleum-based gel that can provide lubrication, but mineral oil is a more commonly used lubricant in this context.

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23. Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy?

Explanation

A nerve stimulator is used during a parotidectomy to ensure preservation of the facial nerve. This device helps to locate and identify the facial nerve by delivering small electrical impulses to stimulate the nerve. By monitoring the response of the facial muscles to these impulses, the surgeon can determine the location and integrity of the nerve, allowing for its preservation during the procedure. The other options listed (monopolar cautery, microscope, and Doppler) are not specifically used for this purpose.

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24. Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object?

Explanation

Strabismus refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object. This condition is commonly known as crossed eyes or squint. It occurs when the muscles that control eye movement are imbalanced, causing one eye to turn inward, outward, upward, or downward while the other eye remains focused on the object. Strabismus can lead to double vision and can affect depth perception. Treatment options include glasses, eye exercises, patching, and in some cases, surgery.

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25. Which chemical substance causes the immune system to form antibodies?

Explanation

Antigens are substances that can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies. When antigens enter the body, they are recognized as foreign and the immune system responds by producing specific antibodies to neutralize or eliminate them. These antibodies then bind to the antigens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. Therefore, antigens play a crucial role in the immune response by stimulating the production of antibodies.

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26. Following a TURP, a patient may have which of the following placed for bladder irrigation and compression?

Explanation

After a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a patient may have a 3-way Foley catheter placed for bladder irrigation and compression. This type of catheter has three lumens: one for urine drainage, one for balloon inflation to keep the catheter in place, and one for irrigation. The irrigation lumen allows for continuous flushing of the bladder to prevent blood clot formation and maintain clear urine output. This helps in postoperative management and promotes healing.

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27. Which of the following types of suture createthe least tissue trauma and drag

Explanation

Swaged monofilament sutures create the least tissue trauma and drag compared to the other options. Monofilament sutures consist of a single strand of material, which reduces the friction and tissue damage during insertion and removal. Swaged sutures have the needle attached to the suture, eliminating the need for tying knots, further reducing tissue trauma. Therefore, swaged monofilament sutures provide the least amount of tissue trauma and drag, making them a preferred choice in surgical procedures.

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28. In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what other factor determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?

Explanation

Pressure is the other factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process. Steam sterilization involves using high-pressure steam to kill microorganisms and sterilize equipment or materials. The pressure helps to ensure that the steam reaches and penetrates all areas, effectively killing any bacteria or spores present. Without adequate pressure, the steam may not be able to reach certain areas, leading to ineffective sterilization. Therefore, pressure is a crucial factor in determining the success of the steam sterilization process.

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29. What agent is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG?

Explanation

Heparinized saline is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents blood clotting, and saline is a sterile solution used to flush and clean the vein. This combination helps to maintain the patency of the vein and prevent clot formation during the surgery. Thrombin is a clotting agent and would be counterproductive in this context. Bacitracin is an antibiotic and potassium chloride is a medication used to treat certain heart conditions, neither of which would be used for flushing the saphenous vein.

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30. Low level desinfectants kill most microbes, but typically do not destroy:

Explanation

Low level disinfectants are effective in killing most microbes, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, they are not typically able to destroy spores. Spores are highly resistant structures produced by certain microorganisms, such as bacteria and fungi, that enable them to survive in harsh conditions. Due to their resilience, spores require more potent disinfectants or specialized sterilization techniques to be effectively eliminated.

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31. Which technique is not acceptable when draping?

Explanation

Unfolding the drape before bringing it up to the OR table is not an acceptable technique when draping. Drapes should be brought up to the OR table in a folded manner to maintain sterility. Unfolding the drape before bringing it to the table can increase the risk of contamination.

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32. The inner lining of the uterus is the

Explanation

The inner lining of the uterus is called the endometrium. This is the layer of tissue that thickens and sheds during the menstrual cycle. It provides a suitable environment for the implantation of a fertilized egg and plays a crucial role in supporting pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the endometrium is shed during menstruation.

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33. The basic, living structural and functional unit of the body is known as the:

Explanation

The correct answer is cell. A cell is the basic unit of life and is responsible for carrying out all the functions necessary for an organism to survive. Cells can vary in size and shape, but they all have a similar structure, including a cell membrane, cytoplasm, and genetic material. Cells can exist as single-celled organisms or as part of a larger organism, where they work together to form tissues, organs, and ultimately, the entire organism.

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34. Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope?

Explanation

A fiberoptic bronchoscope is a medical instrument used to visualize the inside of the airways and lungs. In order for it to function properly, a light source is essential. The light source provides illumination to the bronchoscope, allowing the medical professional to clearly see the airways and any abnormalities. Without a functioning light source, the fiberoptic bronchoscope would be ineffective and potentially dangerous to use. Therefore, testing the light source prior to using the bronchoscope is necessary to ensure its proper functionality.

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35. Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?

Explanation

Phacoemulsification is a method that uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens. It involves the use of an ultrasonic probe that emits high-frequency sound waves to break up the lens into small pieces, which are then aspirated out of the eye. This technique is commonly used in cataract surgery as it allows for a smaller incision and faster recovery compared to other methods. Diathermy, cryotherapy, and irrigation/aspiration are not specifically associated with the use of ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens.

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36. Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of the following?

Explanation

Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents cross-contamination. Bioburden refers to the presence of microorganisms on the instruments. By confining and containing these instruments, the risk of these microorganisms spreading to other surfaces or individuals is minimized. Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms are transferred from one object or person to another, leading to the potential spread of infections or diseases. Therefore, by effectively managing bioburden through confinement and containment, the risk of cross-contamination is reduced.

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37. Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves

Explanation

Removing the gloves first would be an incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves. The gloves should be the last item to be removed to prevent contamination of the hands and wrists, as they are the most likely to be contaminated during the procedure. Removing the gloves first would expose the hands and wrists to potential contamination from the gown, increasing the risk of infection. It is important to follow proper protocols and remove the gown first, followed by the gloves, to maintain a sterile environment.

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38. Frozen sections are sent to pathology:

Explanation

Frozen sections are sent to pathology immediately without preservative because freezing the tissue helps to preserve its structure and cellular details. Adding a preservative could alter the tissue's morphology and make it difficult for the pathologist to accurately assess the sample. By sending frozen sections without preservative, the pathologist can quickly examine the tissue under a microscope and make a preliminary diagnosis during the surgery, allowing for immediate decision-making regarding further treatment or surgical procedures.

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39. Kantrex, bacitracin or Ancef mixed with saline for irrigation would do which of the following?

Explanation

Mixing Kantrex, bacitracin, or Ancef with saline for irrigation would inhibit surgical site infection. These medications are commonly used as antibiotics and have antimicrobial properties. By irrigating the surgical site with this mixture, it helps to kill or prevent the growth of bacteria, reducing the risk of infection at the site.

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40. What is a verres needle used for during a laparoscopy?

Explanation

A verres needle is used during a laparoscopy to instill CO2. CO2 is used to create a pneumoperitoneum, which is the inflation of the abdominal cavity with gas. This creates a working space for the laparoscopic instruments and allows for better visualization of the surgical site. Instilling CO2 using a verres needle helps to establish the appropriate pressure and volume of gas required for the procedure.

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41. Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy?

Explanation

Carbohydrates are the body's primary source of energy because they are easily broken down into glucose, which is used by cells to produce ATP, the energy currency of the body. Carbohydrates provide a quick and efficient source of energy, especially during high-intensity activities. They are also important for brain function and maintaining stable blood sugar levels. While proteins and fats can also be used for energy, carbohydrates are the preferred source as they are more readily available and easily metabolized. Vitamins, on the other hand, do not provide energy directly but are essential for various metabolic processes in the body.

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42. Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?

Explanation

Calculi are hardened mineral deposits that form in the urinary tract or gallbladder. They do not require preservation in a solution because they are already solid and do not degrade or deteriorate like other types of specimens. Therefore, they do not need to be placed in a preservative solution.

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43. Which of the following catheter tips is used in patient with a urethral stricture?

Explanation

A Coude catheter tip is used in patients with a urethral stricture. This type of catheter has a curved or bent tip that allows for easier insertion into a narrow or obstructed urethra. The curved tip helps navigate past the stricture and ensures proper placement of the catheter.

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44. How is the patient positioned on the OR table for a knee arthroscopy?

Explanation

The patient is positioned supine on the operating room table for a knee arthroscopy with the knee at the lower break. This means that the patient is lying on their back with their knee bent and positioned at the lower break of the table. This position allows the surgeon to easily access and operate on the knee joint during the procedure.

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45. All of the following statements are true for paper-plastic peel packs, except:

Explanation

Staples are not an acceptable method of closing peel packs because they can puncture or tear the packaging, compromising the sterility of the contents. It is recommended to use heat-sealing or self-sealing methods to close peel packs securely.

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46. Approximately how many milliliters equal two (2) ounces

Explanation

Two ounces is equal to 60 milliliters. This conversion is based on the fact that there are 30 milliliters in one ounce. Therefore, multiplying 2 (ounces) by 30 (milliliters per ounce) gives us the result of 60 milliliters.

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47. What is the risk if a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time?

Explanation

If a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time, it can restrict blood flow to the tissues beyond the tourniquet. This lack of blood flow can lead to tissue necrosis, which is the death of cells and tissues due to a lack of oxygen and nutrients. Tissue necrosis can cause severe damage to the affected area and may require surgical intervention to remove the dead tissue.

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48. Which of the following is used in intraoperatively to assess vascular patency?

Explanation

Doppler ultrasound is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency. This imaging technique uses sound waves to measure the movement of blood flow through blood vessels. By detecting changes in the frequency of sound waves reflected off moving blood cells, Doppler ultrasound can provide real-time information about the direction and velocity of blood flow. This allows surgeons to assess the patency or openness of blood vessels during surgery, ensuring that they are functioning properly and not blocked or narrowed. Positron emission tomography, magnetic resonance imaging, and computed tomography are imaging techniques used to visualize different body structures and functions, but they are not typically used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency.

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49. What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep?

Explanation

The correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep is to start at the incision site and move outward towards the periphery using circular motion. This helps to ensure that the area around the incision is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected, reducing the risk of infection during the surgery. Moving in a circular motion also helps to remove any dirt or debris from the skin surface effectively. Starting at the incision site and moving outward prevents contamination of the incision site with any potential pathogens present in the surrounding areas.

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50. How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the foley indwelling catheter?

Explanation

The foley indwelling catheter requires 10 mL of water to inflate a 5-mL balloon. This is because the balloon needs to be filled with more water than its own capacity in order to expand fully and create the necessary pressure for the catheter to function effectively. Therefore, 10 mL of water is necessary to inflate the balloon properly.

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51. What procedure involves a series of treatments that result in permanent placement of prosthetic teeth?

Explanation

Dental implants involve a series of treatments that result in the permanent placement of prosthetic teeth. This procedure is performed by surgically placing metal posts or frames into the jawbone beneath the gums. These implants serve as a foundation for the replacement teeth, which are custom-made to match the patient's natural teeth. Over time, the implants fuse with the jawbone, providing a stable and long-lasting solution for missing teeth.

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52. What classification of drug reduces tissue inflammation?

Explanation

Steroids are a classification of drugs that are known to reduce tissue inflammation. They work by suppressing the immune system and inhibiting the production of inflammatory chemicals in the body. This helps to alleviate inflammation and associated symptoms such as pain, redness, and swelling. Steroids are commonly used in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions, including allergies, asthma, arthritis, and certain skin disorders.

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53. What type of specialty equipment uses liquid nitrogen and often utilized to repair retinal detachments?

Explanation

A cryotherapy unit is a type of specialty equipment that uses liquid nitrogen and is often utilized to repair retinal detachments. Liquid nitrogen is extremely cold and can be used to freeze and destroy abnormal tissues, such as in the case of retinal detachments. The cryotherapy unit delivers controlled and precise freezing temperatures to the affected area, helping to reattach the retina and restore vision.

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54. Which surgical speciality would urilize a phacoemulsification machine?

Explanation

Ophthalmology is the surgical specialty that would utilize a phacoemulsification machine. This machine is specifically used for cataract surgery, which is a common procedure in ophthalmology. The phacoemulsification machine uses ultrasound technology to break up and remove the cloudy lens of the eye, allowing for the implantation of a clear artificial lens. This procedure is performed by ophthalmologists to improve vision and treat cataracts.

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55. To maintain control of the stretcher, the patient should be transported to the OR:

Explanation

To maintain control of the stretcher, the patient should be transported to the OR feet first. This is because transporting the patient feet first allows the person in control of the stretcher to have better visibility and control over the movement of the stretcher. It also reduces the risk of the patient's head or upper body getting caught or hitting any obstacles during transportation. Additionally, transporting the patient feet first is the standard practice in medical settings to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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56. Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with

Explanation

Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are a type of abnormal heart rhythm that can occur during surgery. Lidocaine is a commonly used medication for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias. It works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which helps to stabilize the electrical activity and restore a normal heart rhythm. Lidocaine is considered an effective and well-tolerated drug for the management of ventricular arrhythmias during surgery. Digitoxin, Prostigmin, and Furosemide are not typically used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and are not the appropriate choices in this scenario.

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57. What is the result of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic?

Explanation

Adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic prolongs its effect. Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor, meaning it constricts blood vessels. By constricting blood vessels near the site of injection, epinephrine reduces blood flow to the area, which in turn slows down the absorption of the anesthetic into the bloodstream. This allows the anesthetic to remain in the tissue for a longer period of time, prolonging its numbing effect and providing longer-lasting pain relief.

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58. Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient in the lateral position?

Explanation

A nephrectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a kidney. This procedure is typically performed with the patient in the lateral position, which means lying on their side. This position allows better access to the surgical site and improves the surgeon's ability to maneuver and visualize the kidney during the procedure. The lateral position also helps to minimize the risk of injury to surrounding organs and structures.

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59. Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft

Explanation

Performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft involves preparing both the donor and recipient sites. Starting with the donor site first is an example of proper sterile technique because it ensures that the area where the skin will be harvested from is clean and free from contaminants before the graft is taken. This helps to minimize the risk of infection and improve the success of the graft. Preparing the recipient site only or starting with the recipient site first would not follow proper sterile technique as it would not address the cleanliness of the donor site.

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60. What is the best site for obtaining cortical bone graft?

Explanation

The iliac crest is the best site for obtaining cortical bone graft. This is because the iliac crest is a large and accessible bone that provides a good amount of cortical bone, which is dense and strong. It is commonly used in orthopedic surgeries and bone graft procedures due to its availability, ease of access, and ability to provide a sufficient amount of bone graft material.

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61. Which of the following can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm board greater than 90 degrees?

Explanation

If the arm is placed on the arm board at an angle greater than 90 degrees, it can put excessive pressure on the brachial plexus. The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that controls movement and sensation in the arm and hand. Excessive pressure or stretching of the brachial plexus can result in injury, causing symptoms such as pain, weakness, and numbness in the affected arm.

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62. What is the name of this retractor?

Explanation

The correct answer is Bennett because it is the only option given that matches the question, which asks for the name of the retractor. Charnley, Harrington, and Richardson are not relevant to the question and do not pertain to retractors.

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63. The device used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow is a/an:

Explanation

A Doppler device is used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow. It works by emitting high-frequency sound waves that bounce off moving blood cells and create a Doppler shift. This shift in frequency is then detected by the device and converted into an audible sound or a visual waveform, allowing healthcare professionals to assess the direction and speed of blood flow. This information is crucial during surgeries to ensure adequate blood supply to organs and tissues.

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64. What is the surgical technologist's role during the transfer of the patient from the OR bed to the stretcher?

Explanation

During the transfer of the patient from the OR bed to the stretcher, the surgical technologist's role is to maintain the sterility and integrity of the backtable. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that all instruments, supplies, and equipment on the backtable remain sterile and free from contamination during the transfer process. This is important to prevent any potential infections or complications for the patient.

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65. Which of the following must be in the chart prior to the patient being taken to the OR per The Joint Commission?

Explanation

The Joint Commission requires that a patient's history and physical must be documented in the chart prior to them being taken to the operating room. This is important because it provides crucial information about the patient's medical history, current health status, and any potential risks or complications that need to be considered before any surgical procedure. It helps to ensure that the surgical team has a comprehensive understanding of the patient's health and can make informed decisions during the surgery.

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66. The kidneys are located in the :

Explanation

The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneal space. This is the area behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. The retroperitoneal space is located outside of the peritoneal cavity, where most of the abdominal organs are situated. The kidneys are positioned on either side of the spine, deep within the retroperitoneal space. This location provides protection for the kidneys and allows them to maintain their position even during movement or changes in body position.

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67. A second intention wound heals by :

Explanation

Granulation is the correct answer because a second intention wound refers to a wound that is left open to heal from the bottom up, without the use of sutures or closure techniques. Granulation is the process by which new tissue forms in the wound bed, filling in the gap and promoting healing. It involves the formation of small blood vessels and connective tissue, which eventually leads to the closure of the wound. This process is different from primary union, which refers to the healing of a wound through direct closure with sutures, and evisceration, which is the protrusion of organs through a wound. Delayed suturing is not applicable to second intention wound healing.

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68. Which of the following is a correct statement when using the closed-gloving technique?

Explanation

The correct statement when using the closed-gloving technique is that the hand must not extend beyond cuffs. This means that when putting on gloves, the hand should not go past the edge of the cuff of the glove. This is important because it ensures that the glove provides proper coverage and protection for the hand and wrist. If the hand extends beyond the cuffs, it leaves a gap where contaminants or fluids can enter, compromising the effectiveness of the glove.

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69.  During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR table is straightened to facilitate:

Explanation

During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, straightening the OR table facilitates tissue approximation. This means that the edges of the incision are brought together and secured properly, ensuring that the wound is closed tightly and the tissues are aligned correctly. This is important for proper healing and to prevent complications such as infection or dehiscence. Straightening the OR table helps the surgeon to have better access and visibility to perform this step effectively.

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70. The needle holder shown below would be used during a :

Explanation

The needle holder shown in the image is a delicate and fine instrument, indicating that it would be used for a precise and intricate procedure like a craniotomy. During a craniotomy, a surgical incision is made in the skull to access the brain, and delicate instruments like the needle holder are used to handle and suture tissues in this sensitive area. The other options mentioned, such as vaginal hysterectomy, repair of rotator cuff, and tonsillectomy, do not typically require such a delicate instrument.

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71. How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized at 270 degrees F?

Explanation

Instruments with no lumens can be sterilized at a higher temperature compared to instruments with lumens. The given question asks how many minutes these instruments need to be sterilized at 270 degrees Fahrenheit. The correct answer is 3, indicating that these instruments need to be sterilized for 3 minutes at 270 degrees Fahrenheit.

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72. According to the rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk

Explanation

According to the rule of Nines, the front and back of the trunk are assigned 18% of the total body surface area. This rule is commonly used in medical settings to estimate the extent of burns or injuries on the body. The body is divided into different regions, and each region is assigned a specific percentage based on its size. In this case, the front and back of the trunk are considered to be 18% of the total body surface area.

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73. The pacemaker of the heart is/are the:

Explanation

The pacemaker of the heart is the SA node. The SA node, also known as the sinoatrial node, is a group of specialized cells located in the right atrium of the heart. It is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm. These impulses cause the atria to contract and stimulate the AV node, which then relays the signals to the rest of the heart. The SA node sets the pace for the heart and is often referred to as the natural pacemaker.

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74.  In the OR, HEPA is a type of:

Explanation

HEPA stands for High Efficiency Particulate Air, and it is a type of air filter commonly used in the operating room (OR). HEPA filters are designed to remove a high percentage of airborne particles, including dust, pollen, mold spores, bacteria, and viruses. They are used to maintain a clean and sterile environment in the OR by filtering out contaminants and preventing their spread. Therefore, the correct answer is "Air filter."

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75. What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?

Explanation

During rapid-sequence induction and intubation, the cricoid cartilage is compressed. This technique is used to secure the airway quickly and prevent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. The cricoid cartilage is located at the base of the larynx and is the only complete ring of cartilage in the trachea. By applying pressure on the cricoid cartilage, the esophagus is occluded, preventing the passage of gastric contents into the trachea during intubation. This helps to minimize the risk of aspiration and maintain a clear airway.

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76. What is the recommended method of hair removal from an operative site?

Explanation

Clippers with disposable heads are the recommended method of hair removal from an operative site. This method is preferred because it is less likely to cause cuts or skin irritation compared to using a razor. Using clippers with disposable heads also reduces the risk of infection as it does not expose the skin to open cuts. Additionally, disposable heads ensure proper hygiene and prevent the spread of any potential pathogens.

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77. The set of teeth that erupt at about 6 months of age and are later replaced are the :

Explanation

Deciduous teeth, also known as baby teeth or primary teeth, are the set of teeth that erupt at around 6 months of age and are later replaced by permanent teeth. These teeth are essential for chewing, speech development, and maintaining space for the permanent teeth to come in. As children grow, their jaws also develop, allowing more room for the larger permanent teeth to replace the smaller deciduous teeth. Therefore, the correct answer is Deciduous teeth.

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78. How long must an item must be immersed in glutaraldehyde to be sterile?

Explanation

Glutaraldehyde is a chemical used for sterilization. It is a strong disinfectant that can kill bacteria, viruses, and fungi. To ensure complete sterilization, an item must be immersed in glutaraldehyde for a sufficient amount of time. In this case, the correct answer is 10 hours, indicating that it takes 10 hours of immersion in glutaraldehyde for the item to become sterile. This extended duration allows the chemical to thoroughly penetrate and eliminate any potential microorganisms on the item's surface, ensuring its sterility.

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79. Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by

Explanation

Steam sterilization involves subjecting the cells to high temperatures and pressure, which causes the proteins within the cells to coagulate. This coagulation process leads to the denaturation and aggregation of proteins, ultimately resulting in the destruction of the cells. Therefore, the correct answer is "Coagulation of protein".

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80. The correct sterilization times required to render specific items sterile are initially established by the:

Explanation

The correct sterilization times required to render specific items sterile are initially established by the equipment manufacturer. This is because the manufacturer has the knowledge and expertise to determine the appropriate sterilization times based on the specific equipment being used. They conduct research and testing to ensure that their products are effectively sterilized within the recommended time frame. Healthcare facilities may have their own policies regarding sterilization, but these are typically based on the guidelines provided by the equipment manufacturer. The surgeon's preference and CDC guidelines may also play a role in determining sterilization times, but the initial establishment is done by the equipment manufacturer.

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81. When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become?

Explanation

When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, the total volume becomes 60 mL. Since the amount of Marcaine remains the same at 30 mL, the concentration of the drug is now calculated as 30 mL/60 mL, which equals 0.5 * 0.5 = 0.25%. Therefore, the strength of the drug becomes 0.25%.

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82. The unsterile size of the perimeter of a sterile wrap is:

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 inch because the perimeter of a sterile wrap should have a size of 1 inch. This ensures that there is enough space for proper sealing and to maintain sterility. A smaller size may not provide adequate coverage, while a larger size may result in excess material that could potentially compromise the sterility of the wrap. Therefore, a 1-inch perimeter size is the most appropriate choice.

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83. When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following?

Explanation

The surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in a basin with sterile water. This is because sterile water helps in the initial cleaning of the instruments, removing any visible debris or blood. It also helps to prevent the instruments from drying out and becoming harder to clean later on. The basin with sterile water provides a suitable environment for soaking and rinsing the instruments before they undergo further cleaning and sterilization processes.

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84. An indentification bracelet is placed on a surgical patient upon admission to the :

Explanation

The term "facility" is a broad term that can refer to a variety of healthcare settings such as hospitals, clinics, or medical centers. Placing an identification bracelet on a surgical patient upon admission is a standard practice in any healthcare facility to ensure proper identification and patient safety throughout their stay. Therefore, the correct answer is "facility."

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85. Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is most applicable to the surgical patient?

Explanation

The level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that is most applicable to the surgical patient is physiological and survival. This level includes the basic needs of the patient, such as food, water, shelter, and medical care, which are essential for their survival. In the context of a surgical patient, ensuring that their physiological needs are met is crucial for their well-being and recovery.

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86. What does the term strike-through mean?

Explanation

The term strike-through refers to the process of moisture soaking from unsterile layers to sterile layers. This can occur during sterilization and can compromise the sterility of the wrapped items.

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87. Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are:

Explanation

Cottonoids are small radiopaque surgical patties commonly used during cranial procedures. These patties are made of cotton and are designed to absorb blood and provide gentle pressure to control bleeding. The radiopaque feature allows them to be easily visualized on X-rays or imaging scans, ensuring that all patties are removed from the surgical site before closure. Cottonoids are a preferred choice due to their absorbent and radiopaque properties, making them effective tools in cranial surgeries.

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88. What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture?

Explanation

Arch bar application is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture. This procedure involves the placement of metal arch bars along the upper and lower teeth, which are then wired together to stabilize the jaw. By immobilizing the jaw, the arch bars help in promoting proper healing of the fractured mandible and preventing further damage or displacement of the bone. This technique allows the patient to maintain proper alignment of the jaw during the healing process.

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89. What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR?

Explanation

When a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR, the proper procedure is to hand off the sterile field and isolate the pack. This means that the pack should be removed from the immediate area where the surgery is taking place, and it should be kept separate from other sterile items to prevent any contamination or confusion. This ensures that the correct number of sponges is used during the procedure and maintains the sterility of the surgical environment.

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90. If an ophtalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely performed?

Explanation

When an ophthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, it is safely performed using fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel. Coating the scissors with water-soluble gel helps to prevent any injury to the patient's eyes or eyelids during the trimming process. The gel acts as a lubricant, making it easier to trim the lashes without causing any discomfort or harm. Using fine scissors ensures precise and controlled trimming, allowing the ophthalmologist to achieve the desired result while minimizing the risk of accidental injury.

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91. Which heat-resistant, spore-forming Bacillus does the steam sterilization biological indicator contain?

Explanation

The steam sterilization biological indicator contains G. stearothermophilus because it is a heat-resistant, spore-forming Bacillus. This bacterium is commonly used as a biological indicator to test the effectiveness of steam sterilization processes, as it can survive high temperatures and form spores that are resistant to heat. By using G. stearothermophilus as an indicator, it can be determined whether the sterilization process successfully eliminates all microorganisms, including heat-resistant spores.

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92. Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia

Explanation

Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe facial pain. The cranial nerve that is affected by this condition is the trigeminal nerve, which is the fifth cranial nerve (V). This nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain, and any disruption or damage to it can result in the intense pain experienced in trigeminal neuralgia.

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93. Which of the following needles would be used for a liver biopsy?

Explanation

The Tru-Cut needle is commonly used for liver biopsies. It is designed with a sharp cutting edge to obtain a small tissue sample from the liver for diagnostic purposes. The other options, Stamey, Verres, and Interstitial needles, are not typically used in liver biopsies.

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94. The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the

Explanation

The correct answer is "Biscupid" because the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called the mitral valve, which is also known as the biscupid valve. It is named so because it consists of two cusps or flaps that open and close to regulate blood flow between the atrium and ventricle.

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95. Which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field during cataract procedures?

Explanation

The operating microscope is used to enlarge and illuminate the surgical field during cataract procedures. It provides a magnified view of the eye, allowing the surgeon to see the details of the procedure more clearly. The microscope also has built-in lighting that helps to illuminate the surgical area, ensuring better visibility and precision during the surgery. This tool is essential for performing delicate and intricate procedures like cataract surgery.

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96. The facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the maxilla from the cranial base is a/an:

Explanation

A Lefort I fracture is a facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the maxilla from the cranial base. It is characterized by a horizontal fracture line that runs above the teeth, separating the upper jaw from the rest of the skull. This type of fracture can result from a significant force to the face, such as a motor vehicle accident or a fall. The separation of the maxilla from the cranial base can cause significant facial deformity and functional impairments.

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97. The first step of urine production when fluids and dissolved subtances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called:

Explanation

Glomerular filtration is the correct answer because it refers to the first step of urine production where fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure. This process occurs in the glomerulus, which is a network of tiny blood vessels in the kidney. The pressure forces water, ions, and small molecules to pass through the filtration membrane and enter the renal tubules, while larger molecules and blood cells are retained in the bloodstream. This initial filtration is an important step in the formation of urine.

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98. Which of the following is not a type of sterilizing agent?

Explanation

Boiling water is not a type of sterilizing agent because it does not effectively kill all microorganisms and spores. While boiling water can help to reduce the number of bacteria and viruses, it is not sufficient to completely sterilize objects or surfaces. Sterilizing agents such as Cobalt 60, steam under pressure, and activated glutaraldehyde are capable of destroying all forms of microbial life, making them effective sterilization methods.

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99. The instrument shown below would be used during a

Explanation

The instrument shown in the image is a tonsillectomy forceps, which is specifically designed for the removal of tonsils. Tonsillectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the tonsils, which are located at the back of the throat. This procedure is commonly performed to treat recurrent tonsillitis or sleep-disordered breathing. The forceps are used to grasp and remove the tonsils from their position. Therefore, the instrument shown is most appropriate for a tonsillectomy.

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100. In which of the following cases might the surgeon use a Gigli saw?

Explanation

A Gigli saw is a flexible wire saw that is commonly used in orthopedic and neurosurgical procedures. It is primarily used in cases where bone needs to be cut, such as in a craniotomy. During a craniotomy, a section of the skull is removed to access the brain. The Gigli saw allows the surgeon to make precise and controlled cuts in the bone. In contrast, corpectomy involves removing a vertebral body, cranioplasty involves repairing or replacing a section of the skull, and cordotomy involves cutting nerve fibers in the spinal cord. None of these procedures typically require the use of a Gigli saw.

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101. Which of the following monitoring devices would be used within a vessel?

Explanation

A Swan Ganz catheter is a monitoring device that is used within a vessel, specifically within the pulmonary artery. It is inserted through a vein and advanced into the right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery. This device allows for continuous monitoring of various hemodynamic parameters such as pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, and cardiac output. It is commonly used in critical care settings, especially in patients with cardiovascular or respiratory conditions.

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102. Which area is prepped last when performing the skin prep for a Bartholin's cystectomy?

Explanation

When performing a Bartholin's cystectomy, the area that is prepped last is the anus. This is because the anus is the furthest away from the surgical site and is considered to be the most contaminated area. By prepping the anus last, the risk of introducing bacteria or contaminants to the surgical site is minimized, ensuring a sterile environment for the procedure.

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103. For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pancreaticojeunostomy?

Explanation

A patient with alcoholic pancreatitis would require pancreaticojeunostomy. Alcoholic pancreatitis is a condition where chronic alcohol abuse leads to inflammation of the pancreas. Pancreaticojeunostomy is a surgical procedure that involves connecting the pancreas to the jejunum, a part of the small intestine. This procedure is done to improve the drainage of pancreatic secretions and relieve symptoms such as pain and digestive problems. It is not required for the other conditions mentioned in the options.

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104. What is the purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling Foley catheter?

Explanation

The purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling Foley catheter is to instill irrigation fluids. This lumen allows for the introduction of fluids, such as saline or medication, into the bladder for irrigation purposes. This can be done to flush out any blood clots or debris, prevent infection, or promote healing. By instilling irrigation fluids through the third lumen, the catheter can effectively clean and maintain the bladder.

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105. The adipose tissue averlying the symphysis is the

Explanation

The correct answer is Mons pubis. The mons pubis is a rounded, fatty area located over the pubic bone in females. It is part of the external genitalia and is covered with pubic hair after puberty. The adipose tissue underlying the symphysis refers to the fatty tissue found beneath the mons pubis. The other options, such as labia majora, perineum, and vestibule, do not specifically refer to the fatty tissue overlying the symphysis.

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106. Untreated acute otitis media may result in:

Explanation

Untreated acute otitis media, which is inflammation of the middle ear, can lead to mastoiditis. Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that occurs when the infection spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid bone located behind the ear. This can cause symptoms such as ear pain, swelling, redness, and fever. If left untreated, mastoiditis can lead to serious complications, including the spread of infection to nearby structures like the brain or the development of an abscess. Therefore, it is important to promptly treat acute otitis media to prevent the progression to mastoiditis.

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107. Preoperative bladder drainage prior to a D & C would be performed with which of the following catheters?

Explanation

Preoperative bladder drainage is necessary before a D&C procedure to ensure the bladder is empty and prevent injury during the surgery. The 14 Fr. Robinson catheter is the most suitable option for this purpose. It is a soft, flexible catheter with multiple drainage holes that allows for effective drainage of urine from the bladder. The other catheter options mentioned, such as the 16 Fr. Foley, 10 Fr. Pezzer, and 8 Fr. Malecot, may not be as suitable for preoperative bladder drainage due to their different sizes or designs.

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108. How many hours is the steam biological indicator incubated?

Explanation

The steam biological indicator is incubated for 24 hours. This duration allows for the proper growth and development of any microorganisms present in the indicator, providing an accurate assessment of the effectiveness of the steam sterilization process. Incubating for a shorter period may not give enough time for the microorganisms to grow, while a longer incubation time could lead to overgrowth and potential false results. Therefore, 24 hours is the recommended duration for incubating the steam biological indicator.

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109. Which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells

Explanation

Hyperplasia refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells. It occurs when there is an excessive proliferation of cells, leading to an enlargement of the affected tissue or organ. This can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, chronic inflammation, or as a response to certain stimuli. Unlike hypertrophy, which refers to an increase in cell size, hyperplasia involves an actual increase in the number of cells. Atrophy, on the other hand, refers to a decrease in cell size or number, while dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth and organization.

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110. Which of the following is a method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not conducive to growth and viability?

Explanation

Spore formation is a method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not favorable for growth and viability. Spores are highly resistant structures that bacteria can produce to protect themselves from harsh conditions such as extreme temperatures, lack of nutrients, or exposure to chemicals. During spore formation, the bacterium transforms into a dormant, tough-walled spore that can remain in this state until conditions improve. This allows the bacterium to survive and later resume growth and reproduction when the environment becomes more suitable. Conjugation, transduction, and genetic mutation are mechanisms that involve genetic exchange or variation, but they are not specifically related to bacterial survival during unfavorable conditions.

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111. Which of the following incisions may be used for the repair of a zygomatic fracture?

Explanation

The incision below the lower eyelid may be used for the repair of a zygomatic fracture. This approach allows for direct access to the zygomatic bone, which is located in the cheek area. By making an incision below the lower eyelid, surgeons can easily reach the fractured bone and perform the necessary repairs. This approach is often preferred as it provides good visibility and allows for precise manipulation of the fractured fragments.

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112. Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision?

Explanation

Trauma to cranial nerves I and II would result in the loss of smell and vision. Cranial nerve I, also known as the olfactory nerve, is responsible for the sense of smell. Cranial nerve II, also known as the optic nerve, is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eyes to the brain. Therefore, damage to both of these nerves would lead to the loss of both smell and vision.

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113. Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?

Explanation

After a hip arthroplasty procedure, the postoperative use of an abduction splint is necessary. This is because the hip joint needs to be kept in a specific position to prevent dislocation and promote proper healing. The abduction splint helps to maintain the correct alignment of the hip joint by keeping the legs separated and preventing adduction. It provides support and stability to the hip joint during the initial stages of recovery. Knee, ankle, and shoulder arthroplasty procedures do not typically require the use of an abduction splint postoperatively.

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114. Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing?

Explanation

A stent dressing would be required for a procedure performed on the neck. Stent dressings are used to cover and protect the area where a stent has been placed. Stents are often used in the neck to treat conditions such as carotid artery disease or to support blood vessels during surgery. The dressing helps to keep the stent in place, prevent infection, and promote healing. It is not necessary for procedures performed on the inguinal, extremity, or abdominal areas.

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115. In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia?

Explanation

Trendelenburg position is used to counteract hypovolemia. In this position, the patient is placed with the head lower than the feet, which helps to increase blood flow to the brain and vital organs. By elevating the legs and lower body, the blood is redirected towards the upper body, improving circulation and increasing preload. This position can be helpful in cases of hypovolemia, where there is a decrease in blood volume, as it helps to improve blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs.

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116. The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:

Explanation

Hemopoiesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of blood cell formation. It involves the production of various types of blood cells, including red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets, from pluripotent stem cells in the bone marrow. This process is essential for maintaining a healthy blood cell population and ensuring proper functioning of the immune system and oxygen transport throughout the body. Erythropoiesis specifically refers to the formation of red blood cells, while diapedesis is the process of white blood cells squeezing through blood vessel walls. Leukocytosis, on the other hand, is an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood.

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117. What precaution is utilized to prevent cardiovascular complications when positioning an anesthetized patient?

Explanation

Moving the patient slowly is a precaution utilized to prevent cardiovascular complications when positioning an anesthetized patient. This is because sudden movements or changes in position can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to cardiovascular instability. By moving the patient slowly, the body has time to adjust and adapt to the changes, reducing the risk of complications.

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118. A substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue is a/an

Explanation

An antiseptic is a substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are specifically designed for use on living tissue to prevent infection. Sterilants are used to completely eliminate all forms of microbial life, while sporicidal agents specifically target and kill bacterial spores. Therefore, the correct answer is antiseptic.

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119. Which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments?

Explanation

Avitene is a hemostatic agent that must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments. This is because Avitene is a collagen-based product that absorbs moisture and swells when it comes into contact with fluids. Therefore, applying it dry and using dry gloves and instruments ensures that it maintains its hemostatic properties and effectively controls bleeding.

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120. At what point is it appropriate to lower the leg when draping for a knee artroscopy?

Explanation

Lowering the leg after the tourniquet has been inflated is appropriate because the tourniquet helps to minimize bleeding during the knee arthroscopy procedure. By lowering the leg after the tourniquet has been inflated, the surgeon can ensure that the surgical site remains relatively blood-free and provides a clear view for the procedure. Lowering the leg before the tourniquet has been deflated or after the prep is completed may increase the risk of bleeding and compromise the visibility during the surgery. Lowering the leg before exsanguination would also not be appropriate as exsanguination is typically done before the tourniquet is inflated.

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121. Polymethyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedure?

Explanation

Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA) is a type of bone cement that is commonly used in orthopedic surgeries, particularly in total knee arthroplasty. During this procedure, the damaged or diseased knee joint is replaced with an artificial implant. PMMA is used to secure the implant in place by filling the gap between the implant and the bone. It provides stability and helps to prevent loosening of the implant over time. Therefore, PMMA is most likely to be used in total knee arthroplasty.

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122. Which of the following fascilitates exposure for thyroidectomy?

Explanation

An interscapular pillow facilitates exposure for thyroidectomy by providing support and elevation to the patient's shoulders and upper back. This helps to extend the neck and create a better surgical field for the surgeon. By using an interscapular pillow, the patient's head and neck are positioned in a way that allows for optimal access to the thyroid gland during the procedure.

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123. The sterile surgical technologist should drapea table from:

Explanation

The sterile surgical technologist should drape a table from front to back. This ensures that the sterile area is maintained and prevents contamination. Starting from the front and moving towards the back allows for a systematic and organized approach, minimizing the risk of introducing pathogens or compromising the sterile field.

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124. Which of the following procedure is performed for cervical incompetence?

Explanation

Shirodkar procedure is performed for cervical incompetence. This procedure involves placing a non-absorbable suture around the cervix to strengthen and close it, preventing premature dilation. It is commonly used to treat women with a history of repeated miscarriages or preterm labor caused by cervical weakness. Culdocentesis is a diagnostic procedure to obtain fluid from the cul-de-sac, Colporrhaphy is a surgical procedure to repair a vaginal wall defect, and Wertheim is a radical hysterectomy procedure for cervical cancer.

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125. What is the most abundant ion in the body?

Explanation

Calcium is the most abundant ion in the body because it plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. It is essential for the formation and maintenance of strong bones and teeth. Calcium is also involved in muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and blood clotting. Additionally, it helps regulate enzyme activity and maintains the balance of other ions in the body.

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126. When characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis?

Explanation

An amphiarthrosis is a type of joint that allows for slight movement. It is not completely immobile like a hinge joint, but it also does not have the same range of motion as a freely movable joint. Therefore, the correct answer is "Slightly movable."

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127. Which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a non-English speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in English, but does not fully understand it?

Explanation

In this case, the legal term that would apply is "Assault and battery". This term refers to intentionally causing harm or physical contact without consent. By having the non-English speaking patient sign a surgical informed consent in English, knowing that they do not fully understand it, the healthcare provider may be seen as intentionally causing harm or engaging in physical contact without the patient's full understanding and consent.

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128. The shared passageway for food and air is the:

Explanation

The pharynx is the correct answer because it is the shared passageway for both food and air. It is located at the back of the throat and serves as a common pathway for both the digestive and respiratory systems.

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129. What is a surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media?

Explanation

Myringotomy is a surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media. It involves making a small incision in the eardrum to drain fluid and relieve pressure in the middle ear. This procedure is commonly performed in cases where there is a buildup of fluid or infection in the middle ear, causing pain and hearing loss. By creating a small hole in the eardrum, myringotomy allows for the drainage of fluid and helps to alleviate symptoms associated with acute otitis media.

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130. Which of the following instrument sets will be needed when a frontal sinus fracture repair is performed?

Explanation

When performing a frontal sinus fracture repair, a craniotomy instrument set will be needed. A craniotomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating a bone flap in the skull to access the brain. In the case of a frontal sinus fracture repair, the craniotomy instrument set will include tools specifically designed for opening the skull and accessing the frontal sinus area. This set will not include plastic, ophthalmic, or vascular instruments, as they are not relevant to this particular procedure.

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131. Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?

Explanation

The correct answer is iliac. The iliac arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The abdominal aorta is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the lower part of the body. It bifurcates, or splits, into two branches called the common iliac arteries, which then further divide into the internal and external iliac arteries. The iliac arteries supply blood to the pelvis, lower abdominal organs, and lower extremities.

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132. Which nerve could be damaged by improperly padded stirrups?

Explanation

Improperly padded stirrups can cause compression or pressure on the peroneal nerve, leading to nerve damage. The peroneal nerve is located in the lower leg and is responsible for controlling movement and sensation in the foot and lower leg. If the stirrups are not adequately padded, they can press against the peroneal nerve, causing irritation, inflammation, or even compression, resulting in symptoms such as pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness in the foot and lower leg.

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133. Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of defense?

Explanation

Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of the second line of defense. The second line of defense is the innate immune response, which includes nonspecific mechanisms that act rapidly and effectively to eliminate pathogens. Phagocytosis is one of these mechanisms, where white blood cells engulf and destroy foreign particles or microorganisms. This response occurs without prior exposure to the specific pathogen and is a crucial defense mechanism in the body's immune response.

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134. Brachytherapy is performed to treat

Explanation

Brachytherapy is a type of radiation therapy that involves placing radioactive sources directly into or near the tumor. It is commonly used to treat cervical cancer because it allows for precise targeting of the radiation to the affected area, while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissues. This targeted radiation helps to destroy cancer cells and shrink tumors, increasing the chances of successful treatment and preserving the patient's quality of life. Therefore, brachytherapy is performed specifically for the treatment of cervical cancer.

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135. Which of the following ateries does not arise directly from the aorta?

Explanation

The vertebral artery does not arise directly from the aorta. Instead, it arises from the subclavian artery. The other options, including the celiac artery, superior mesenteric artery, and left common carotid artery, all arise directly from the aorta.

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136. An axllary role is placed for lateral positioning to

Explanation

An axillary role is placed for lateral positioning to facilitate respiration. Lateral positioning helps to improve lung expansion and ventilation, allowing for better oxygenation and gas exchange. This position also helps to prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. By facilitating respiration, the axillary role ensures that the patient can breathe effectively and maintain adequate oxygen levels during the procedure or recovery period.

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137. Which incisional approach would be used for a splenectomy?

Explanation

The left subcostal incisional approach would be used for a splenectomy. This approach involves making an incision on the left side of the abdomen just below the ribs. This allows for direct access to the spleen and minimizes the risk of injury to surrounding organs. The left subcostal approach is commonly used for surgeries involving the spleen due to its proximity to the left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

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138. In which structure of the heart are the leads for a permanent pacemaker placed?

Explanation

The leads for a permanent pacemaker are placed in the right ventricle of the heart. The right ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs, and by placing the leads in this structure, the pacemaker can regulate the heart's rhythm and ensure proper blood flow. The right ventricle is a common location for pacemaker placement due to its accessibility and ability to effectively stimulate the heart.

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139. Excision of a constricted  segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct:

Explanation

Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can lead to high blood pressure and poor blood flow to the lower part of the body. Excision of the constricted segment of the aorta and reanastomosis involves removing the narrowed portion and reconnecting the healthy ends of the aorta, allowing for improved blood flow and reducing the risk of complications.

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140. For which of the following diagnose would a patient undergo retrograde cholangiopancreatography?

Explanation

A patient would undergo retrograde cholangiopancreatography for the diagnose of Choledocholithiasis. Retrograde cholangiopancreatography is a medical procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions affecting the bile ducts and pancreas. Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of stones in the common bile duct, which can cause blockage and lead to symptoms such as jaundice, abdominal pain, and pancreatitis. Retrograde cholangiopancreatography involves inserting a catheter into the bile ducts and injecting contrast dye to visualize any stones or blockages, and it can also be used to remove the stones if necessary.

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141. In which of the following procedures would fine hooks of various angles be used:

Explanation

Fine hooks of various angles would be used in a Stapedectomy procedure. A Stapedectomy is a surgical procedure performed to treat hearing loss caused by a condition called otosclerosis. During the procedure, the stapes bone in the middle ear is removed and replaced with a prosthesis. Fine hooks of various angles are used to delicately manipulate and remove the stapes bone without causing damage to surrounding structures.

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142. The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the:

Explanation

The epididymis is a structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis. It is responsible for storing and maturing sperm before they are ejaculated. It is connected to the testis by the efferent ductules and is involved in the transport and concentration of sperm. The prostate is a gland located below the bladder and is not directly associated with the testis. The tunica vaginalis is a serous membrane that covers the testis, while the ejaculatory duct is a part of the male reproductive system but is not located along the posterior border of the testis.

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143. Why is cardioplegia used?

Explanation

Cardioplegia is used to cause diastolic arrest, which refers to the temporary cessation of the heart's diastolic phase. This is important during cardiac surgery as it allows surgeons to work on a still heart, reducing the risk of damage and facilitating better surgical outcomes. By inducing diastolic arrest, cardioplegia helps to protect the heart muscle and provide a bloodless surgical field, allowing the surgeon to perform procedures more safely and effectively.

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144. What drainage device is preferred for a radical neck dissection?

Explanation

The Jackson-Pratt drainage device is preferred for a radical neck dissection. This device consists of a soft, flexible tube connected to a bulb that creates a vacuum to remove excess fluids from the surgical site. It is commonly used in neck surgeries because it allows for effective drainage and prevents the accumulation of fluid, reducing the risk of infection and promoting healing. The other options mentioned, T-tube, Penrose, and Malecot, are not typically used in radical neck dissections.

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145. A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a:

Explanation

A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a needle biopsy. This procedure involves the insertion of a thin needle into the prostate gland to collect tissue samples for examination under a microscope. It is used to determine if cancer cells are present in the prostate and to assess the severity and stage of the cancer. Other options like TURP, KUB, and cystostomy are not specific diagnostic procedures for prostatic cancer.

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146. Which of the following procedures may require use of a manometer to check CSF pressure?

Explanation

A ventriculoperitoneal shunt is a surgical procedure used to treat hydrocephalus, a condition characterized by the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain. During this procedure, a shunt is placed to divert excess CSF from the ventricles of the brain to the peritoneal cavity. Checking CSF pressure is important in this procedure to ensure that the shunt is functioning properly and effectively relieving the pressure. A manometer is a device used to measure pressure, so it may be used to check the CSF pressure in a ventriculoperitoneal shunt procedure.

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147. Thought processes take place in the:

Explanation

The cerebral cortex is responsible for thought processes. It is the outer layer of the brain and is involved in various higher cognitive functions such as perception, attention, memory, language, and problem-solving. It plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and coordinating motor functions. The cerebral cortex contains different regions that specialize in different tasks, allowing for complex thought processes to occur.

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148. The structure that allows the eardrum to vibrate freely and connects the middle ear and the oropharynx is the:

Explanation

The Eustachian tube is the structure that allows the eardrum to vibrate freely and connects the middle ear and the oropharynx. It is responsible for equalizing pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere, which helps to maintain normal hearing and prevent damage to the eardrum.

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149. The laboratory test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to whole blood is

Explanation

Hematocrit is a laboratory test that measures the ratio of erythrocytes (red blood cells) to whole blood. It is used to evaluate the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total volume of blood. This test is important in diagnosing conditions such as anemia or polycythemia, as it provides information about the blood's ability to deliver oxygen to the body's tissues. A low hematocrit value may indicate anemia, while a high value may suggest polycythemia or dehydration. Therefore, hematocrit is the correct answer for the given question.

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150. Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eyes?

Explanation

The iris is the structure that regulates the amount of light entering the eyes. It is the colored part of the eye and contains muscles that control the size of the pupil. The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris and can expand or contract to adjust the amount of light that enters the eye. When the iris muscles contract, the pupil becomes smaller, reducing the amount of light that enters. Conversely, when the iris muscles relax, the pupil becomes larger, allowing more light to enter the eye.

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151. The high ligation of the gonodal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an:

Explanation

Varicocelectomy is the correct answer because it involves the high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes to reduce venous plexus congestion. This procedure is commonly performed to treat varicoceles, which are enlarged veins in the scrotum that can cause discomfort and potentially affect fertility. By ligating the veins, blood flow is redirected and the congestion is reduced, improving symptoms and potentially improving fertility. Spermatocelectomy, epididymectomy, and vasovasostomy are all different procedures that do not involve the ligation of the gonadal veins and are not specifically performed to reduce venous plexus congestion.

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152. Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy?

Explanation

Culdocentesis is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy. This procedure involves inserting a needle into the space behind the vagina to collect fluid for analysis. It is used to detect the presence of blood or other fluids that may indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Colposcopy is a procedure used to examine the cervix and vagina for abnormalities, while culdotomy and colporrhaphy are surgical procedures unrelated to ectopic pregnancy.

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153. What radiaopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the patient is allergic to iodine?

Explanation

Renograffin is a radiopaque contrast medium that can be used intraoperatively when a patient is allergic to iodine. It is an alternative to iodine-based contrast agents and can be used to enhance visibility during surgical procedures. Renograffin is a non-ionic contrast medium that does not contain iodine, making it suitable for patients with iodine allergies. It is commonly used in urological procedures and has a low risk of adverse reactions compared to iodine-based contrast agents.

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154. Which of the following laser would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye?

Explanation

Carbon dioxide laser would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye because it operates in the infrared wavelength range and has a high water absorption coefficient. The high water absorption would cause excessive thermal damage to the surrounding tissues, making it unsuitable for delicate procedures in the posterior chamber.

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155. The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the :

Explanation

The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the X, also known as the vagus nerve. This nerve plays a crucial role in controlling various functions of the digestive system, including the secretion of gastric juice. It stimulates the release of gastric acid, enzymes, and mucus in the stomach, aiding in the digestion process. Dysfunction of the vagus nerve can lead to digestive disorders such as gastroparesis or excessive gastric acid production.

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156. A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:

Explanation

The correct answer is Glomerulus. The glomerulus is a capillary network of blood vessels located within the renal cortex of the kidney. It functions as a filter by allowing water and small molecules to pass through while preventing larger molecules, such as proteins and blood cells, from entering the filtrate. This filtration process is an important step in the formation of urine and plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and eliminating waste products. The glomerulus is a key component of the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for urine production.

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157. The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulse is:

Explanation

Sodium is the most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulse. It plays a crucial role in generating electrical signals in neurons and muscle cells. Sodium ions are involved in depolarization, where they move into the cell, triggering an action potential and allowing the transmission of nerve impulses. This influx of sodium ions is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and the transmission of signals between cells.

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158. Which of the following items should not be sterilized by dry heat ?

Explanation

C Dry heat is a type of sterilization process used for sterilizing oils, powder and petoleum gauzethat will be used in surgery.

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159. Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made?

Explanation

The incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure is made in the canine fossa. This procedure involves creating an opening into the maxillary sinus through the canine fossa to treat conditions such as chronic sinusitis or to remove tumors or cysts. The canine fossa is a depression in the maxilla bone located below the eye and above the upper teeth. Making the incision in this area allows for direct access to the maxillary sinus.

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160. A chemical reaction that provides energy by breakdown of food is:

Explanation

Catabolism is the correct answer because it refers to the chemical reactions in the body that break down complex molecules, such as food, into simpler ones, releasing energy in the process. This process is essential for obtaining energy from the food we consume and is a key component of metabolism. Anabolism, on the other hand, refers to the chemical reactions that build complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy input. Metabolism encompasses both anabolism and catabolism, as it includes all the chemical reactions that occur in an organism to maintain life. Commensalism is a type of ecological relationship between two organisms, unrelated to chemical reactions in the body.

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161. What procedure is performed to correct a chronic celebral ischemia?

Explanation

Endarterectomy is the correct answer because it is a surgical procedure used to remove plaque buildup from the inside of an artery, specifically in this case, to correct chronic cerebral ischemia. This procedure helps to restore blood flow to the brain by removing the blockage and reducing the risk of stroke or other complications associated with reduced blood flow. Rhizotomy is a procedure to sever nerve roots in the spinal cord, Cranioplasty is a surgical repair of a defect or deformity of the skull, and Arteriography is a diagnostic procedure to visualize the arteries using contrast dye.

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162. Which of the following sterilizers operatives with condition, exposure, exhaust and dry cycles?

Explanation

Gravity air displacement sterilizers operate with condition, exposure, exhaust, and dry cycles. This means that they create a vacuum to remove air from the chamber, allowing steam to penetrate and sterilize the items inside. The exposure phase ensures that the items are exposed to the sterilizing agent for a sufficient amount of time, while the exhaust phase removes the sterilizing agent and any remaining air from the chamber. Finally, the dry cycle removes any moisture from the items, ensuring they are ready for use.

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163. Why is the orientation of the vein graft reversed during a CABG?

Explanation

The orientation of the vein graft is reversed during a CABG (Coronary Artery Bypass Graft) surgery because of the presence of valves. Veins have valves that allow blood flow in one direction, towards the heart. By reversing the vein graft, the valves are positioned correctly to ensure proper blood flow from the graft to the coronary artery, bypassing any blockages. This helps to improve blood circulation and supply oxygen to the heart muscle, reducing the risk of complications such as atherosclerosis.

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164. Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?

Explanation

The semicircular canals are responsible for equilibrium. These structures are part of the inner ear and are filled with fluid. When the head moves, the fluid in the canals also moves, which sends signals to the brain about the body's position and movement. This information helps to maintain balance and coordination.

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165. Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?

Explanation

Iridectomy is a procedure for the treatment of glaucoma. It involves the surgical removal of a portion of the iris, which helps to improve the drainage of fluid from the eye. By creating a small hole in the iris, the surgeon allows the fluid to flow more easily, reducing the pressure inside the eye. This procedure is often performed when other treatments, such as medication or laser therapy, have not been successful in controlling the glaucoma.

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166. Which of the following neurosurgical retractors is handheld?

Explanation

Scoville is a handheld neurosurgical retractor. This means that it is designed to be held and operated by hand, allowing the surgeon to manually retract and hold tissues during surgery. The other options, Greenburg, Leyla, and Beckman, may be different types of neurosurgical retractors, but there is no information provided to suggest that they are handheld. Therefore, Scoville is the correct answer as it is specifically mentioned as a handheld retractor.

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167. During a strabismus correction, resection has a greater effect on which muscle?

Explanation

During a strabismus correction, resection refers to the surgical procedure of shortening a muscle. In this context, resecting the medial rectus muscle will have a greater effect. The medial rectus muscle is responsible for inward movement of the eye (adduction). By shortening this muscle, it becomes less powerful, reducing its ability to pull the eye inward. This can help correct strabismus, which is a condition where the eyes are misaligned and do not point in the same direction. Resecting the other muscles listed (superior rectus, inferior rectus, and lateral rectus) would not have as significant an effect on correcting strabismus.

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168. Which of the following is a non-electrolytic and isotonic solution used during a TURP?

Explanation

Glycine is a non-electrolytic and isotonic solution used during a TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate). It is commonly used as an irrigation fluid during the procedure due to its non-conductive properties, which helps prevent electrical burns. Additionally, glycine is isotonic, meaning it has the same concentration of solutes as body fluids, making it compatible with the body's cells and minimizing the risk of fluid imbalances. Saline, distilled water, and Ringer's lactate are not non-electrolytic and isotonic solutions commonly used during a TURP.

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169. In what position would a patient be placed following a tonsillectomy?

Explanation

Following a tonsillectomy, a patient would be placed in a lateral position. This position involves lying on one side with the head slightly elevated. Placing the patient in a lateral position helps to prevent aspiration and facilitates drainage of secretions from the mouth and throat. It also allows for easy access to the surgical site and helps to maintain the airway during the procedure.

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170. Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?

Explanation

Absorbable collagen is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection because it is derived from animal sources and can potentially introduce foreign pathogens into the wound site, leading to further infection. In contrast, topical thrombin, oxidized cellulose, and absorbable gelatin do not carry the same risk of introducing infection and can be safely used as hemostatic agents.

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171. In which procedure would a Bookwalter retractor be used?

Explanation

A Bookwalter retractor is a surgical instrument used to hold back the edges of an incision, providing better visualization and access to the surgical site. In a retropubic prostatectomy, the surgeon removes the prostate gland through an incision in the lower abdomen. This procedure requires a retractor to hold back the surrounding tissues and organs, allowing the surgeon to safely and effectively remove the prostate gland. Therefore, a Bookwalter retractor would be used in a retropubic prostatectomy.

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172. Which cranial nerve is severed as a last ressort treatment of Meniere's disease?

Explanation

The correct answer is VIII. Meniere's disease is a disorder of the inner ear that causes episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. In severe cases where other treatments have failed, a surgical procedure called vestibular nerve section may be performed. This involves severing the vestibular branch of the eighth cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve. By cutting this nerve, the brain can no longer receive signals from the affected ear, which helps to alleviate symptoms of vertigo.

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173. Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes?

Explanation

Polyester fiber is the least inert of the synthetic meshes because it is more reactive and prone to degradation compared to the other options. This means that it is more likely to cause an inflammatory response or tissue reaction when used as a mesh material in medical applications. PTFE, polypropylene, and polyglactin910 are all more inert and have a lower risk of causing adverse reactions in the body.

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174. Which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with myopa?

Explanation

Radial keratotomy is a surgical procedure performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia. During this procedure, small incisions are made in a radial pattern on the cornea, which flattens the central part of the cornea, allowing light to focus properly on the retina. This helps to correct nearsightedness and improve vision. Scleral buckling, keratoplasty, and vitrectomy are not performed to specifically improve the vision of patients with myopia, making them incorrect choices.

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175. What is a frequently used IV barbiturate for general anesthesia induction?

Explanation

Thiopental is a frequently used IV barbiturate for general anesthesia induction. It is commonly used due to its rapid onset of action and short duration of effect, making it ideal for inducing anesthesia quickly. Thiopental acts by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, leading to sedation and unconsciousness. It is commonly used in surgical procedures and is considered a safe and effective option for anesthesia induction.

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The principal male hormone produced in the testis is:
Which organisation has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare...
What are the sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the...
When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the...
What action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs...
What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove...
A patient's fingernail polish is removed to:
A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap...
What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical...
What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and release...
Which of the following psychosocial factors is important for the...
The basic unit of the nervous system is the
What type of procedure might require a laparoscopic combination drape?
The roof of the mouth is formed by the:
What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult...
What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of...
Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing...
Covering a sterile backtable for later use
What is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20...
Which of the following sterilization processs is most economical?
What is done to the umbilicus during the abdominal skin prep?
What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the...
Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the...
Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at...
Which chemical substance causes the immune system to form antibodies?
Following a TURP, a patient may have which of the following placed for...
Which of the following types of suture createthe least tissue trauma...
In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what other factor...
What agent is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a...
Low level desinfectants kill most microbes, but typically do not...
Which technique is not acceptable when draping?
The inner lining of the uterus is the
The basic, living structural and functional unit of the body is known...
Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic...
Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?
Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of...
Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the...
Frozen sections are sent to pathology:
Kantrex, bacitracin or Ancef mixed with saline for irrigation would do...
What is a verres needle used for during a laparoscopy?
Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy?
Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a...
Which of the following catheter tips is used in patient with a...
How is the patient positioned on the OR table for a knee arthroscopy?
All of the following statements are true for paper-plastic peel packs,...
Approximately how many milliliters equal two (2) ounces
What is the risk if a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of...
Which of the following is used in intraoperatively to assess vascular...
What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep?
How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the...
What procedure involves a series of treatments that result in...
What classification of drug reduces tissue inflammation?
What type of specialty equipment uses liquid nitrogen and often...
Which surgical speciality would urilize a phacoemulsification machine?
To maintain control of the stretcher, the patient should be...
Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with
What is the result of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic?
Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient...
Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when...
What is the best site for obtaining cortical bone graft?
Which of the following can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm...
What is the name of this retractor?
The device used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow...
What is the surgical technologist's role during the transfer of...
Which of the following must be in the chart prior to the patient being...
The kidneys are located in the :
A second intention wound heals by :
Which of the following is a correct statement when using the...
 During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR...
The needle holder shown below would be used during a :
How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized...
According to the rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the...
The pacemaker of the heart is/are the:
 In the OR, HEPA is a type of:
What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?
What is the recommended method of hair removal from an operative site?
The set of teeth that erupt at about 6 months of age and are later...
How long must an item must be immersed in glutaraldehyde to be...
Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by
The correct sterilization times required to render specific items...
When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what...
The unsterile size of the perimeter of a sterile wrap is:
When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should...
An indentification bracelet is placed on a surgical patient upon...
Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is most applicable to...
What does the term strike-through mean?
Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are:
What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a...
What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges contains...
If an ophtalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely...
Which heat-resistant, spore-forming Bacillus does the steam...
Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia
Which of the following needles would be used for a liver biopsy?
The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the
Which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field...
The facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the...
The first step of urine production when fluids and dissolved subtances...
Which of the following is not a type of sterilizing agent?
The instrument shown below would be used during a
In which of the following cases might the surgeon use a Gigli saw?
Which of the following monitoring devices would be used within a...
Which area is prepped last when performing the skin prep for a...
For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require...
What is the purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling Foley...
The adipose tissue averlying the symphysis is the
Untreated acute otitis media may result in:
Preoperative bladder drainage prior to a D & C would be performed...
How many hours is the steam biological indicator incubated?
Which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells
Which of the following is a method of bacterial survival when...
Which of the following incisions may be used for the repair of a...
Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in...
Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the...
Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing?
In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia?
The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:
What precaution is utilized to prevent cardiovascular complications...
A substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on...
Which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only...
At what point is it appropriate to lower the leg when draping for a...
Polymethyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the...
Which of the following fascilitates exposure for thyroidectomy?
The sterile surgical technologist should drapea table from:
Which of the following procedure is performed for cervical...
What is the most abundant ion in the body?
When characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis?
Which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a...
The shared passageway for food and air is the:
What is a surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media?
Which of the following instrument sets will be needed when a frontal...
Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
Which nerve could be damaged by improperly padded stirrups?
Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of...
Brachytherapy is performed to treat
Which of the following ateries does not arise directly from the aorta?
An axllary role is placed for lateral positioning to
Which incisional approach would be used for a splenectomy?
In which structure of the heart are the leads for a permanent...
Excision of a constricted  segment of the aorta with...
For which of the following diagnose would a patient undergo retrograde...
In which of the following procedures would fine hooks of various...
The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is...
Why is cardioplegia used?
What drainage device is preferred for a radical neck dissection?
A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic...
Which of the following procedures may require use of a manometer to...
Thought processes take place in the:
The structure that allows the eardrum to vibrate freely and connects...
The laboratory test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to...
Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eyes?
The high ligation of the gonodal veins of the testes performed to...
Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy?
What radiaopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the...
Which of the following laser would be contraindicated for use in the...
The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the :
A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that...
The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of...
Which of the following items should not be sterilized by dry heat ?
Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made?
A chemical reaction that provides energy by breakdown of food is:
What procedure is performed to correct a chronic celebral ischemia?
Which of the following sterilizers operatives with condition,...
Why is the orientation of the vein graft reversed during a CABG?
Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?
Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?
Which of the following neurosurgical retractors is handheld?
During a strabismus correction, resection has a greater effect on...
Which of the following is a non-electrolytic and isotonic solution...
In what position would a patient be placed following a tonsillectomy?
Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in...
In which procedure would a Bookwalter retractor be used?
Which cranial nerve is severed as a last ressort treatment of...
Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes?
Which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with...
What is a frequently used IV barbiturate for general anesthesia...
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