ISTQB Sample Mock Test 1

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1. As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test  activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in  your report?

Explanation

In the test summary report, it is important to include a summary of the major testing activities, events, and their status in relation to meeting goals. This information provides an overview of the progress and effectiveness of the testing process. It helps stakeholders understand the testing activities that have taken place and whether they have achieved the desired objectives. This summary allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the testing effort and helps identify any areas that may require further attention or improvement. Including this information in the test summary report ensures transparency and facilitates effective decision-making.

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ISTQB Sample Mock Test 1 - Quiz

ISTQB is a non-profit association registered in Belgium for software testing qualification certification. Have you in any way interacted with it or intending to? If so take up... see morethe quiz below and gain knowledge on it. see less

2. What is the benefit of independent testing?

Explanation

Independent testing is beneficial because independent testers tend to be unbiased and can provide a fresh perspective on the software being tested. They are not involved in the development process and can approach the testing with a different mindset, which increases the chances of finding defects that may have been overlooked by the developers. This helps in improving the overall quality of the software by identifying issues that may have been missed during the development phase.

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3. Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to  problems (or conflict) within teams?

Explanation

If testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product, it can lead to problems within teams. This type of communication creates a negative and blaming atmosphere, which can damage relationships and hinder collaboration. It can also discourage open and honest feedback, making it difficult to address and resolve issues effectively. It is important for testers and reviewers to focus on the software product rather than blaming individuals, in order to maintain a positive and productive team environment.

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4. What is important to do when working with software development models?

Explanation

When working with software development models, it is important to adapt the models to the context of the project and product characteristics. This means that the chosen model should be customized and tailored to fit the specific needs and requirements of the project. Each project and product is unique, and therefore, the software development model should be adjusted accordingly to ensure its effectiveness and efficiency in achieving the desired outcomes. This adaptation ensures that the model aligns with the project's goals, constraints, and resources, ultimately leading to successful software development.

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5. Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software development  and test organization would like to achieve.    Which of these goals would best be supported by a test management tool? 

Explanation

A test management tool can help in building traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs by providing a centralized platform to track and link these entities. It allows the organization to easily map requirements to test cases and track the bugs identified during testing. This traceability helps in ensuring that all requirements are covered by tests and any issues or defects can be easily traced back to the corresponding requirements or test cases. This improves overall test efficiency and helps in maintaining a comprehensive and organized testing process.

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6. Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can all be  categorized as Black Box design techniques?   

Explanation

The techniques listed in the correct answer, Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary value, as well as Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case, can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques. Black Box design techniques focus on testing the functionality of a system without considering its internal structure. Equivalence Partitioning involves dividing input data into groups that are expected to produce similar output. Decision tables are used to model complex business rules. State transition testing involves testing the behavior of a system as it transitions between different states. Boundary value testing focuses on testing the boundaries of input values. Use case testing involves testing the system's functionality based on user scenarios.

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7. Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are poor  specifications and time pressures?   

Explanation

Exploratory testing would be the best test approach when there are poor specifications and time pressures. This is because exploratory testing is a flexible and adaptive approach that allows testers to explore the system, learn about it, and design and execute tests simultaneously. It does not rely heavily on predefined test cases or specifications, making it suitable for situations where there is a lack of clear requirements. Additionally, exploratory testing can be performed in a time-efficient manner, as it focuses on quick feedback and rapid learning.

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8. Which of the following statements are TRUE?    A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same.  B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved.  C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation.  D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have  introduced or uncovered defects.  E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.   

Explanation

Regression testing and acceptance testing are not the same. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. Therefore, options C and D are true. However, option A is false because regression testing and acceptance testing are different. Option B is false because regression tests do not necessarily show if all defects have been resolved. Option E is false because regression tests should not be performed in integration testing.

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9. Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review? 

Explanation

The main phases of a formal review are planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, and follow up. This process starts with planning and setting up the review, followed by a kick-off meeting to inform participants about the objectives and expectations. Each participant then prepares individually for the review meeting. The review meeting itself takes place, during which any identified issues or errors are discussed and documented. After the meeting, there may be a need for rework to address the identified issues. Finally, a follow-up is conducted to ensure that the necessary actions are taken and any lessons learned are captured.

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10. Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?

Explanation

Non-functional testing refers to the process of testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability, or maintainability. This type of testing focuses on evaluating the performance of a system based on its non-functional requirements rather than its functional requirements. It helps to ensure that the system meets the desired standards in terms of its usability, reliability, and maintainability, which are crucial for its overall effectiveness and user satisfaction.

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11. Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation.  Which is MOST likely a failure?

Explanation

The product crashing when the user selected an option in a dialog box is the most likely failure because it directly affects the user's experience and can lead to a loss of functionality. The other options may also cause issues, but they are more likely to result in errors or incorrect behavior rather than a complete crash of the product.

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12. For which of the following would maintenance testing be used? 

Explanation

Maintenance testing is used for planned enhancements to an existing operational system. This type of testing is conducted to ensure that the changes or enhancements made to the system do not introduce any new defects or issues. It helps in verifying the stability and reliability of the system after the enhancements have been implemented.

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13. Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key  principles of software testing?   

Explanation

The statement "It is normally impossible to test all input/output combinations for a software system" best describes one of the seven key principles of software testing. This principle acknowledges that it is not feasible to test every possible combination of inputs and outputs in a software system due to time and resource constraints. Therefore, testing focuses on identifying and prioritizing the most critical areas to test, rather than attempting to achieve exhaustive testing.

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14. From the list below, select the recommended principles for introducing a  chosen test tool in an organization?    1. Roll the tool out to the entire organization at the same time.  2. Start with a pilot project.  3. Adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool.  4. Provide training and coaching for new users.  5. Let each team decide their own standard ways of using the tool.  6. Monitor that costs do not exceed initial acquisition cost.  7. Gather lessons learned from all teams.   

Explanation

The recommended principles for introducing a chosen test tool in an organization are to start with a pilot project, adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool, provide training and coaching for new users, and gather lessons learned from all teams. This approach allows for a gradual implementation of the tool, ensuring that it is well-integrated into existing processes and that users receive the necessary support and training. Gathering lessons learned from all teams helps in identifying areas for improvement and ensuring that the tool is effectively utilized.

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15. Which one of the following techniques is structure-based? 

Explanation

Decision testing is a structure-based technique that focuses on testing the logical decisions within the code. It involves identifying all possible decision points and designing test cases to cover different outcomes of these decisions. This technique helps ensure that all possible paths and conditions within the code are tested, increasing the overall test coverage.

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16. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between  testing and debugging?

Explanation

Testing and debugging are two different processes in software development. Testing involves the execution of a program or system to identify failures or defects caused by errors in the code. It helps in pinpointing the source of these defects. On the other hand, debugging is the process of analyzing these failures and identifying the root causes of the defects. It involves finding and removing the causes of failures in the software. Therefore, the statement "Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software" best describes the difference between testing and debugging.

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17. Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software  development life cycle model?   

Explanation

In any software development life cycle model, it is important to have a corresponding testing activity for every development activity. This ensures that the software is thoroughly tested at each stage of development, helping to identify and fix any issues or bugs early on. By having testing activities aligned with development activities, it promotes a systematic and structured approach to testing, improving the overall quality of the software.

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18. Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

Explanation

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19. Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager  and tester? 

Explanation

The test manager is responsible for planning, organizing, and controlling the testing activities. This includes deciding on the testing standards to be followed. On the other hand, the tester's role is to specify, automate, and execute tests. This means that they are responsible for determining the specific tests that need to be conducted, as well as automating and executing those tests.

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20. Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?

Explanation

The correct answer includes criteria such as thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction, and residual risks. These criteria are important for determining when testing can be considered complete and when the software is ready for release. Thoroughness and reliability measures ensure that the testing process has been comprehensive and that the software meets the required quality standards. Test cost and schedule are important considerations for resource allocation and project planning. The state of defect correction and residual risks indicate the level of remaining issues that need to be addressed before release.

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21. Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate)  options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software  project?       

Explanation

Inspection and Technical Review are the best fitted options for reviewing safety critical components in a software project. Inspection is a formal review process where the code or design is examined in detail to identify defects and potential issues. Technical Review, on the other hand, involves a group of technical experts reviewing the software to ensure its compliance with safety standards and best practices. Both of these review types are well-suited for identifying and addressing safety concerns in critical components of the software.

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22. Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence partitioning test  technique?  A. Divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behaviour.  B. Uses both valid and invalid partitions.  C. Makes use only of valid partitions.  D. Must include at least two values from every equivalence partition.  E. Can be used only for testing equivalence partitions inputs from a  Graphical User Interface.   

Explanation

Equivalence partitioning is a test technique that divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behavior. This helps to reduce the number of test cases needed to cover all possible inputs. It uses both valid and invalid partitions to test the system's behavior in different scenarios. It does not make use only of valid partitions. It is not necessary to include at least two values from every equivalence partition, as one value can represent the entire partition. Equivalence partitioning can be used for testing inputs from a Graphical User Interface, as well as other types of interfaces.

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23. Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?

Explanation

Experience, defect and failure data, and knowledge about software failures would be the best basis for fault attack testing because they provide valuable insights into past issues and vulnerabilities in the software. By analyzing previous defects and failures, testers can identify potential weaknesses and design targeted attacks to expose and fix them. This approach leverages real-world scenarios and actual data to improve the effectiveness of fault attack testing, making it a reliable and informed method for identifying and addressing software faults.

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24. Consider the following state transition diagram and test case table:  Which of the following statements are TRUE?    A. The test case table exercises the shortest number of transitions.  B. The test case gives only the valid state transitions.  C. The test case gives only the invalid state transitions.  D. The test case exercises the longest number of transitions.   
TC  1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Start Date  S1 S1 S2 S2 S3 S3 S3
Input  Press Power On Press Power On Press RC On Press RC On Press RC OFF Press Power OFF Press RC OFF
Expected Output TV Stand By TV Stand By TV Play TV Play TV Stand By TV OFF TV Stand By
Next state S2 S2 S3 S3 S2 S1 S2
Input Press Power Off Press RC On Press Power Off Press RC Off Press RC On  Press Power On  Press Power Off
Expected Output  TV Off TV Play TV Off TV Stand By TV Play TV Stand By TV Off
Finish state S1  S3  S1  S2  S3  S2  S1

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only B is true; A, C and D are false." This is because the test case table does not exercise the shortest number of transitions (A is false), it includes both valid and invalid state transitions (B is true), it does not exercise the longest number of transitions (D is false), and it does not give only the invalid state transitions (C is false).

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25. Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a keyworddriven test execution tool?

Explanation

A keyword-driven test execution tool uses a table with test input data, action words, and expected results to control the execution of the system under test. This table allows testers to specify the actions they want to perform and the expected outcomes, making it easier to create and maintain test scripts. By using this approach, testers can easily modify and reuse test cases by simply changing the values in the table, improving test efficiency and maintainability.

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26. An employee's bonus is to be calculated. It cannot become negative, but it  can be calculated to zero. The bonus is based on the duration of the  employment. An employee can be employed for less than or equal to 2 years,  more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10  years. Depending on this period of employment, an employee will get either  no bonus or a bonus of 10%, 25% or 35%.  How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the  bonus?

Explanation

The calculation of the bonus is based on the duration of employment, which can fall into four different categories: less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10 years. Each of these categories represents an equivalence partition, as the calculation of the bonus will be the same for all employees within each category. Therefore, four equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus.

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27. Which of the following can be categorized as product risks? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics." This is because these factors can all be categorized as product risks. Error-prone areas refer to parts of the product that are more likely to contain errors or bugs. Potential harm to the user means that there is a possibility of the product causing harm or injury to the user. Poor product characteristics refer to aspects of the product that are not up to standard or do not meet the desired quality or performance criteria.

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28. Which of the following statements about the benefits of deriving test cases  from use cases are most likely to be true?  A. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and  acceptance testing.  B. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful only for automated  testing.  C. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for component testing.  D. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for testing the interaction  between different components of the system.   

Explanation

Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and acceptance testing because use cases describe the interactions between the system and its users, which can be translated into test cases to verify the system's functionality. Additionally, deriving test cases from use cases can also help in testing the interaction between different components of the system, as use cases often involve multiple components working together. Therefore, option A and D are true, while options B and C are false.

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29. Which of the following statements are TRUE?  A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual  requirements.  B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the  developer's work.  C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of  problems occurring in an operational environment.  D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been  found.   

Explanation

The correct answer is A and C are true, B and D are false. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements, as it ensures that the software meets the specified standards and regulations. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment, as it helps to identify and resolve any issues before the software is deployed. However, software testing is not mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer's work, as it is a separate process that focuses on verifying the functionality and performance of the software. Rigorous testing is also not used to prove that all failures have been found, as it is impossible to guarantee that all defects have been identified.

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30. Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?

Explanation

Skill and staff shortages can be categorized as project risks because they can impact the successful completion of a project. If a project team lacks the necessary skills or experiences, it can lead to delays, errors, and poor quality work. Similarly, if there is a shortage of staff, it can result in increased workloads, decreased productivity, and increased chances of failure. Therefore, skill and staff shortages pose risks to the timely and successful completion of a project.

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31. As a Test Manager you have the following requirements to be tested:  Requirements to test:  R1 - Process Anomalies – High Complexity  R2 - Remote Services – Medium Complexity  R3 – Synchronization – Medium Complexity  R4 – Confirmation – Medium Complexity  R5 - Process closures – Low Complexity  R6 – Issues – Low Complexity  R7 - Financial Data – Low Complexity  R8 - Diagram Data – Low Complexity  R9 - Changes on user profile – Medium Complexity      Requirements logical dependencies (A -> B means that B is dependent on A):  How would you structure the test execution schedule according to the  requirement dependencies? 

Explanation

The correct answer is R1 > R2 > R4 > R5 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9. This sequence follows the logical dependencies between the requirements. R1 is the highest priority as it has high complexity and is not dependent on any other requirement. R2 is the next priority as it has medium complexity and is only dependent on R1. R4 is then tested as it is dependent on R2. This pattern continues, with each requirement being tested in order of its complexity and dependencies.

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32. You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During  execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not  achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be  the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829?

Explanation

According to the IEEE Std. 829, the most important information to include in an incident report in a safety-critical software development project is the impact of the incident, a detailed description of the incident, the date and time it occurred, and the name of the tester who discovered it. This information is crucial for accurately documenting and addressing the incident, allowing for effective analysis, investigation, and resolution of the issue.

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33. One of the test goals for the project is to have 100% decision coverage. The  following three tests have been executed for the control flow graph shown  below.    Test A covers path: A, B, D, E, G.  Test B covers path: A, B, D, E, F, G.  Test C covers path: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G.  Which of the following statements related to the decision coverage goal is  correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is that Decision D has not been tested completely. This is because Decision D is the decision point that determines whether the program flow goes to either E or F. Test A covers the path from A to G, but it does not cover the path from D to F. Test B covers the path from A to G, but it does not cover the path from D to E. Test C covers the path from A to G, but it does not cover the path from D to either E or F. Therefore, Decision D has not been tested completely.

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34. You have started specification-based testing of a program. It calculates the  greatest common divisor (GCD) of two integers (A and B) greater than zero.    calcGCD (A, B);    The following test cases (TC) have been specified. 
TC  A B
1 1 1
2 INT_MAX INT_MAX
3 1 0
4 0 1
5 INT_MAX+1 1
6 1 INT_MAX+1
INT_MAX: largest Integer    Which test technique has been applied in order to determine test cases 1  through 6?

Explanation

Boundary value analysis has been applied in order to determine test cases 1 through 6. Boundary value analysis involves selecting test cases that are on or near the boundaries of input domains. In this case, the boundaries are determined by the values of A and B. Test cases 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 cover different boundary conditions such as minimum and maximum values, as well as values just outside the range of valid inputs. This technique helps to identify potential issues that may occur at the boundaries of the input domain.

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35. Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation? 

Explanation

The goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation is to assess whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost, evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determine the use, management, storage, and maintenance of the tool and test assets. However, reducing the defect rate in the Pilot Project is not a specific goal of tool evaluation.

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36. A defect was found during testing. When the network got disconnected while  receiving data from a server, the system crashed. The defect was fixed by  correcting the code that checked the network availability during data transfer.  The existing test cases covered 100% of all statements of the corresponding  module. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some new  tests were designed and added to the test suite.  What types of testing are mentioned above?    A. Functional testing.  B. Structural testing.  C. Re-testing.  D. Performance testing.   

Explanation

The given answer, A, B, and C, is correct because the explanation mentions that new tests were designed and added to the test suite to verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage. This indicates that both re-testing (C) and functional testing (A) were performed. Additionally, since the defect was fixed by correcting the code, it suggests that structural testing (B) was also conducted to identify and fix the issue in the code. Therefore, the types of testing mentioned in the explanation are A, B, and C.

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37. Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE? 

Explanation

Static analysis is not a good way to force failures into the software. Static analysis is a technique used to analyze code without executing it, and it is primarily used to find defects and vulnerabilities in software early in the development process. It can be used as a preventive measure by identifying potential issues before they manifest themselves in dynamic testing. Static analysis can find defects that may not be easily found through dynamic testing, and by doing so, it can result in cost savings by addressing these issues early.

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38. Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing  are TRUE?

Explanation

Component testing and system testing have different focuses and derive their test cases from different sources. Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, while system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications, or use cases. This difference in test case derivation helps ensure that both types of testing are comprehensive and cover the necessary aspects of the software.

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39. Which of the following statements about the given state table is TRUE? 
Test case 1 2 3 4 5
Start state  s1 s2 s2 s3 s3
Input Power On Power Off RC On RC Off Power Off
Expected output TV Stand By TV Off TV Play TV Stand By TV Off
Finish State S2    S1  S3  S2  S1

Explanation

The given state table represents all possible single transitions. This means that for each combination of start state and input, there is a corresponding expected output and finish state. The table includes all possible valid transitions that can occur in the system.

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40. Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and  Design?

Explanation

During Test Analysis and Design, one of the tasks expected to be performed is reviewing the test basis. This is because by reviewing the test basis, the users can identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the requirements, which can help in reducing the number of tests that need to be executed. This task ensures that the test cases are aligned with the requirements and helps in improving the efficiency of the testing process.

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As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning...
What is the benefit of independent testing?
Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead...
What is important to do when working with software development models?
Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software...
Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can...
Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are...
Which of the following statements are TRUE?  ...
Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review? 
Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?
Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or...
For which of the following would maintenance testing be used? 
Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven...
From the list below, select the recommended principles for introducing...
Which one of the following techniques is structure-based? 
Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference...
Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any...
Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test...
Which of the following best describes the task partition between test...
Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?
Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most...
Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence...
Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?
Consider the following state transition diagram and test case...
Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a...
An employee's bonus is to be calculated. It cannot become negative,...
Which of the following can be categorized as product risks? 
Which of the following statements about the benefits of deriving test...
Which of the following statements are TRUE?  ...
Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?
As a Test Manager you have the following requirements to be...
You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project....
One of the test goals for the project is to have 100% decision...
You have started specification-based testing of a program. It...
Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool...
A defect was found during testing. When the network got disconnected...
Which of the following statements about static analysis is...
Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system...
Which of the following statements about the given state table is...
Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis...
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