Ras Prelims 2013: Question Paper

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Tanmay Shankar
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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?

    • A.

      Parsvanath-Janatrika

    • B.

      Bindusara-Shakya

    • C.

      Skandagupta- Maurya

    • D.

      Chetak- Lichchhawi

    Correct Answer
    D. Chetak- Lichchhawi
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Chetak- Lichchhawi. Chetak was the name of the horse ridden by Maharana Pratap, a Rajput ruler of Mewar. The Lichchhavi clan was an ancient Indian clan that existed during the time of the Mahabharata. There is historical evidence to suggest that the Lichchhavis were associated with horses and cavalry, which makes the pairing of Chetak with Lichchhawi a correct match.

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  • 2. 

    Match List-I and List-II and choose your answer from the code given below: List-I                                 List-II (A) Rigveda                     (i) Gopatha (B) Samaveda                (ii) Shatpatha (C) Atharvaveda             (iii) Aitariya (D) Yajurveda                 (iv) Panchvisha Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

    • B.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

    • D.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv) (D)-(iii)

    Correct Answer
    C. (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii). This is because in the given list, Rigveda is matched with Aitariya, Samaveda is matched with Shatpatha, Atharvaveda is matched with Gopatha, and Yajurveda is matched with Panchvisha.

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  • 3. 

    The great Sankrit poet and dramatist, Rajshekhar lived at the court of:

    • A.

      Raja Bhoj

    • B.

      Mahipal

    • C.

      Mahendrapala-I

    • D.

      Indra-III

    Correct Answer
    C. Mahendrapala-I
    Explanation
    Rajshekhar, the great Sanskrit poet and dramatist, lived at the court of Mahendrapala-I.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following inscriptions of Askoka bans animal sacrifice on certain festive gathering that probably included a ban on animal killing as well?

    • A.

      Rock Edict I

    • B.

      Pillar Edict V

    • C.

      Rock Edict IX

    • D.

      Rock Edict IX

    Correct Answer
    B. Pillar Edict V
    Explanation
    Pillar Edict V is the correct answer because it is one of the inscriptions of Ashoka that bans animal sacrifice on certain festive gatherings. This suggests that there was likely a ban on animal killing as well during these gatherings. The other options, Rock Edict I and Rock Edict IX, do not specifically mention a ban on animal sacrifice or killing.

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  • 5. 

    Match List-I with List-II and choose your answer from the code given below:       List-I                               List-II (A) Diwan-i Arz               (i) Dealt with religious matters (B) Diwan-i Risalat          (ii) Dealt with State's correspondence (C) Diwan-i Insha            (iii) Dealt with Finance dept. (D) Diwan-i Wizarat         (iv) Dealt with Military dept.

    • A.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

    • B.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

    • C.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

    • D.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

    Correct Answer
    D. (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii). This is because Diwan-i Arz dealt with the military department, Diwan-i Risalat dealt with the state's correspondence, Diwan-i Insha dealt with the finance department, and Diwan-i Wizarat dealt with religious matters.

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  • 6. 

    Match the names of the books with that of the authors, and choose your answer from the code given below: Books                                        Authors (A) Alamgir namah                  (i) Muitamad Khan (B) Tabaqat-i Akbari                (ii) Munshi Mohd. Kazim (C) Chahar Chaman               (iii) Chandra Bhan Brahman (D) Iqbal namah-i Jahangir    (iv)  Nizamuddin Ahmad Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

    • B.

      A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

    • C.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

    • D.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

    Correct Answer
    D. (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i). This means that the book "Alamgir namah" is written by Munshi Mohd. Kazim, the book "Tabaqat-i Akbari" is written by Nizamuddin Ahmad, the book "Chahar Chaman" is written by Chandra Bhan Brahman, and the book "Iqbal namah-i Jahangir" is written by Muitamad Khan.

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  • 7. 

    Arrange the following uprisings against the British Colonial power in India prior to 1857 in the various parts of the country in correct order: (i)   Sepoy mutiny in Bengal (ii)  Kutch Rebellion (iii) Sepoy mutiny at Vellore (iv) Santhal uprising (v)  Kol uprising Code:

    • A.

      (i), (iii), (ii), (v), (iv)

    • B.

      (ii), (iii), (i), (v), (iv)

    • C.

      (iv), (i), (iii), (ii), (v)

    • D.

      (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v)

    Correct Answer
    D. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
    Explanation
    The correct order of the uprisings against the British Colonial power in India prior to 1857 is (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v). The Sepoy mutiny at Vellore occurred first, followed by the Sepoy mutiny in Bengal. The Kutch Rebellion took place after that, followed by the Santhal uprising and finally the Kol uprising.

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  • 8. 

    From where did Fareed, later who became Sher Shah Suri got his education from:

    • A.

      Sahsaram

    • B.

      Patna

    • C.

      Jaunpure

    • D.

      Lahore

    • E.

      *

    Correct Answer
    E. *
    Explanation
    Fareed, later known as Sher Shah Suri, received his education from Lahore.

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  • 9. 

    Read the statement (A) and (B) below and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (A) Not all the mansabdars were military officers (B) Those who held high civil post under the Mughals, were also mansabdars and were graded accordingly.

    • A.

      Both (A) and (B) are false.

    • B.

      Both (A) and (B) are true.

    • C.

      (A) is true, while (B) is false.

    • D.

      (A) is false, while (B) is true.

    Correct Answer
    B. Both (A) and (B) are true.
    Explanation
    The given statement (A) states that not all the mansabdars were military officers, which means that there were some mansabdars who held non-military positions. The given statement (B) further supports this by stating that those who held high civil posts under the Mughals were also mansabdars and were graded accordingly. Therefore, both (A) and (B) are true, as they provide complementary information about the mansabdars and their positions within the Mughal administration.

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  • 10. 

    Match the list of the Editors with that of the Papers/Magazines, they were editing: 'A' (Editors)                 'B' (Papers/Magazines) (1) S. A. Dange            (i) Navayug (2) Muzaffar Ahmad      (ii) Inqilab (3) Ghulam Husain       (iii) Labour Kissan Gazette (4) M. Singarvelu          (iv) The Socialist Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

    • B.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

    • C.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

    • D.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

    Correct Answer
    B. (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
  • 11. 

    Which one of the following is the correct Northward sequence of the relief features?

    • A.

      Zanskar Ranges, Pirpanjal Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Karakoram Ranges

    • B.

      Pirpanjal Ranges, Zanskar Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Karakoram Ranges

    • C.

      Karakoram Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Zankar Ranges, Pirpanjal Ranges

    • D.

      Pirpanjal Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Zankar Ranges, Karakoram Ranges

    Correct Answer
    B. Pirpanjal Ranges, Zanskar Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Karakoram Ranges
    Explanation
    The correct Northward sequence of the relief features is Pirpanjal Ranges, Zanskar Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Karakoram Ranges. This sequence starts with the Pirpanjal Ranges, which are located in the southern part of the region, followed by the Zanskar Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, and finally the Karakoram Ranges, which are the northernmost range. This sequence represents the northward progression of the relief features in the given region.

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  • 12. 

    During India's colonial period the theory of downward filtration was related to:

    • A.

      Railways

    • B.

      Education

    • C.

      Irrigation

    • D.

      Poverty alleviation

    Correct Answer
    B. Education
    Explanation
    During India's colonial period, the theory of downward filtration was related to education. This theory suggests that education should be provided to the upper classes first, and then gradually trickle down to the lower classes. This approach was favored by the colonial authorities, as it aimed to maintain the existing social hierarchy and prevent social mobility. By providing education primarily to the upper classes, the colonial authorities believed that the benefits of education would eventually reach the lower classes, albeit at a slower pace. This theory reflected the colonial government's approach towards education and its impact on social structure during that time.

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  • 13. 

    Palghat is situated between:

    • A.

      The Nilgiris and the Cardamon Hills

    • B.

      The Nilgiris and the Annamalai Hills

    • C.

      The Annamalai Hills and the Cardamon Hills

    • D.

      The Cardamon Hills and Palini Hills

    Correct Answer
    B. The Nilgiris and the Annamalai Hills
    Explanation
    Palghat is situated between the Nilgiris and the Annamalai Hills.

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  • 14. 

    Read the list of Ecological concerns and the year in which Acts were executed in India: Ecological concerns                                                    (1) Wildlife Protection                                                    (2) Environment Protection                                          (3) The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional          forest dwelerl's (Recognition of Forest Rights) (4) The Forest Conservation Policy                    Year, Act was passed (i) 1986 (ii) 2013 (iii) 1972 (iv) 1988 Which one of the following is the correct matching?

    • A.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

    • B.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

    • D.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

    Correct Answer
    A. (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
    Explanation
    The correct matching is (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv). The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in 1972, the Environment Protection Act was passed in 1986, the Recognition of Forest Rights Act was passed in 2006, and the Forest Conservation Policy was passed in 1988.

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  • 15. 

    Read the list of National Parks and Animals housed for conservation: National           Parks Animals (1) Bandipur       (i) Tiger reserve (2) Kaziranga     (ii) Elephant reserve (3) Sunderbans  (iii) One horn Rhinoceros reserve (4) Simlipal        (iv) Biosphere and Tiger reserve Which one of the following is the correct matching?

    • A.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

    • B.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

    • C.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

    • D.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

    Correct Answer
    B. (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
    Explanation
    The correct matching is (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii). This means that Bandipur National Park is an Elephant reserve, Kaziranga National Park is a One horn Rhinoceros reserve, Sunderbans National Park is a Biosphere and Tiger reserve, and Simlipal National Park is a Tiger reserve.

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  • 16. 

    Match the names of the authors with that of the books and choose your answer from the codes given below: Author                   Books (A) R. C. Dutt         (i) Indian Economic Thought-19th Century Perspectives (B) J. R. Mclane     (ii) The Economic History of India under Early British Rule (C) B. N Ganguli     (iii) Indian Nationalism and the Early Congress (D) Bipin Chandra   (iv) The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

    • B.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

    • D.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

    Correct Answer
    A. (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv). This is because R. C. Dutt is the author of "The Economic History of India under Early British Rule" (ii), J. R. Mclane is the author of "Indian Nationalism and the Early Congress" (iii), B. N Ganguli is the author of "Indian Economic Thought-19th Century Perspectives" (i), and Bipin Chandra is the author of "The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India" (iv).

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  • 17. 

    Which one of the following International waterways is operated through lock-system?

    • A.

      Suez Canal

    • B.

      Rhine River

    • C.

      Denube River

    • D.

      Panama Canal

    • E.

      *

    Correct Answer
    E. *
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Panama Canal. The Panama Canal is an international waterway that is operated through a lock-system. The lock-system allows ships to be raised and lowered to different water levels, enabling them to navigate through the canal. This lock-system is necessary due to the difference in elevation between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.

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  • 18. 

    Which group of minerals represents non-ferrous metals?

    • A.

      Nickel, Zinc, Copper, Aluminium

    • B.

      Nickel, Aluminium, Iron ore, Zinc

    • C.

      Copper, Pig iron, Nickel, Steel

    • D.

      Nickel, Carbon Steel, Aluminium, Zinc

    Correct Answer
    A. Nickel, Zinc, Copper, Aluminium
    Explanation
    The group of minerals that represents non-ferrous metals includes Nickel, Zinc, Copper, and Aluminium. Non-ferrous metals are metals that do not contain iron and are typically more resistant to corrosion than ferrous metals. Nickel, Zinc, Copper, and Aluminium are all examples of non-ferrous metals commonly used in various industries for their unique properties and applications.

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  • 19. 

    Which group of steel plants were established in India after independence?

    • A.

      Jamshedpur, Durgapur, Bhilai

    • B.

      Bhilai, Durgapur, Bhadravati

    • C.

      Bhilai, Durgapur, Rourkela

    • D.

      Kulti-Burnpur, Vishakapatnam, Salem

    Correct Answer
    C. Bhilai, Durgapur, Rourkela
    Explanation
    After India gained independence, the government of India established a group of steel plants in Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela. These steel plants were set up as part of the country's industrialization and development plans, aimed at boosting the manufacturing sector and meeting the growing demand for steel in the country. These plants played a crucial role in the economic growth of India by providing employment opportunities and contributing to the overall development of the steel industry in the country.

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  • 20. 

    Assertion (A): Cotton textile industry is spread all over India though cotton is produced in only a few parts. Reason (B): Its raw material does not loose weight during manufacturing. Which one of the following is the correct choice?

    • A.

      Assertion is correct and reason is also correct

    • B.

      Assertion is correct and reason is also correct.

    • C.

      Assertion is wrong but reason is correct.

    • D.

      Assertion and reason, both are wrong.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assertion is correct and reason is also correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Assertion is correct and reason is also correct." The assertion states that the cotton textile industry is spread all over India even though cotton is only produced in a few parts. The reason given is that the raw material, cotton, does not lose weight during manufacturing. This implies that the transportation of cotton over long distances is not a problem, as the weight remains the same. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason support each other and are correct.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the railway connecting the following two stations has been recognised as heritage railway line by UNESCO?

    • A.

      Siliguri and Darjeeling

    • B.

      Allahabad and Varanasi

    • C.

      Mumbai and Thane

    • D.

      Amritsar and Ludhiana

    Correct Answer
    A. Siliguri and Darjeeling
    Explanation
    Siliguri and Darjeeling have been recognized as a heritage railway line by UNESCO. This recognition is likely due to the historical significance and cultural value of the railway line connecting these two stations. The Siliguri-Darjeeling railway line, also known as the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, is famous for its narrow gauge tracks, scenic beauty, and the vintage steam locomotives that are still in use. It has been operational since the late 19th century and is considered an engineering marvel. The recognition by UNESCO highlights the importance of preserving and promoting this unique railway line as a cultural heritage site.

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  • 22. 

    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:  List-I                    List-II (A) Podzol              (i) Temperate steppe cool (B) Chernozem       (ii) Cool temperate (C) Spodsols          (iii) Hot and humid (D) Laterite             (iv) Humid cool temperate Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

    • B.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

    • D.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

    Correct Answer
    A. (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
  • 23. 

    Read the list of Societies and Sacred trees to them: Societies                        Sacred trees (1) Mundas                     (i) Tamarind (Tamarindus indica) (2) Bishnois                   (ii) Mahua (Bassia latifolia) (3) Tribes in Odisha     (iii) Bo tree/Pipal (Ficus religiosa) (4) Buddhists                 (iv) Khejri (Prosopin Cineraria) Which one of the following matching is correct?

    • A.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

    • B.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

    • D.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

    Correct Answer
    C. (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
  • 24. 

    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Aravalli Peak)      List-II (District) (A) Raghunathgarh          (i) Sirohi (B) Ser                          (ii) Sikar (C) Jarga                       (iii) Jaipur (D) Jaigarh                     (iv) Udaipur Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

    • B.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

    • C.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

    • D.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

    Correct Answer
    A. (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii). This means that Raghunathgarh is in Sirohi district, Ser is in Sikar district, Jarga is in Udaipur district, and Jaigarh is in Jaipur district.

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  • 25. 

    In which of the following countries mineral oil was economically drilled in 1857?

    • A.

      U.S.A.

    • B.

      Venezuela

    • C.

      Indonesia

    • D.

      Romania

    Correct Answer
    D. Romania
    Explanation
    In 1857, mineral oil was economically drilled in Romania.

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  • 26. 

    The 'Great Boundary Fault in Rajasthan lies along the

    • A.

      Bundi- Sawai Madhopur hills

    • B.

      Udaipur hills

    • C.

      Alwar hills

    • D.

      Shekhawati-Torawati hills

    Correct Answer
    A. Bundi- Sawai Madhopur hills
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Bundi- Sawai Madhopur hills. The Great Boundary Fault in Rajasthan is located along the Bundi-Sawai Madhopur hills. This fault line marks the boundary between the Aravalli Range and the Delhi Ridge. The Aravalli Range is a major mountain range in western India, while the Delhi Ridge is a hilly area in the National Capital Region. This fault line is significant in understanding the geological history and tectonic activity of the region.

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  • 27. 

    Match the monthly distribution of average temperature as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) in the given poly line graph with the following cities: (A) Ganganagar (B) Jaipur (C) Kota (D) Mt. Abu Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

    • B.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

    • D.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

    Correct Answer
    D. (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
  • 28. 

    Match the following irrigation projects and select your answer using the code given below: Projects                            Districts (1) Bankli Dam                (i) Pratapgarh (2) Som-Kamla-Amba   (ii) Sawai Madhopur (3) Morel Dam                 (iii) Jalore (4) Jakham Dam            (iv) Dungarpur Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

    • B.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)

    • D.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

    Correct Answer
    B. (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
  • 29. 

    Minerals in Rajasthan like Gypsum Rock-phosphate and Pyrites are essential for the manufacturing of-

    • A.

      Chemical fertilizers

    • B.

      Cement

    • C.

      Drugs

    • D.

      Sugar

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemical fertilizers
    Explanation
    Rajasthan is known for its rich mineral resources, including gypsum, rock-phosphate, and pyrites. These minerals are commonly used in the manufacturing of chemical fertilizers. Gypsum is used as a soil conditioner, rock-phosphate provides essential nutrients like phosphorus for plant growth, and pyrites are used in the production of sulfuric acid, which is a key component in the manufacturing of fertilizers. Therefore, the presence of these minerals in Rajasthan makes them essential for the production of chemical fertilizers.

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  • 30. 

    The following map is showing the location of wildlife sanctuaries in Rajasthan as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Identify and answer the correct sequence as given below the map.    

    • A.

      Bandberatha, Nahargarh, Sitamata, Phulwari-ki-Nal

    • B.

      Sitamata, Phulwari-ki-Nal, Bandberatha, Nahargarh

    • C.

      Nahargarh, Bandberatha, Phulwari-ki-Nal, Sitamata

    • D.

      Nahargarh, Sitamata, Bandberatha, Phulwari-ki-Nal

    Correct Answer
    C. Nahargarh, Bandberatha, Phulwari-ki-Nal, Sitamata
  • 31. 

    Match the following and select the correct answer using the code given below: Lead- Zinc Area               District (1) Debari                           (i) Sawai Madhopur (2) Rajpura- Dariba          (ii) Bhilwara (3) Rampura- Agucha      (iii) Rajsamand (4) Chouth-ka-Barwara    (iv) Udaipur Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

    • B.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

    • C.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

    • D.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

    Correct Answer
    B. (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
  • 32. 

    The correct sequence in descending order of the given districts in terms of density of population in 2011 is-

    • A.

      Kota, Ajmer, Ganganagar and Churu

    • B.

      Jaipur, Bharatpur, Dausa and Alwar

    • C.

      Jaipur, Ajmer, Alwar and Dausa

    • D.

      Alwar, Dausa, Ajmer and Churu

    Correct Answer
    B. Jaipur, Bharatpur, Dausa and Alwar
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Jaipur, Bharatpur, Dausa and Alwar. This can be determined by comparing the population densities of the districts in 2011. Jaipur has the highest population density, followed by Bharatpur, Dausa, and Alwar.

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  • 33. 

    Examine the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below: (A) Dry teak forests are concentrated in the southern part of Rajasthan. (B) Teak forests are found in areas having annual average rainfall 75 to 110 cm. (C) Subtropical evergreen forests are found on Mt. Abu. (D) Forests of western Rajasthan belong to mixed deciduous forest. Codes:

    • A.

      (A) and (B) are correct.

    • B.

      (B) and (C) are correct.

    • C.

      (C) and (D) are correct.

    • D.

      (A), (B) and (C) are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) are correct. The explanation for this answer is that statement (A) is true because dry teak forests are indeed concentrated in the southern part of Rajasthan. Statement (B) is true because teak forests are typically found in areas with an annual average rainfall of 75 to 110 cm. Statement (C) is true because subtropical evergreen forests can be found on Mt. Abu. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

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  • 34. 

    Match List-X with List-Y and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-X                                                                     List-Y (A) First Vice-President of                                  (i) V. T. Krishnamachari       Constituent Assembly (B) Originally the only Congress Member      (ii) Jawaharlal Nehru       of Draft Committee (C) Member of Constituent Assembly            (iii) K. M. Munshi       representing Rajasthan's Princely States (D) Chairman of Union Constitution               (iv) H. C. Mookerjee       Committee Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

    • B.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

    • C.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

    • D.

      (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)

    Correct Answer
    B. (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii). This means that the correct matching is:
    (A) First Vice-President of Constituent Assembly - H. C. Mookerjee
    (B) Originally the only Congress Member of Draft Committee - K. M. Munshi
    (C) Member of Constituent Assembly representing Rajasthan's Princely States - V. T. Krishnamachari
    (D) Chairman of Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru.

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  • 35. 

    According to Article 25 of the Constitution Right to Freedom of Religion is not subjected to:

    • A.

      Public order

    • B.

      Health

    • C.

      Morality

    • D.

      Humanism

    Correct Answer
    D. Humanism
    Explanation
    According to Article 25 of the Constitution, the right to freedom of religion is not subjected to humanism. This means that individuals have the right to practice and follow any religion of their choice, regardless of whether it aligns with humanistic beliefs or not. Humanism, which emphasizes the value and agency of human beings, does not restrict or limit an individual's freedom to practice their religion. Therefore, humanism is not considered a valid reason to curtail the right to freedom of religion as stated in Article 25.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following districts, according to 2011 Census, has the highest sex-ratio in the age group of 0-6 years?

    • A.

      Pratapgarh

    • B.

      Udaipur

    • C.

      Banswara

    • D.

      Bhilwara

    Correct Answer
    C. Banswara
    Explanation
    Banswara has the highest sex-ratio in the age group of 0-6 years according to the 2011 Census. Sex-ratio refers to the number of females per 1000 males in a given population. In this case, Banswara has the highest number of females in comparison to males in the age group of 0-6 years among the given districts.

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  • 37. 

    Consider the following statements regarding Article 356 of the constitution: (i) Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States is an objective reality. (ii) Proclamation under this article can be reviewed by Supreme Court. (iii) Along with this Proclamation, State Legislative Assembly can be dissolved. (iv) This Proclamation has to be approved by each House of Parliament within two months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A.

      (i), (ii) and (iv) only

    • B.

      (i), (ii) and (iii) only

    • C.

      (iii) and (iv) only

    • D.

      (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

    Correct Answer
    C. (iii) and (iv) only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (iii) and (iv) only. Statement (i) is incorrect because the failure of Constitutional Machinery in states is not an objective reality, but rather a subjective assessment made by the President. Statement (ii) is incorrect because the proclamation under Article 356 cannot be reviewed by the Supreme Court. However, statement (iii) is correct as the State Legislative Assembly can be dissolved along with the proclamation. Statement (iv) is also correct as the proclamation must be approved by each House of Parliament within two months.

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  • 38. 

    Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendments: (i) In Article 368, two methods of Constitutional Amendment are mentioned. (ii) Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated only in Lok Sabha. (iii) In case of any dispute between two Houses of Parliament on Constitutional Amendment Bill. Joint sitting of both houses can be summoned  (iv) The President cannot veto a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

    • A.

      (i) and (iii) only

    • B.

      (i) and (iv) only

    • C.

      (ii) and (iv) only

    • D.

      (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

    Correct Answer
    B. (i) and (iv) only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (i) and (iv) only.


    Statement (i) is correct as Article 368 of the Constitution of India mentions two methods of Constitutional Amendment, which are the special majority method and the special majority method with ratification by states.

    Statement (iv) is correct as the President does not have the power to veto a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Once the bill is passed by both Houses of Parliament with the required majority, it is sent to the President for his assent. The President's role is limited to giving his assent and he cannot refuse or veto the bill.

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  • 39. 

    According to Constitution among the following what is literally not a 'Power' of the President of India?

    • A.

      Promulgation of Ordinances

    • B.

      To consult Supreme Court

    • C.

      To send messages to Houses of Parliament

    • D.

      To grant Pardon

    • E.

      Question Wrong

    Correct Answer
    E. Question Wrong
  • 40. 

    Consider the following statements related to women members of 15th Lok Sabha: (i) They are less than 10% of the total members of the Lok Sabha. (ii) The maximum women members are from Indian National Congress. (iii) Three women members are elected from Rajasthan. (iv) The maximum women members are elected from Uttar Pradesh. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

    • A.

      (i), (ii) and (iii) only

    • B.

      (i), (iii) and (iv) only

    • C.

      (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

    • D.

      (i), (ii) and (iv) only

    Correct Answer
    C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (ii), (iii) and (iv) only. This is because statement (i) states that women members are less than 10% of the total members, but it does not specify the exact number or provide any information on which states they are from. Statement (ii) states that the maximum women members are from Indian National Congress, which provides specific information. Statement (iii) states that three women members are elected from Rajasthan, providing a specific number and state. Statement (iv) states that the maximum women members are elected from Uttar Pradesh, providing specific information.

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  • 41. 

    At Panchayat level, who has been notified as Public Hearing Officer for matters other than Revenue by Rajasthan Government?

    • A.

      Gram Sewak

    • B.

      Patwari

    • C.

      Sarpanch

    • D.

      Ward Panch

    Correct Answer
    A. Gram Sewak
    Explanation
    The Gram Sewak has been notified as the Public Hearing Officer for matters other than Revenue by the Rajasthan Government at the Panchayat level. This means that the Gram Sewak is responsible for conducting public hearings and addressing issues related to various matters, excluding revenue-related matters. They play a crucial role in ensuring transparency and accountability in the decision-making process at the Panchayat level.

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  • 42. 

    In Rajasthan a Gram Sabha consists of:

    • A.

      Elected members of Village Panchayat.

    • B.

      Executive committee of the Village Panchayat.

    • C.

      Registered voters of the village/villages in the Panchayat circle.

    • D.

      All residents of the village/villages in the Panchayat circle.

    Correct Answer
    C. Registered voters of the village/villages in the Panchayat circle.
    Explanation
    A Gram Sabha in Rajasthan consists of the registered voters of the village/villages in the Panchayat circle. This means that all eligible voters in the village have the right to participate in the Gram Sabha meetings and decision-making processes. The Gram Sabha serves as a platform for the villagers to discuss and address local issues, make decisions, and monitor the functioning of the Village Panchayat. It ensures that the voice of the villagers is heard and their interests are represented in the local governance system.

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  • 43. 

    Identify the incorrect pair of Case and Ruling in that case by Supreme Court:

    • A.

      Indira Sawhney Case- Creamy Layer for Other Backward classes

    • B.

      Vishakha Case- Protection of working women against sexual harassment at her place of work

    • C.

      Maneka Gandhi Case- Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclucive.

    • D.

      Bella Banerji Case- Right to travel abroad is part of personal liberty.

    Correct Answer
    D. Bella Banerji Case- Right to travel abroad is part of personal liberty.
    Explanation
    The given answer is incorrect. The correct pair of Case and Ruling is Maneka Gandhi Case- Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive. The Maneka Gandhi Case established that the right to travel abroad is a part of personal liberty and cannot be denied arbitrarily. The case expanded the scope of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, and emphasized that the fundamental rights enshrined in Articles 14, 19, and 21 are interconnected and should be interpreted harmoniously.

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  • 44. 

    Direction: Each of the next 3 questions consists of two statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these questions using the codes given below: Codes: Assertion (A): Castes are being Politicized in India. Reason (R): Casteism has been increasing in Indian Politics.

    • A.

      Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    • B.

      Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    • C.

      (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    • D.

      (A) is false, but (R) is true.

    • E.

      *

    Correct Answer
    A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    Explanation
    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). This means that castes are indeed being politicized in India, and the reason for this is the increasing prevalence of casteism in Indian politics. The assertion and reason both align and support each other, indicating a cause and effect relationship between the politicization of castes and the rise of casteism in Indian politics.

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  • 45. 

    Direction: Each of the next 3 questions consists of two statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these questions using the codes given below: Codes: Assertion (A): President of India is elected indirectly Reason (R): Parliamentary system in India has been combined with Republicanism.

    • A.

      Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    • B.

      Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    • C.

      (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    • D.

      (A) is false, but (R) is true.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)." This means that both the assertion and the reason are true statements. The reason states that the parliamentary system in India has been combined with Republicanism, which is why the President of India is elected indirectly. This explanation shows the connection between the two statements and supports the assertion.

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  • 46. 

    Consider the following and select correct answer by using code given below: (A) The Governor shall take other or affirmation before entering upon his office. (B) The format of oath or affirmation is given in the Third schedule of Indian Constitution. (C) The Governor shall make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in the presence of Chief Justice of the High Court or in his absence senior most judge of that Court. (D) The process of oath and affirmation is given in the Article 159 of Indian Constitution. Code:

    • A.

      (A), (B) and (C)

    • B.

      (A), (C) and (D)

    • C.

      (A), (B) and (D)

    • D.

      (A), (B), (C) and (D)

    Correct Answer
    B. (A), (C) and (D)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (A), (C) and (D). This is because according to the given information, the Governor is required to take an oath or affirmation before entering office (A). The process of taking the oath or affirmation is described in Article 159 of the Indian Constitution (D). Additionally, the Governor is required to make and subscribe to the oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court or the senior most judge in their absence (C). The format of the oath or affirmation is not mentioned in the given information, so option (B) is not included in the correct answer.

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  • 47. 

    Direction: Each of the next 3 questions consists of two statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these questions using the codes given below: Codes: Assertion (A): Women, Dalits Poor and Minority groups are the biggest stake holders of Democracy in India. Reason (R): Democracy in India has emerged as the carrier for the desire of Self Respect.

    • A.

      Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    • B.

      Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

    • C.

      (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    • D.

      (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    Explanation
    The assertion states that women, Dalits, the poor, and minority groups are the biggest stakeholders of democracy in India. The reason given is that democracy in India has emerged as the carrier for the desire of self-respect. Both the assertion and the reason are true. The reason explains why these groups are the biggest stakeholders of democracy in India.

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  • 48. 

    Select the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister from following by using code given below: (A) The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the affairs of the State. (B) The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the proposals for legislation. (C) The Chief Minister participates in the meetings of National Development Council. (D) The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council as if Governor requires. Code:

    • A.

      (A) and (B)

    • B.

      (A) and (D)

    • C.

      (A), (B) and (C)

    • D.

      (A), (B) and (D)

    Correct Answer
    D. (A), (B) and (D)
    Explanation
    The Chief Minister has the constitutional duty to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the affairs of the State. This ensures that the Governor is kept informed about the decisions made by the Council of Ministers. Additionally, the Chief Minister is responsible for communicating the proposals for legislation to the Governor. This allows the Governor to be aware of the legislative agenda of the state government. Furthermore, the Chief Minister is required to submit any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but has not been considered by the council, if the Governor requires it. This ensures that important matters are brought to the attention of the Council of Ministers for consideration.

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  • 49. 

    In which article of Indian Constitution the procedure for adoption of Official Language or Languages of State is given?

    • A.

      343

    • B.

      344

    • C.

      345

    • D.

      346

    Correct Answer
    C. 345
    Explanation
    Article 345 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for the adoption of the official language or languages of a state. This article empowers the state legislature to decide the language or languages to be used for official purposes within the state. It allows the state to adopt any language used in the state or Hindi as the official language, or both. The state legislature has the authority to pass a resolution to this effect, and the President's approval is required for the adoption of any language other than Hindi.

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  • 50. 

    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using code given below: List-I (Articles of Constitution)      List-II (Provision) (A) 215                                                 (i) Transfer of one Judge from one High Court to another (B) 222                                                 (ii) Powers of superintendence over all courts by the High Court (C) 226                                                 (iii) Power of High Court to issue certain writs      (D) 227                                                 (iv) High Court to be court of Record Code:

    • A.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

    • B.

      (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

    • C.

      (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

    • D.

      (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

    Correct Answer
    A. (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

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  • Mar 20, 2023
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