FAA Instrument Quiz #5

15 Questions | Total Attempts: 37

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FAA Instrument Quiz #5

To those of you who would like to know more about and all things about the Federal Aviation Administration then this is the quiz for you. If you are prepared to test your knowledge try it out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1. (Refer to figure 98 on page 2-102 and figure 99 on page 2-103 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
    • A. 

      A-9

    • B. 

      B--13

    • C. 

      C-19

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 2. 
    Select the ones you like. (Refer to figure 103 on page 2-107.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be
    • A. 

      A- 175 degrees

    • B. 

      B- 255 degrees

    • C. 

      C-355 degrees

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 3. 
    Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
    • A. 

      A- deflects from left side of the scale to right side of the scale.

    • B. 

      B-deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.

    • C. 

      C-deflects from half scale left to half scale right

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 4. 
    Where is DME required under IFR?
    • A. 

      A- Above 18,000 feet MSL.

    • B. 

      At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

    • C. 

      In positive control airspace.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 5. 
    What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
    • A. 

      A- To provide the latex information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcast.

    • B. 

      B-To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

    • C. 

      To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publications.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 6. 
    When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
    • A. 

      A-Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.

    • B. 

      B-Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

    • C. 

      C-Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 7. 
    The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
    • A. 

      The in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace

    • B. 

      The ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B,C, or D airspace.

    • C. 

      An IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 8. 
    When are you require to establish communications with the tower, (Class E airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?
    • A. 

      A- Immediately after canceling the flight plan.

    • B. 

      B-When advised by ARTCC.

    • C. 

      C-Before entering Class D airspace.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 9. 
    The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
    • A. 

      A-18,000 feet to and including FL450

    • B. 

      B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600.

    • C. 

      C-12,500 feet to and including FL600.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 10. 
    Class G airspace is that airspace where
    • A. 

      A- ATC does not control air traffic.

    • B. 

      B- ATC controls only IFR flights.

    • C. 

      C- the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 11. 
    (Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14.) What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR - on - Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for area 3?
    • A. 

      A- 2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000; (H) 500 feet.

    • B. 

      B- 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

    • C. 

      C- 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 12. 
    (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.) Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?
    • A. 

      A- 1,000 feet AGL.

    • B. 

      B- 2,500 feet AGL.

    • C. 

      C- 4,000 feet AGL.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 13. 
    (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?
    • A. 

      A- 500 feet AGL.

    • B. 

      B- 700 feet AGL

    • C. 

      C- 1,200 feet AGL

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 14. 
    (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?
    • A. 

      A- 14,500 feet MSL.

    • B. 

      B- 18,000 feet MSL.

    • C. 

      C- 60,000 feet MSL.

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 15. 
    (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?
    • A. 

      A- 4,000 feet MSL

    • B. 

      B- 10,000 feet MSL

    • C. 

      C- 14,500 feet MSL

    • D. 

      Option 4