# FAA Instrument Quiz #5

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To those of you who would like to know more about and all things about the Federal Aviation Administration then this is the quiz for you. If you are prepared to test your knowledge try it out.

• 1.

• A.

A-9

• B.

B--13

• C.

C-19

• D.

Option 4

C. C-19
• 2.

### Select the ones you like.(Refer to figure 103 on page 2-107.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be

• A.

A- 175 degrees

• B.

B- 255 degrees

• C.

C-355 degrees

• D.

Option 4

C. C-355 degrees
• 3.

### Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

• A.

A- deflects from left side of the scale to right side of the scale.

• B.

B-deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.

• C.

C-deflects from half scale left to half scale right

• D.

Option 4

B. B-deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
Explanation
In a CDI (Course Deviation Indicator), full scale deflection occurs when the course deviation bar or needle deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale. This means that the aircraft is deviating significantly from the desired course, and the CDI is indicating the maximum deviation possible.

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• 4.

### Where is DME required under IFR?

• A.

A- Above 18,000 feet MSL.

• B.

At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

• C.

In positive control airspace.

• D.

Option 4

B. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
Explanation
DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) is required under IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) at or above 24,000 feet MSL (Mean Sea Level) if VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) navigational equipment is needed. This means that when flying at or above this altitude and relying on VOR navigation, pilots must have DME equipment to accurately determine their distance from a VOR station. DME provides distance information, which is crucial for navigation and maintaining situational awareness in the airspace.

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• 5.

### What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

• A.

A- To provide the latex information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcast.

• B.

B-To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.

• C.

To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publications.

• D.

Option 4

C. To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publications.
Explanation
FDC NOTAMs serve the purpose of notifying pilots and other aviation personnel about changes in flight data that may impact instrument approach procedures, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions before they are officially published. This ensures that relevant parties are aware of any modifications or updates that may affect their operations and can make necessary adjustments accordingly.

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• 6.

### When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

• A.

A-Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.

• B.

B-Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

• C.

C-Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.

• D.

Option 4

B. B-Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Explanation
ATIS broadcasts are updated upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values. This means that even if there is no significant change in the weather conditions, the ATIS broadcasts will still be updated whenever new weather information is received. This ensures that pilots have the most up-to-date weather information available to them before they take off or during their flight.

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• 7.

### The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

• A.

The in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace

• B.

The ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B,C, or D airspace.

• C.

An IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.

• D.

Option 4

B. The ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B,C, or D airspace.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace. This is because the operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours is an indication of poor visibility and low ceiling conditions. In Class E airspace, the in-flight visibility can be less than 3 miles and the ceiling less than 1,500 feet, but the beacon is not necessary to be operational during daylight hours in this case. An IFR clearance requirement is not mentioned in relation to the operation of the beacon.

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• 8.

### When are you require to establish communications with the tower, (Class E airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?

• A.

A- Immediately after canceling the flight plan.

• B.

• C.

C-Before entering Class D airspace.

• D.

Option 4

C. C-Before entering Class D airspace.
Explanation
When canceling an IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination in Class E airspace, you are required to establish communications with the tower before entering Class D airspace. This is because Class D airspace requires two-way radio communication with the control tower, and canceling your IFR flight plan does not automatically grant you permission to enter Class D airspace. Therefore, it is important to establish communication with the tower before entering Class D airspace to ensure compliance with airspace regulations and maintain safety.

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• 9.

### The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from

• A.

A-18,000 feet to and including FL450

• B.

B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600.

• C.

C-12,500 feet to and including FL600.

• D.

Option 4

B. B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600.
Explanation
The correct answer is B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600. This means that Class A airspace in the conterminous U.S. extends vertically from 18,000 feet up to and including FL600. FL450 and FL600 are both included within this range.

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• 10.

### Class G airspace is that airspace where

• A.

A- ATC does not control air traffic.

• B.

B- ATC controls only IFR flights.

• C.

C- the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles

• D.

Option 4

A. A- ATC does not control air traffic.
Explanation
Class G airspace is uncontrolled airspace where air traffic control (ATC) does not provide services for managing air traffic. Pilots are responsible for their own separation and navigation in Class G airspace. This type of airspace is typically found in rural or remote areas where there is less air traffic and fewer navigation aids. In Class G airspace, pilots must rely on visual flight rules (VFR) and maintain appropriate separation from other aircraft.

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• 11.

### (Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14.) What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR - on - Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for area 3?

• A.

A- 2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000; (H) 500 feet.

• B.

B- 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

• C.

C- 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

• D.

Option 4

C. C- 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
Explanation
The correct answer is C- 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. According to the information provided in figure 92 on page 3-14, for a VFR - on - Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours in area 3, the minimum in-flight visibility required is 3 miles, the minimum distance from clouds is 1,000 feet vertically, 2,000 feet horizontally, and the minimum distance from clouds when flying over an airport is 500 feet.

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• 12.

### (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.) Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?

• A.

A- 1,000 feet AGL.

• B.

B- 2,500 feet AGL.

• C.

C- 4,000 feet AGL.

• D.

Option 4

B. B- 2,500 feet AGL.
Explanation
The correct answer is B- 2,500 feet AGL. According to Figure 93 on page 3-16, the normal upper limit for Class D airspace is 2,500 feet AGL.

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• 13.

### (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?

• A.

A- 500 feet AGL.

• B.

B- 700 feet AGL

• C.

C- 1,200 feet AGL

• D.

Option 4

B. B- 700 feet AGL
Explanation
The floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP is 700 feet AGL.

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• 14.

### (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?

• A.

A- 14,500 feet MSL.

• B.

B- 18,000 feet MSL.

• C.

C- 60,000 feet MSL.

• D.

Option 4

A. A- 14,500 feet MSL.
Explanation
The upper limit for Class A airspace is 14,500 feet MSL. This means that aircraft flying in Class A airspace must be at or above this altitude. Class A airspace is typically used for high-altitude, long-distance flights, and is controlled by air traffic control.

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• 15.

### (Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?

• A.

A- 4,000 feet MSL

• B.

B- 10,000 feet MSL

• C.

C- 14,500 feet MSL

• D.

Option 4

B. B- 10,000 feet MSL
Explanation
Class B airspace is generally defined as airspace surrounding the busiest airports, where there is a high volume of instrument flight rules (IFR) traffic. The maximum altitude for Class B airspace is typically 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL). This allows for separation of IFR traffic and provides a controlled environment for aircraft operating in and around the airport.

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• Current Version
• Mar 19, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Feb 07, 2014
Quiz Created by
Rkirk43

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