(II) - 4th Sem - Sae Baja Selection - Technical & Aptitude Quiz

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(II) - 4th Sem - Sae Baja Selection - Technical & Aptitude Quiz - Quiz

Quiz Description


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      14

    • C.

      27

    • D.

      53

    Correct Answer
    B. 14
    Explanation
    The given series alternates between two sets of numbers: 53 and 40, and 40 and 27. Each set is repeated twice before moving on to the next set. The pattern suggests that the next set should be 27 and another number. Since the first number in the set is 27, the next number should be the same, which is 27. Therefore, the number that should come next in the series is 27.

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  • 2. 

    Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?

    • A.

      (1/3)

    • B.

      (1/8)

    • C.

      (2/8)

    • D.

      (1/16)

    Correct Answer
    B. (1/8)
    Explanation
    The series follows a pattern where each subsequent number is obtained by dividing the previous number by 2. Starting with 2, we divide by 2 to get 1, then divide by 2 again to get 1/2, and so on. Therefore, the next number in the series would be obtained by dividing (1/4) by 2, resulting in (1/8).

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  • 3. 

    (1) Tanya is older than Eric. (2) Cliff is older than Tanya. (3) Eric is older than Cliff. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Uncertain

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, Tanya is older than Eric and Cliff is older than Tanya. Therefore, it is not possible for Eric to be older than Cliff, contradicting the third statement. Hence, the correct answer is False.

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  • 4. 

    (1) A fruit basket contains more apples than lemons. (2) There are more lemons in the basket than there are oranges. (3) The basket contains more apples than oranges. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Uncertain

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The first statement states that the fruit basket contains more apples than lemons. The second statement states that there are more lemons in the basket than there are oranges. Since there are more apples than lemons and more lemons than oranges, it can be concluded that there are more apples than oranges in the basket. Therefore, the third statement is true.

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  • 5. 

    ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA

    • A.

      OLPA

    • B.

      KLMA

    • C.

      LLMA

    • D.

      KLLA

    Correct Answer
    D. KLLA
    Explanation
    The pattern in the given sequence is that each letter in the sequence is obtained by moving two positions forward in the alphabet from the previous letter. Starting with ELFA, the letters GLHA, ILJA, and MLNA all follow this pattern. Therefore, the next letter in the sequence should be two positions forward from L, which gives us the letter K. The next three letters in the sequence are L, L, and A, which continue the pattern of moving two positions forward from the previous letter. Hence, the correct answer is KLLA.

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  • 6. 

    B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D

    • A.

      B2C2D

    • B.

      BC3D

    • C.

      B2C3D

    • D.

      BCD7

    Correct Answer
    B. BC3D
    Explanation
    The pattern in the given sequence is that a letter is added after each number. The first letter remains the same (B), the second letter is incremented by 1 (C), and the third letter remains the same (D). The numbers increase by 1 each time. Therefore, the missing term should have the second letter as C, and the number as 3. Hence, the correct answer is BC3D.

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  • 7. 

    Logical Reasoning Question - Which word does NOT belong with the others?

    • A.

      Tyre

    • B.

      Steering wheel

    • C.

      Engine

    • D.

      Car

    Correct Answer
    D. Car
    Explanation
    The word "car" does not belong with the others because it is the only word that represents the entire object, while the other words represent parts or components of a car. The word "tyre" represents a specific part of a car, the word "steering wheel" represents another specific part, and the word "engine" represents yet another specific part. However, the word "car" encompasses all of these parts and represents the complete object.

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  • 8. 

    Logical Reasoning Question - Which word does NOT belong with the others?

    • A.

      Inch

    • B.

      Pound

    • C.

      Centimeter

    • D.

      Yard

    Correct Answer
    B. Pound
    Explanation
    All the given words are units of measurement except for "pound," which is a unit of weight.

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  • 9. 

    Here are some words translated from an artificial language. (1) hapllesh means cloudburst (2) srenchoch means pinball (3) resbosrench means ninepin Which word could mean "cloud nine"?

    • A.

      Leshsrench

    • B.

      Ochhapl

    • C.

      Haploch

    • D.

      Haplresbo

    Correct Answer
    D. Haplresbo
    Explanation
    The word "haplresbo" could mean "cloud nine" because it combines the word "hapl" which means "cloud" and "resbo" which means "ninepin". By combining these two words, we can infer that "haplresbo" would mean "cloud nine".

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  • 10. 

    An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?

    • A.

      144º

    • B.

      150º

    • C.

      168º

    • D.

      180º

    Correct Answer
    D. 180º
    Explanation
    The hour hand of a clock completes a full rotation of 360 degrees in 12 hours. From 8 o'clock in the morning to 2 o'clock in the afternoon, there are 6 hours. Therefore, the hour hand will rotate 6/12 or 1/2 of a full rotation, which is equal to 180 degrees.

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  • 11. 

    In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?

    • A.

      6.25

    • B.

      6.5

    • C.

      6.75

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 6.25
    Explanation
    To calculate the required run rate for the remaining 40 overs, we need to find the total runs needed in those overs. The total runs needed to reach the target of 282 runs would be 282 - (3.2 * 10) = 282 - 32 = 250 runs. To calculate the run rate, we divide the total runs needed (250) by the remaining overs (40). Therefore, the required run rate is 250/40 = 6.25.

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  • 12. 

    A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

    • A.

      3.6

    • B.

      7.2

    • C.

      8.4

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 7.2
    Explanation
    To find the speed in km per hour, we need to convert the distance from meters to kilometers and the time from minutes to hours. Since there are 1000 meters in 1 kilometer and 60 minutes in 1 hour, the person's speed is calculated as follows: 600 meters / 1000 = 0.6 kilometers and 5 minutes / 60 = 0.0833 hours. Dividing the distance by the time, we get 0.6 km / 0.0833 h = 7.2 km/h. Therefore, the person's speed is 7.2 km per hour.

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  • 13. 

    39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      13

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    B. 13
    Explanation
    If 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day, it means that the total work required to repair the road is 39 * 12 * 5 = 2340 person-hours.

    To find out how many days it will take for 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, to complete the work, we need to calculate the total person-hours they can work.

    30 persons working 6 hours a day will give us 30 * 6 = 180 person-hours per day.

    Dividing the total work (2340 person-hours) by the person-hours per day (180 person-hours) gives us the number of days required, which is 2340 / 180 = 13 days.

    Therefore, the correct answer is 13.

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  • 14. 

    'Dandia' is a popular dance of

    • A.

      Punjab

    • B.

      Gujarat

    • C.

      Tamil Nadu

    • D.

      Maharashtra

    Correct Answer
    B. Gujarat
    Explanation
    Dandia is a popular traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat, India. It is often performed during the festival of Navratri and involves dancers forming circles and striking wooden sticks called dandiyas together in a rhythmic manner. The dance is accompanied by traditional music and colorful costumes, creating a vibrant and energetic atmosphere. Gujarat is known for its rich cultural heritage and Dandia is one of the prominent dance forms that showcases the state's cultural identity.

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  • 15. 

    'OS' computer abbreviation usually means ?

    • A.

      Order of Significance

    • B.

      Open Software

    • C.

      Operating System

    • D.

      Optical Sensor

    Correct Answer
    C. Operating System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Operating System." In computer terminology, "OS" typically refers to "Operating System." An operating system is a software that manages computer hardware and software resources, providing common services for computer programs. It acts as an intermediary between the computer hardware and the user, allowing the user to interact with the computer and run applications.

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  • 16. 

    The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to produce an acceleration of 5 m/s2, is

    • A.

      100N

    • B.

      100N

    • C.

      500N

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. 500N
    Explanation
    The force applied on a body is determined by Newton's second law of motion, which states that force is equal to mass multiplied by acceleration (F = m*a). In this case, the mass of the body is given as 100 kg and the acceleration is given as 5 m/s^2. By substituting these values into the equation, we get F = 100 kg * 5 m/s^2 = 500 N. Therefore, the correct answer is 500N.

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  • 17. 

    Principal plane is a plane on which the shear stress is

    • A.

      Zero

    • B.

      Minimum

    • C.

      Maximum

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero
    Explanation
    The principal plane refers to a plane where the shear stress is zero. In other words, there is no force acting parallel to this plane that would cause deformation or shearing. This is an important concept in mechanics and materials science, as understanding the principal planes helps in analyzing the behavior and properties of materials under different loading conditions.

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  • 18. 

    The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of

    • A.

      Stress, strain and pressure

    • B.

      Stress, force and modulus of rigidity

    • C.

      Strain, force and pressure

    • D.

      Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity

    Correct Answer
    D. Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
    Explanation
    The modulus of elasticity measures the stiffness of a material and is defined as the ratio of stress to strain. Stress is defined as the force per unit area, and pressure is also defined as the force per unit area. Modulus of rigidity is a measure of the material's resistance to shearing forces. Therefore, the unit of modulus of elasticity is the same as stress, pressure, and modulus of rigidity, as they all involve force per unit area.

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  • 19. 

    When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under

    • A.

      Tensile stress

    • B.

      Compressive stress

    • C.

      Shear stress

    • D.

      Bending stress

    Correct Answer
    C. Shear stress
    Explanation
    When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, it experiences shear stress. This is because the twisting moment causes one section of the shaft to rotate relative to another section, resulting in a shearing force between the two sections. Shear stress is the stress that occurs when forces are applied parallel to each other but in opposite directions, causing the material to deform by sliding or shearing. In the case of a shaft, the shear stress is highest at the outer surface and decreases towards the center.

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  • 20. 

    A spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations is

    • A.

      Conical spring

    • B.

      Torsion spring

    • C.

      Leaf spring

    • D.

      Disc spring

    Correct Answer
    C. Leaf spring
    Explanation
    A leaf spring is used to absorb shocks and vibrations. It is a simple suspension system made up of multiple layers of curved metal strips, called leaves, stacked on top of each other. The design allows the leaves to flex and absorb the impact, providing a smooth and comfortable ride. Leaf springs are commonly used in vehicles such as trucks and trailers, where they effectively distribute the weight and handle heavy loads.

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  • 21. 

    At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is

    • A.

      Zero

    • B.

      Minimum

    • C.

      Maximum

    • D.

      Infinity

    Correct Answer
    C. Maximum
    Explanation
    At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is maximum. This is because the neutral axis is the location in the beam where the shear force is the highest. Shear stress is directly proportional to the shear force and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Therefore, at the neutral axis where the shear force is maximum, the shear stress will also be maximum.

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  • 22. 

    Hook's law holds good up to

    • A.

      Yield point

    • B.

      Elastic limit

    • C.

      Plastic limit

    • D.

      Breaking point

    Correct Answer
    B. Elastic limit
    Explanation
    Hook's law states that the extension or compression of a spring is directly proportional to the applied force, as long as the elastic limit of the material is not exceeded. The elastic limit is the maximum stress or force that a material can withstand without permanent deformation. Beyond the elastic limit, the material will not return to its original shape when the force is removed. Therefore, Hook's law holds good up to the elastic limit, making it the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    The application of third type levers is found in

    • A.

      Handle of a hand pump

    • B.

      Hand wheel of a punching press

    • C.

      Lever of a loaded safety valve

    • D.

      A pair of tongs

    Correct Answer
    D. A pair of tongs
    Explanation
    Third type levers are characterized by having the fulcrum at one end, the effort applied at the other end, and the load in between. In the case of a pair of tongs, the fulcrum is the point where the tongs pivot, the effort is applied by the user's hand, and the load is the object being gripped by the tongs. When the user squeezes the tongs, the effort applied at one end of the lever causes the other end to move, allowing the tongs to grip and hold onto objects securely. Therefore, a pair of tongs is an example of the application of third type levers.

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  • 24. 

    The maximum normal stress theory is used for

    • A.

      Brittle materials

    • B.

      Ductile materials

    • C.

      Plastic materials

    • D.

      Non-ferrous materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Brittle materials
    Explanation
    The maximum normal stress theory is used for brittle materials because it assumes that failure occurs when the maximum normal stress in a material reaches its ultimate tensile strength. Brittle materials do not exhibit significant plastic deformation before failure, making this theory appropriate for predicting their failure under tensile or compressive loads. Ductile materials, on the other hand, can undergo extensive plastic deformation before failure, so a different theory, such as the maximum shear stress theory, is used for their analysis.

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  • 25. 

    A shaft is designed on the basis of rigidity and stiffness.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because rigidity and stiffness are important factors to consider when designing a shaft. Rigidity refers to the ability of a shaft to resist deformation under load, while stiffness refers to the ability to resist bending or twisting. Both these factors are crucial in ensuring that the shaft can effectively transmit power and maintain its shape and performance. Therefore, when designing a shaft, engineers take into account the rigidity and stiffness requirements to ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 26. 

    The ratio of the ultimate stress to the design stress is known as

    • A.

      Elastic limit

    • B.

      Strain

    • C.

      Factor of safety

    • D.

      Bulk modulus

    Correct Answer
    C. Factor of safety
    Explanation
    The ratio of the ultimate stress to the design stress is known as the factor of safety. This ratio helps determine the level of safety and reliability in a design or structure. A higher factor of safety indicates a greater margin of safety, as it means that the design stress is significantly lower than the ultimate stress the material can withstand. This provides a buffer against unexpected loads, variations in material properties, and other uncertainties, ensuring that the structure or design can handle potential stresses and prevent failure.

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  • 27. 

    A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as

    • A.

      Carnot cycle

    • B.

      Stirling cycle

    • C.

      Otto cycle

    • D.

      Diesel cycle

    Correct Answer
    D. Diesel cycle
    Explanation
    A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume, and two isentropic processes is known as the Diesel cycle. In this cycle, the air is compressed adiabatically and then fuel is injected and combusted at constant pressure, resulting in a high-temperature and high-pressure gas. This gas then expands adiabatically, followed by a constant volume heat rejection process. The Diesel cycle is commonly used in diesel engines, where the high compression ratio allows for efficient combustion of fuel and high power output.

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  • 28. 

    An adiabatic process is one in which

    • A.

      No heat enters or leaves the gas

    • B.

      The temperature of the gas changes

    • C.

      The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    An adiabatic process is characterized by the absence of heat transfer between the system and its surroundings. This means that no heat enters or leaves the gas during the process. Additionally, in an adiabatic process, the temperature of the gas can change due to compression or expansion. Lastly, the change in internal energy of the gas is equal to the mechanical work done on or by the gas. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for an adiabatic process.

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  • 29. 

    In one dimensional flow, the flow

    • A.

      Is steady and uniform

    • B.

      Takes place in straight line

    • C.

      Takes place in curve

    • D.

      Takes place in one direction

    Correct Answer
    B. Takes place in straight line
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "takes place in straight line." In one-dimensional flow, the flow occurs in a single direction and is steady and uniform. This means that the flow does not change in magnitude or direction along the path it takes. Since it is one-dimensional, it implies that the flow occurs in a straight line rather than a curve. Therefore, the flow takes place in a straight line.

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  • 30. 

    The volume of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.

    • A.

      Remains same

    • B.

      Decreases

    • C.

      Increases

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreases
    Explanation
    As the pressure increases, the volume of a fluid decreases. This is because an increase in pressure compresses the fluid, causing its molecules to come closer together. As a result, the fluid takes up less space, leading to a decrease in volume.

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  • 31. 

    The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a venturimeter

    • A.

      Remains constant

    • B.

      Increases

    • C.

      Decreases

    • D.

      Depends upon mass of liquid

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreases
    Explanation
    The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a venturimeter decreases. This is because as the liquid flows through the divergent section, the velocity of the fluid increases, according to the principle of continuity. According to Bernoulli's principle, as the velocity of a fluid increases, its pressure decreases. Therefore, the pressure of the liquid decreases in the divergent portion of the venturimeter.

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  • 32. 

    The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called

    • A.

      Atmospheric pressure

    • B.

      Gauge pressure

    • C.

      Absolute pressure

    • D.

      Mean pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Gauge pressure
    Explanation
    Gauge pressure is the correct answer because a pressure gauge measures the pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. Gauge pressure is the difference between the pressure measured by the gauge and the atmospheric pressure. It is commonly used to measure pressure in various systems, such as in tires, pipelines, and industrial equipment. Absolute pressure, on the other hand, refers to the total pressure including atmospheric pressure, while mean pressure is the average pressure over a certain period of time.

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  • 33. 

    Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

    • A.

      Surface tension of water

    • B.

      Compressibility of water

    • C.

      Capillarity of water

    • D.

      Viscosity of water

    Correct Answer
    A. Surface tension of water
    Explanation
    When drops of water fall, they tend to form spherical shapes due to the property of surface tension. Surface tension is the force that acts on the surface of a liquid, causing it to behave like a stretched elastic sheet. This force pulls the water molecules at the surface inward, creating a cohesive force that tries to minimize the surface area. As a result, the water droplets form spherical shapes, which have the minimum surface area for a given volume. This property of surface tension allows water droplets to maintain their shape while falling.

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  • 34. 

    Cold working of metal increases

    • A.

      Tensile strength

    • B.

      Yield strength

    • C.

      Hardness

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    Cold working of metal refers to the process of deforming the metal at room temperature. This process involves techniques such as rolling, bending, or drawing. Cold working leads to the rearrangement of the metal's crystal structure, resulting in increased strength and hardness. The tensile strength, which is the ability of the metal to withstand pulling forces, is enhanced through cold working. Similarly, the yield strength, which is the stress at which permanent deformation occurs, is also increased. Additionally, cold working increases the hardness of the metal, making it more resistant to indentation or scratching. Therefore, all of these properties are improved through cold working.

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  • 35. 

    The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a slider crank chain when the

    • A.

      Coupler link is fixed

    • B.

      Longest link is a fixed link

    • C.

      Slider is a fixed link

    • D.

      Smallest link is a fixed link

    Correct Answer
    A. Coupler link is fixed
    Explanation
    In the Whitworth quick return motion mechanism, the coupler link is fixed. This means that the link connecting the input and output of the mechanism is held in a fixed position, while the other links are able to move. This arrangement allows for the desired quick return motion, where the output moves quickly in one direction and slowly in the opposite direction. Fixing the coupler link ensures that the motion is achieved in the desired manner.

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  • 36. 

    The ignition quality of a petrol engine fuel is expressed as

    • A.

      Octane number

    • B.

      cetane number

    • C.

      API gravity

    • D.

      SAE rating

    Correct Answer
    A. Octane number
    Explanation
    The ignition quality of a petrol engine fuel is expressed as the octane number. The octane number measures a fuel's ability to resist knocking or detonation in the engine. A higher octane number indicates a higher resistance to knocking, which is important for high-performance engines or engines with higher compression ratios. The octane number is determined through standardized testing methods and is used to classify different grades of gasoline.

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  • 37. 

    Odometer is an instrument used for

    • A.

      Smoke analysis

    • B.

      B.P. measurement

    • C.

      Distance measurement

    • D.

      Fuel measurement

    Correct Answer
    C. Distance measurement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is distance measurement. An odometer is an instrument used to measure the distance traveled by a vehicle. It is typically found on the dashboard of a car and displays the total distance covered by the vehicle since it was last reset. This measurement is important for tracking mileage, calculating fuel efficiency, and determining maintenance schedules.

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  • 38. 

    The front wheel drive as compared to rear wheel drive

    • A.

      Requires longer propeller shaft

    • B.

      Gives better riding performance

    • C.

      Has a greater skidding tendency

    • D.

      Provides increased tractive effort when going up steep gradient

    Correct Answer
    B. Gives better riding performance
    Explanation
    Front wheel drive provides better riding performance compared to rear wheel drive. This is because the weight of the engine is directly over the front wheels, which improves traction and handling. The front wheel drive also allows for better control and stability during acceleration and cornering. Additionally, having the power and steering in the same wheels reduces the complexity of the drivetrain, resulting in a smoother and more efficient ride.

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  • 39. 

    Mechanical efficiency of two stroke engine in comparison to four stroke engine is

    • A.

      More

    • B.

      Same

    • C.

      Less

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. More
    Explanation
    The mechanical efficiency of a two-stroke engine is higher compared to a four-stroke engine. This is because a two-stroke engine completes one power stroke in every revolution of the crankshaft, while a four-stroke engine completes one power stroke in every two revolutions. Therefore, the two-stroke engine has a higher power output for the same amount of fuel consumed, resulting in higher mechanical efficiency.

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  • 40. 

    Maximum torque is generated by an engine when

    • A.

      It runs at lowest speed

    • B.

      it develops maximum power

    • C.

      It consumes maximum fuel

    • D.

      It runs at maximum speed

    Correct Answer
    A. It runs at lowest speed
    Explanation
    The maximum torque is generated by an engine when it runs at the lowest speed. This is because torque is directly proportional to the rotational force produced by the engine, and at lower speeds, the engine can generate more force per unit of time. As the speed increases, the torque output tends to decrease. Therefore, running the engine at the lowest speed allows it to produce the highest amount of torque.

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  • 41. 

    For cars which is the most popular manual steering gear ?

    • A.

      Worm and nut type

    • B.

      Worm and wheel type

    • C.

      Cam and roller type

    • D.

      Rack and pinion type

    Correct Answer
    D. Rack and pinion type
    Explanation
    Rack and pinion type is the most popular manual steering gear for cars. This type of steering gear uses a rack (a toothed bar) and a pinion (a small gear) to convert the rotational motion of the steering wheel into linear motion, which then turns the wheels. It is widely used in modern cars due to its simplicity, compactness, and efficient power transfer. The rack and pinion type provides a direct and responsive steering feel, making it a preferred choice for many car manufacturers.

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  • 42. 

    When the volume of a gas is decreased, the pressure of gas will

    • A.

      Increase

    • B.

      Decrease

    • C.

      Stay the same

    • D.

      none of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase
    Explanation
    When the volume of a gas is decreased, the gas particles are forced to occupy a smaller space. This leads to an increase in the frequency of collisions between the gas particles and the walls of the container. As a result, the pressure exerted by the gas increases. Therefore, when the volume of a gas is decreased, the pressure of the gas will increase.

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  • 43. 

    Heat treatment of steel is done primarily to change the

    • A.

      Physical properties

    • B.

      Chemical composition

    • C.

      Corrosion properties

    • D.

      Mechanical properties

    Correct Answer
    D. Mechanical properties
    Explanation
    Heat treatment of steel is primarily done to change its mechanical properties. Heat treatment involves heating the steel to a specific temperature and then cooling it at a controlled rate. This process can alter the steel's hardness, strength, toughness, and ductility. By manipulating the microstructure of the steel, heat treatment can enhance its mechanical properties, making it more suitable for specific applications. Therefore, the correct answer is mechanical properties.

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  • 44. 

    Fading of brakes occurs

    • A.

      At high speed

    • B.

      At low speed

    • C.

      During continuous application

    • D.

      When brake lining is worn

    Correct Answer
    C. During continuous application
    Explanation
    Fading of brakes occurs during continuous application because when brakes are applied continuously, the heat generated is not able to dissipate quickly enough, leading to a decrease in braking efficiency. This can result in a loss of braking power and increased stopping distances.

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  • 45. 

    Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce

    • A.

      Torsional vibrations

    • B.

      Vehicle speed

    • C.

      Jerky starts

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Jerky starts
    Explanation
    The cushioning springs in the clutch plate are designed to reduce jerky starts. When starting a vehicle, the clutch engages and disengages to smoothly transfer power from the engine to the transmission. However, without cushioning springs, the clutch plate may experience sudden and abrupt movements, leading to jerky starts. The cushioning springs absorb and dampen these vibrations, allowing for a smoother and more controlled start. Therefore, the presence of cushioning springs in the clutch plate helps to reduce jerky starts.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 18, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Saequiz
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