Aptitude Test -4 (Major)

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Aptitude Test -4 (Major) - Quiz

Read this before you attempt the quiz. ALUMINI TALK- BHAVIN TITA Hello friends, Here I am sharing my thoughts about my experience related to placement and job. But you all just have to adapt what is for you, because thinking and goals for all individuals are different.
-Placement time You have to decide whether to take placement or not. Because impression of our college is worsen by the fact that our student just took placement for show off and after getting that they are not joining. After which company Read morewon't do placement drive in those colleges. And you also know that now not much companies are visiting our college so this must be decided. And by doing this stupid thing you also don't allow other student who is in need of job. You don't have that right to break some1's dream or career. For placement time I will suggest you that you must b positive & adaptive whatever comes to you. I found 70% companies require positive & Adaptive approach of students in all condition, nothing else. Even you failed to answer single Qs in P. I., you will get selected if they find positivity and adaptability in you. Aptitude of most of companies will be avg. You don't have to do special preparation for aptitude, just refer ur syllabus of civil subjects, mainly: Structural Mechanics and


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Robert is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph, he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?

    • A.

      8 kmph

    • B.

      11 kmph

    • C.

      12 kmph

    • D.

      14 kmph

    Correct Answer
    C. 12 kmph
    Explanation
    Let the distance travelled by x km.

    Then, x - x = 2
    10 15
    3x - 2x = 60

    x = 60 km.

    Time taken to travel 60 km at 10 km/hr = 60 hrs = 6 hrs.
    10
    So, Robert started 6 hours before 2 P.M. i.e., at 8 A.M.

    Required speed = 60 kmph. = 12 kmph.
    5

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 36. What is the difference between the sum and the difference of the digits of the number if the ratio between the digits of the number is 1 : 2 ?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. 8
    Explanation
    Since the number is greater than the number obtained on reversing the digits, so the ten's digit is greater than the unit's digit.

    Let ten's and unit's digits be 2x and x respectively.

    Then, (10 x 2x + x) - (10x + 2x) = 36

    9x = 36

    x = 4.

    Required difference = (2x + x) - (2x - x) = 2x = 8.

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  • 3. 

    A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.

    • A.

      Rs. 1900

    • B.

      Rs. 2660

    • C.

      Rs. 2800

    • D.

      Rs. 2840

    Correct Answer
    B. Rs. 2660
    Explanation
    For managing, A received = 5% of Rs. 7400 = Rs. 370.

    Balance = Rs. (7400 - 370) = Rs. 7030.

    Ratio of their investments = (6500 x 6) : (8400 x 5) : (10000 x 3)

    = 39000 : 42000 : 30000

    = 13 : 14 : 10

    B's share = Rs. 7030 x 14 = Rs. 2660.
    37

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  • 4. 

    Free notebooks were distributed equally among children of a class. The number of notebooks each child got was one-eighth of the number of children. Had the number of children been half, each child would have got 16 notebooks. Total how many notebooks were distributed ?

    • A.

      256

    • B.

      432

    • C.

      512

    • D.

      640

    Correct Answer
    C. 512
    Explanation
    Let total number of children be x.

    Then, x x 1 x = x x 16 x = 64.
    8 2
    Number of notebooks = 1 x2 = 1 x 64 x 64 = 512.
    8 8

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  • 5. 

    From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:

    • A.

      149 m

    • B.

      156 m

    • C.

      173 m

    • D.

      200 m

    Correct Answer
    C. 173 m
    Explanation
    Let AB be the tower.



    Then, APB = 30º and AB = 100 m.

    AB = tan 30º = 1
    AP 3
    AP = (AB x 3) m
    = 1003 m
    = (100 x 1.73) m
    = 173 m.

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  • 6. 

    The smallest number which when diminished by 7, is divisible 12, 16, 18, 21 and 28 is:

    • A.

      1008

    • B.

      1015

    • C.

      1022

    • D.

      1032

    Correct Answer
    B. 1015
    Explanation
    Required number = (L.C.M. of 12,16, 18, 21, 28) + 7

    = 1008 + 7

    = 1015

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  • 7. 

    Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately?

    • A.

      1 hour

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      6 hours

    • D.

      8 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 hours
    Explanation
    Let's assume that pipe A can fill the cistern in x hours. According to the given information, pipe B would have taken (x+6) hours to fill the cistern if it was opened separately.

    When both pipes are opened together, they can fill the cistern in 4 hours. This means that in 1 hour, they can fill 1/4th of the cistern's capacity.

    In 1 hour, pipe A can fill 1/xth of the cistern's capacity, and pipe B can fill 1/(x+6)th of the cistern's capacity.

    Since they can fill 1/4th of the cistern's capacity in 1 hour when opened together, we can set up the equation:

    1/x + 1/(x+6) = 1/4

    Solving this equation, we find that x = 6.

    Therefore, pipe A will take 6 hours to fill the cistern separately.

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  • 8. 

    8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of water is 16 : 81. How much wine did the cask hold originally?

    • A.

      18 litres

    • B.

      24 litres

    • C.

      32 litres

    • D.

      42 litres

    Correct Answer
    B. 24 litres
    Explanation
    Let the quantity of the wine in the cask originally be x litres.

    Then, quantity of wine left in cask after 4 operations = x 1 - 8 4 litres.
    x
    x(1 - (8/x))4 = 16
    x 81
    1 - 8 4 = 2 4
    x 3
    x - 8 = 2
    x 3
    3x - 24 = 2x

    x = 24.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    How many bricks, each measuring 25 cm x 11.25 cm x 6 cm, will be needed to build a wall of 8 m x 6 m x 22.5 cm?

    • A.

      5600

    • B.

      6000

    • C.

      6400

    • D.

      7200

    Correct Answer
    C. 6400
    Explanation
    Number of bricks = Volume of the wall = (800 x 600 x 22.5/ = 6400.
    Volume of 1 brick 25 x 11.25 x 6)

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card (Jack, Queen and King only)?

    • A.

      1/13 13

    • B.

      3/13

    • C.

      1/4

    • D.

      9/52

    Correct Answer
    B. 3/13
    Explanation
    Clearly, there are 52 cards, out of which there are 12 face cards.

    P (getting a face card) = (12/ = (3/ .
    52) 13)

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins in front of him.

    • A.

      Avidly

    • B.

      Admiringly

    • C.

      Thoughtfully

    • D.

      Earnestly

    Correct Answer
    A. Avidly
    Explanation
    The word "avidly" means to do something eagerly or with great enthusiasm. In this context, the miser is gazing at the pile of gold coins with great eagerness or enthusiasm. This suggests that he is eagerly admiring the pile of gold coins, possibly because he values them greatly or desires them intensely.

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  • 12. 

    CORPULENT

    • A.

      Lean

    • B.

      Gaunt

    • C.

      Emaciated

    • D.

      Obese

    Correct Answer
    D. Obese
    Explanation
    Obese is the correct answer because it means excessively overweight or fat. It is the opposite of lean, gaunt, and emaciated, which all refer to being thin or skinny. Corpulent specifically refers to being overweight, so obese is the most suitable synonym for it.

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  • 13. 

    Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool

    • A.

      Imbecility

    • B.

      Senility

    • C.

      Dotage

    • D.

      Superannuation

    Correct Answer
    C. Dotage
    Explanation
    Dotage refers to the state of extreme old age when a person's mental and physical faculties deteriorate, causing them to behave foolishly or senilely. This term specifically denotes the condition of being mentally weak or feeble due to old age. It is often characterized by forgetfulness, confusion, and a decline in cognitive abilities. Therefore, dotage is the correct answer as it accurately describes the behavior of a person in extreme old age.

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  • 14. 

    I remember my sister taking me to the museum.

    • A.

      I remember I was taken to the museum by my sister

    • B.

      I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.

    • C.

      I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister.

    • D.

      I remember taken to the museum by my sister.

    Correct Answer
    B. I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "I remember being taken to the museum by my sister." This answer is correct because it uses the correct verb form "being taken" in the passive voice to indicate that the subject (the speaker) was the one being taken to the museum by their sister. The other answer choices either use incorrect verb forms or do not accurately convey the passive voice construction.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Since the beginning of history P : have managed to catch Q : the Eskimos and Red Indians R : by a very difficulty method S : a few specimens of this aquatic animal The Proper sequence should be:

    • A.

      QRPS

    • B.

      SQPR

    • C.

      SQRP

    • D.

      QPSR

    Correct Answer
    D. QPSR
    Explanation
    The correct sequence is QPSR. This is because the sentence in Q states that the Eskimos and Red Indians have managed to catch a few specimens of this aquatic animal. This is followed by P, which mentions that they have managed to catch them by a very difficult method. Then, S states that there are a few specimens of this aquatic animal. Finally, R mentions that they have managed to catch them. Therefore, the correct sequence is QPSR.

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  • 16. 

    Marathon is to race as hibernation is to

    • A.

      Winter

    • B.

      Bear

    • C.

      Dream

    • D.

      Sleep

    Correct Answer
    D. Sleep
    Explanation
    A marathon is a long race and hibernation is a lengthy period of sleep. The answer is not choice a or b because even though a bear and winter are related to hibernation, neither completes the analogy. (Choice c) is incorrect because sleep and dream are not synonymous

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  • 17. 

    Blueberries cost more than strawberries. Blueberries cost less than raspberries. Raspberries cost more than both strawberries and blueberries. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Uncertain

    • D.

      -

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Because the first two statements are true, raspberries are the most expensive of the three.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing even today. This paragraph best supports the statement that

    • A.

      Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today.

    • B.

      People even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters.

    • C.

      Academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work.

    • D.

      New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare.

    Correct Answer
    B. People even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters.
    Explanation
    The last sentence in the paragraph clearly gives support for the idea that the interest in Shakespeare is due to the development of his characters. Choice a is incorrect because the writer never makes this type of comparison. Choice c is wrong because even though scholars are mentioned in the paragraph, there is no indication that the scholars are compiling the anthology. Choice d is wrong because there is no support to show that most New Yorkers are interested in this work. There is no support for choice e either.

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  • 19. 

    Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient for internal use itself? Arguments: Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports. No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.

    • A.

      Only argument I is strong

    • B.

      Only argument II is strong

    • C.

      Either I or II is strong

    • D.

      Neither I nor II is strong

    Correct Answer
    A. Only argument I is strong
    Explanation
    Clearly, India can export only the surplus and that which can be saved after fulfilling its own needs, to pay for its imports. Encouragement to export cannot lead to shortages as it shall provide the resources for imports. So, only argument I holds.

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  • 20. 

    CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU

    • A.

      GRR

    • B.

      GSS

    • C.

      ISS

    • D.

      ITT

    Correct Answer
    C. ISS
    Explanation
    The first letters are in alphabetical order with a letter skipped in between each segment: C, E, G, I, K. The second and third letters are repeated; they are also in order with a skipped letter: M, O, Q, S, U.

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  • 21. 

    A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?

    • A.

      Between B and D

    • B.

      Between B and C

    • C.

      Between E and D

    • D.

      Between C and E

    Correct Answer
    B. Between B and C
    Explanation
    A is sitting between B and C because the given information states that A is sitting next to B and A is also sitting together with C. Therefore, the only position that satisfies both conditions is between B and C.

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  • 22. 

    The difference of level between a point below the plane of sight and one above, is the sum of two staff readings and an error would be produced equal to

    • A.

      The distance between the zero of gradient and the foot of the staff

    • B.

      Twice the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff

    • C.

      Thrice the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. Twice the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "twice the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff." This means that the error produced when calculating the difference in level between a point below the plane of sight and one above is equal to twice the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff. This suggests that the error increases as the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff increases.

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  • 23. 

    Offsets are measured with an accuracy of 1 in 40. If the point on the paper from both sources of error (due to angular and measurement errors) is not to exceed 0.05 cm on a scale of 1 cm = 20 m, the maximum length of offset should be limited to

    • A.

      14.14

    • B.

      28.28 m

    • C.

      200 m

    • D.

      None of these.

    Correct Answer
    B. 28.28 m
    Explanation
    The accuracy of 1 in 40 means that for every 40 units measured, there is a potential error of 1 unit. In this case, the scale is 1 cm = 20 m, so the maximum error allowed is 0.05 cm. To find the maximum length of offset, we can set up a proportion: 1 cm / 20 m = 0.05 cm / x. Solving for x, we find that x = 20 m. Therefore, the maximum length of offset should be limited to 20 m. However, none of the given options match this value, so the correct answer is "none of these."

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  • 24. 

    For a closed traverse the omitted measurements may be calculated

    • A.

      Length of one side only

    • B.

      Bearing of one side only

    • C.

      Both length and bearing of one side

    • D.

      Length or bearing of adjacent side

    • E.

      All the above.

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above.
    Explanation
    For a closed traverse, the omitted measurements can be calculated in various ways. The length of one side can be calculated using the other measurements and trigonometry. Similarly, the bearing of one side can be determined using the measurements of other sides. Additionally, both the length and bearing of a side can be calculated if the measurements of other sides are known. Lastly, the length or bearing of an adjacent side can be calculated using the measurements of other sides. Therefore, all of the mentioned options are correct and applicable for calculating the omitted measurements in a closed traverse.

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  • 25. 

    The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other end, is

    • A.

      L

    • B.

      0.67 L

    • C.

      0.85 L

    • D.

      1.5 L

    Correct Answer
    A. L
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the effective length of the compression member is equal to its actual length, L. This is because it is held in position and restrained in direction at one end, which prevents any lateral movement or buckling. However, it is only effectively restrained in direction at the other end, meaning that it can still experience some lateral movement or buckling, but to a lesser extent compared to being completely unrestrained. Therefore, the effective length is still equal to the actual length, L.

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  • 26. 

    For determination of allowable stress in axial compression, Indian Standard Institution has adopted

    • A.

      Euler's formula

    • B.

      Rankine formula

    • C.

      Engesser formula

    • D.

      Secant formula

    Correct Answer
    D. Secant formula
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Secant formula. The Indian Standard Institution has adopted the Secant formula for the determination of allowable stress in axial compression. The Secant formula takes into account the initial imperfections and the effect of slenderness ratio on the allowable stress. It provides a more accurate estimation of the allowable stress compared to other formulas such as Euler's formula, Rankine formula, and Engesser formula.

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  • 27. 

    In a liquid limit test, the moisture content at 10 blows was 70% and that at 100 blows was 20%. The liquid limit of the soil, is

    • A.

      35%

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      65%

    • D.

      None of these.

    Correct Answer
    C. 65%
    Explanation
    The liquid limit of the soil can be determined by finding the moisture content at the point where the soil transitions from a liquid to a plastic state. In this case, the moisture content at 10 blows is 70% and at 100 blows is 20%. As the number of blows increases, the moisture content decreases. Therefore, the moisture content at the liquid limit is between 20% and 70%. The only option within this range is 65%, so that is the correct answer.

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  • 28. 

    The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads 3 mm in diameter, is known

    • A.

      Liquid limit

    • B.

      Plastic limit

    • C.

      Shrinkage limit

    • D.

      Permeability limit

    Correct Answer
    B. Plastic limit
    Explanation
    The plastic limit is the minimum water content at which the soil starts to crumble when rolled into threads with a diameter of 3 mm. This means that the soil loses its plasticity and becomes brittle. The plastic limit is an important parameter in soil mechanics and is used to classify soils and determine their engineering properties. It helps in understanding the behavior of soils under different moisture conditions and is crucial in construction and geotechnical engineering projects.

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  • 29. 

    For a given material Young's modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GN/m2. The value of Poisson's ratio is

    • A.

      0.15

    • B.

      0.20

    • C.

      0.25

    • D.

      0.30

    • E.

      0.40

    Correct Answer
    E. 0.40
    Explanation
    The value of Poisson's ratio can be calculated using the formula: Poisson's ratio = (3 * modulus of rigidity - 2 * Young's modulus) / (2 * (modulus of rigidity + Young's modulus)). Plugging in the given values, we get (3 * 80 GN/m2 - 2 * 200 GN/m2) / (2 * (80 GN/m2 + 200 GN/m2)) = 40 GN/m2 / 560 GN/m2 = 0.0714. Therefore, the closest option to this value is 0.40.

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  • 30. 

    Latitude of a place is the angular distance from

    • A.

      Greenwich to the place

    • B.

      Equator to the poles

    • C.

      Equator to the nearer pole

    • D.

      Equator to the nearer pole along the meridian of the place

    • E.

      None of these.

    Correct Answer
    E. None of these.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "none of these." The latitude of a place is the angular distance between the equator and the place, measured along the meridian of the place. It is not the distance from Greenwich to the place or from the equator to the poles or nearer pole.

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  • 31. 

    Pick up the correct statement from the following :

    • A.

      Refraction correction is zero when the celestial body is in the zenith

    • B.

      Refraction correction is 33' when the celestial body is on the horizon

    • C.

      Refraction correction of celestial bodies depends upon their altitudes

    • D.

      All the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above.
    Explanation
    The correct statement is "all the above." This means that all of the previous statements are correct. Refraction correction is indeed zero when the celestial body is in the zenith, it is 33' when the celestial body is on the horizon, and the refraction correction of celestial bodies does depend upon their altitudes.

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  • 32. 

    For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an excess of

    • A.

      Thin particles

    • B.

      Flat particles

    • C.

      Elongated particles

    • D.

      Flaky paticles

    • E.

      All the above.

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above.
    Explanation
    The workability of concrete refers to its ability to be easily mixed, placed, and compacted. When the concrete aggregates contain an excess of thin particles, flat particles, elongated particles, or flaky particles, it can negatively affect the workability. Thin particles can increase the water demand and decrease the cohesion of the mixture, flat particles can reduce the compactability and increase the water demand, elongated particles can cause segregation and reduce the workability, and flaky particles can reduce the cohesiveness and increase the water demand. Therefore, if the concrete aggregates contain an excess of any of these particles, the workability will decrease.

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  • 33. 

    Pick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of cement

    • A.

      Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

    • B.

      Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

    • C.

      Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

    • D.

      Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

    Correct Answer
    A. Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3. This proportion of chemical ingredients is the correct ratio for making cement.

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  • 34. 

    Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at

    • A.

      Soffit level

    • B.

      Window sill level

    • C.

      Floor level

    • D.

      All the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above.
    Explanation
    Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at various levels for different purposes. The joint at the soffit level is needed to accommodate the construction sequence, especially when the walls are cast in multiple lifts. The joint at the window sill level allows for proper installation and alignment of windows. Lastly, the joint at the floor level is necessary to separate the wall from the floor slab and prevent cracking due to differential movement. Therefore, all of the above levels require horizontal construction joints in concrete walls.

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  • 35. 

    As per I.S. 456 - 1978, the pH value of water shall be

    • A.

      Less than 6

    • B.

      Equal to 6

    • C.

      Not less than 6

    • D.

      Equal to 7

    Correct Answer
    C. Not less than 6
    Explanation
    According to I.S. 456 - 1978, the pH value of water should be not less than 6. This means that the pH value of water can be equal to 6 or greater than 6, but it should not be less than 6. The pH value of water is an important parameter as it indicates the acidity or alkalinity of the water. A pH value less than 6 indicates acidic water, which can be detrimental to certain construction materials. Therefore, as per the given standard, the pH value of water should be not less than 6.

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  • 36. 

    Queen closer may be placed

    • A.

      In header course

    • B.

      In stretcher course

    • C.

      In header course next to first brick

    • D.

      In stretcher course next to first brick

    Correct Answer
    C. In header course next to first brick
    Explanation
    Queen closer refers to a brick that has been cut in such a way that one of its corners is removed. It is used to fill the gap left at the end of a course or to create a neat finish at the corners. In this case, placing the queen closer in the header course next to the first brick ensures that the gap is filled and the bricks are aligned properly. This helps to maintain the structural integrity of the wall and provides a clean and professional finish.

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  • 37. 

    Study the following line graph and answer the questions. Exports from Three Companies Over the Years (in Rs. crore) For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three Companies together are equal?

    • A.

      1995 and 1998

    • B.

      1996 and 1998

    • C.

      1997 and 1998

    • D.

      1995 and 1996

    Correct Answer
    D. 1995 and 1996
    Explanation
    Total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together, during various years are: In 1993 = Rs. (30 + 80 + 60) crores = Rs. 170 crores. In 1994 = Rs. (60 + 40 + 90) crores = Rs. 190 crores. In 1995 = Rs. (40 + 60 + 120) crores = Rs. 220 crores. In 1996 = Rs. (70 + 60 + 90) crores = Rs. 220 crores. In 1997 = Rs. (100 + 80 + 60) crores = Rs. 240 crores. In 1998 = Rs. (50 + 100 + 80) crores = Rs. 230 crores. In 1999 = Rs. (120 + 140 + 100) crores = Rs. 360 crores. Clearly, the total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together are same during the years 1995 and 1996.

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  • 38. 

    The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it. Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book   1.  If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these books?

    • A.

      Rs. 19,450

    • B.

      Rs. 21,200

    • C.

      Rs. 22,950

    • D.

      Rs. 26,150

    Correct Answer
    C. Rs. 22,950
    Explanation
    Based on the pie chart, the printing cost accounts for 40% of the total expenditure. Therefore, if the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 for printing, the total expenditure for the books would be 100% of the printing cost divided by 40%, which is Rs. 76,500. The royalty is represented by 30% of the total expenditure, so the amount of royalty to be paid for these books would be 30% of Rs. 76,500, which is Rs. 22,950.

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  • 39. 

    Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

    • A.

      1,3,9 ; 2,5,6 ; 4,7,8

    • B.

      1,3,9 ; 2,7,8 ; 4,5,6

    • C.

      1,2,4 ; 3,5,7 ; 6,8,9

    • D.

      1,3,6 ; 2,4,8 ; 5,7,9

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,3,9 ; 2,5,6 ; 4,7,8
    Explanation
    1, 3, 9 have one element placed inside a different element. 2, 5, 6 contain two mutually perpendicular lines dividing the figure into four parts. 4, 7, 8 have two similar elements (unequal in size) attached to each other

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  • 40. 

    Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      2 and 4 only

    • C.

      2 and 3 only

    • D.

      1 and 4 only

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The fig. (X) is similar to the Form VI. So, when a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in fig. (X), then is one of the faces of the cube. However, the cube in fig. (1) has two such faces and fig. (4) has a face which is completely shaded. So, these two cubes cannot be formed. Hence, only the cubes in figures (2) and (3) can be formed.

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