Neurology/Psychiatry Exam #3 (ADHD/MS)

36 Questions | Total Attempts: 71

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Neurology/Psychiatry Exam #3 (ADHD/MS)

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Fill in the blanks: According to the DSM-V (through future-magic) the diagnosis of ADHD in patient <17 years old requires ______ symptoms and the diagnosis of ADHD in patients >17 years old requires ______ symptoms.
    • A. 

      4 symptoms; 4 symptoms

    • B. 

      4 symptoms; 5 symptoms

    • C. 

      4 symptoms; 6 symptoms

    • D. 

      5 symptoms; 4 symptoms

    • E. 

      5 symptoms; 5 symptoms

    • F. 

      5 symptoms; 6 symptoms

    • G. 

      6 symptoms; 4 symptoms

    • H. 

      6 symptoms; 5 symptoms

    • I. 

      6 symptoms; 6 symptom

  • 2. 
    Genetics plays a significant role in ADHD etiology.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    >70% of cases are genes associated with ADHD
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Which neurotransmitters are KNOWN to be involved in ADHD? (Select all that apply)
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      GABA

    • E. 

      Acetylcholine

  • 5. 
    Methylphenidate (MPD) decreases dopamine and norepinephrine levels by inhibiting monoamine transporters. Specifically, decreasing dopamine causes improved signal-to-noise ratio improving attention span. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    Which medication blocks dopamine transporters, preventing uptake from the synaptic cleft?
    • A. 

      Amphetamine

    • B. 

      Methlyphenidate

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 7. 
    Which medication increases synaptic cleft levels of dopamine?
    • A. 

      Amphetamine

    • B. 

      Methylphenidate

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 8. 
    In addition to dopamine modification, what effect do Amphetamine and Methlyphenidate have on neuroanatomy of Norepinephrine neurons?
    • A. 

      Suppress locus coeruleus NE neurons

    • B. 

      Activate locus coeruleus NE neurons

    • C. 

      Suppress decimus meridius NE neurons

    • D. 

      Activate decimus meridius NE neurons

  • 9. 
    Which qualities of bupropion (Wellbutrin) is FALSE?
    • A. 

      Selective Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

    • B. 

      Used mainly in adults

    • C. 

      Lacks potential for abuse

    • D. 

      Does have risk of seizures

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is TRUE about Atomoxetine (Strattera)?
    • A. 

      Up to 3 weeks (5 half lives) to have full effect

    • B. 

      Moderate potential for abuse

    • C. 

      Only drug approved by the FDA for adult ADHD

    • D. 

      Requires multiple daily dosing at maintenance levels

  • 11. 
    Alpha-2-Adrenoceptor agonists (clonidine and guanfacine) _____  NE release in the locum coeruleus
    • A. 

      Stimulate

    • B. 

      Inhibit

  • 12. 
    Which Methylphenidate mediation has an osmotic release, which extends its effect up to 12 hours?
    • A. 

      Strattera

    • B. 

      Concerta

    • C. 

      Vyvanse

    • D. 

      Daytrana

  • 13. 
    The transdermal methylphenidate patch is as effective as other formulations
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Focalin (or Dexmethlyphenidate) contains only the d-isomer of methylphenidate. As a result, the dose is 50% lower than methylphenidate and while efficacy is the same, tolerability of the medication is increased.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    Which of the follow would NOT be consider a common, specific adverse effect of stimulants?
    • A. 

      Anorexia

    • B. 

      Ataxia

    • C. 

      Headache

    • D. 

      Mood changes

  • 16. 
    When would atomoxetine (Strattera) NOT be an alternative 1st line treatment?
    • A. 

      Anxiety disorder

    • B. 

      Intolerance to methylphenidate

    • C. 

      Metabolic disease

    • D. 

      Substance abuse disorder

  • 17. 
    Which of the follow is not a precaution in use of atomoxetine (Strattera)?
    • A. 

      Blood dyscrasia

    • B. 

      Liver injury

    • C. 

      Urinary retention

    • D. 

      Suicidal ideation

  • 18. 
    What is the starting/titration dose of atomoxetine (Straterra)?
    • A. 

      0.1 mg/kg/day

    • B. 

      0.5 mg/kg/day

    • C. 

      1 mg/kg/day

    • D. 

      5 mg/kg/day

  • 19. 
    When treatment with Stimulants results in increased tics, treatment for ADHD with clonidine (catapres) can be considered.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Within how long is typical onset of guanfacine treatment in ADHD experienced?
    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 21. 
    Which of the following statements about ADHD in children is FALSE?
    • A. 

      90% respond to stimulant(s) alone

    • B. 

      Long-acting formulations are more preferred

    • C. 

      Lower doses for hyperactive type ADHD, higher doses for inattentive or combined form

    • D. 

      Medications are best studied in this age group

  • 22. 
    In treatment of major depressive disorder in pediatric patients, combination cognitive behavior therapy and SSRI are better than either treatment alone
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Which of the following SSRI is NOT expert recommended in treatment of major depressive disorder in pediatric patients?
    • A. 

      Fluoxetine

    • B. 

      Citalopram

    • C. 

      Sertraline

    • D. 

      Paroxetine

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorders?  
    • A. 

      Delusions

    • B. 

      Impaired nonverbal/verbal communication

    • C. 

      Impaired social interactions

    • D. 

      Repetitive behaviors

  • 25. 
    Which medication is FDA approved as a pharmacologic option for Autism Spectrum Disorders?
    • A. 

      Atomoxetine

    • B. 

      Clonidine

    • C. 

      Guanficine

    • D. 

      Risperidone